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Worksheets

Ramsey Test

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A synchronous motor controller will start the motor as induction motor and then

a)

bring it into synchronization using dc excitation.

b)

run it as a synchronized DC motor.

c)

synchronize the stator with the line frequency.

d)

synchronize the power factor and frequency.

2.

The schematic below shows which of the following motors?

a)

Series

b)

Shunt

c)

Compound

d)

3-phase

3.

The rotation of a 3-phase motor can be reversed by

a)

moving all three leads in sequence

b)

a multiple winding

c)

reversing two leads

d)

reversing the rotor resistance

4.

Dynamic braking is used to

a)

regulate the speed of a motor

b)

mechanically slow the motor down

c)

electrically retard or slow down a motor

d)

derate the motor's horsepower

5.

In a DC shunt motor, the speed can be increased above the base speed by

a)

decreasing the field current

b)

decreasing the armature current

c)

shifting the brush neutral

d)

increasing the strength of the shunt field

6.

Why are interpoles installed in shunt and compound motors?

a)

reduce or prevent sparking

b)

reduce armature current

c)

reduce the size of the main fields

d)

increase the torque

7.

The schematic below shows which of the following motors?

a)

series

b)

shunt

c)

compound

d)

3-phase

8.

The schematic shows which of the following motors?

a)

series

b)

shunt

c)

compound

d)

3-phase

9.

For normal starting of motors, the bimetallic element of a circuit breaker provides the required

a)

temperature correction

b)

time delay

c)

varying current

d)

voltage variation

10.

Why is an anti-plugging relay used on a motor control panel?

a)

To permit the motor to be jogged

b)

to prevent the motor from being jogged

c)

to prevent the motor from being hard reversed

d)

to permit the motor to carry an overload for a short time

11.

The direction of rotation of a DC motor wil change if the

a)

armature and field current are reversed

b)

amount of armature current is sufficiently decreased

c)

amount of field current is increased

d)

direction of armature current is reversed relative to its field

12.

Read the motor tag below. What is the expected full load amperage when the motor is wired for use on a 480 volt service?

a)

17.5

b)

15.2

c)

7.6

d)

1.0

13.

A generator converts

a)

electrical energy into mechanical energy

b)

electrical energy into heat energy

c)

heat energy into electrical energy

d)

mechanical energy into electrical energy

14.

On large horizontal AC and Dc motors, plain babbitt bearing are needed to support the weight of the armature. the bearings are lubricated with oil rings. The oil rings

a)

are grooves in the bearing that allow oil to reach all areas of the bearing

b)

side on the bearing, supplying lubrication

c)

must always rotate with the motor shaft, carrying oil to the bearing

d)

ride on the ends of the bearings, keeping the lubrication oil from leaving the bearing area

15.

When a photoelectric sensor does not work, you should first

a)

check the amplifier

b)

measure the resistance across the cell

c)

check the light source

d)

check the relay

16.

Zener diodes are most often in

a)

amplifier circuits

b)

voltage regulator circuits

c)

oscillator circuits

d)

flip flop circuits

17.

The range of power dissipation that can be obtained in this circuit is

a)

46 to 96 watts

b)

288 to 576 watts

c)

288 to 1152 watts

d)

576 to 1152 wats

18.

In an electronic circuit you would use regulation

a)

as a filter

b)

to maintain a constant voltage at the load

c)

to change capacitance

d)

as a transformer

19.

In a closed loop servo, a tachometer generator would be used to provide

a)

speed feedback

b)

supply position feedback

c)

current feedback proportional to load

d)

constant speed

20.

A solenoid valve may be described as

a)

a proportional control valve

b)

slow

c)

an on-off control valve

d)

too small to use as a control valve

21.

What type of output does a thermocouple generate?

a)

millivolts

b)

milliamps

c)

pulses

d)

BTUs

22.

Which of the following is the symbol for current?

a)

EMF

b)

KV

c)

I

d)

KVA

23.

Which of the following is a temperature switch?

a)
b)
c)
d)
24.

Using the schematic below, what would cause the MX2 relay to de-energize?

a)

tank is empty

b)

overload contacts are open

c)

start button is released

d)

power loss on wire 109A15D

25.

The purpose of the unit represented by the symbol is to

a)

convert AC to DC

b)

change voltages

c)

measure power

d)

limit current

26.

The symbol for a DC shunt motor is

a)
b)
c)
d)
27.

Which of the above symbols is a limit switch?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

e)

8

28.

Which of the above symbols is a stop switch?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

29.

Which of the above symbols is a start switch?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

e)

6

30.

Which conveyor must be started first in order to run all conveyors?

a)

M1

b)

M2

c)

M3

d)

Any one of the conveyors

31.

In the circuit above, at what points should your voltage tester be placed to check the stop button?

a)

X1 and 7

b)

X2 and 1

c)

4 and 7

d)

2 and X2

32.

Identify X2 in the diagram above

a)

transformer

b)

contactor coil

c)

ground

d)

primary winding

33.

Identify a normally closed contact in the diagram above

a)

X1 and X2

b)

2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

4 and 5

34.

When overcurrent relays operate without intentional time delay, the type of protection is

a)

inverse time

b)

definite time

c)

indirect acting

d)

instantaneous

35.

Which of the symbols below is a flow switch?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

36.

Electrical contacts in a thermostat must be small and, therefore, they cant handle the supply of current to a motor. The heavier current would be controlled through a

a)

transformer

b)

relay

c)

shunt

d)

switch

37.

The core material in a Dc relay consists of

a)

a coil of copper wire

b)

a permanent magnet

c)

soft iron

d)

laminated plastic

38.

If the primary coil of a transformer has more turns than the secondary, it is a

a)

step-down transformer

b)

step-up transformer

c)

variable transformer

d)

fixed transformer

39.

During Lowering, which resistor is used for armature current limit and for dynamic braking when stopping?

a)

R7-R8 & R8-R9

b)

R8-R9

c)

R1-R2

d)

R20-R21

40.

Which of the following will indicate if contactors move freely and close properly?

a)

lubricating them

b)

meggering them

c)

operating them by hand

d)

blowing them out with dry air

41.

A 480 volt 3-phase service can be converted to 120 volt/phase for a control circuit by use of

a)

a rectifier

b)

a rheostat

c)

a transformer

d)

resistors

42.

In the Diagram below, if 7R41 resistor opens, what would happen?

a)

Nothing

b)

hearth rolls would slow down

c)

process section would slow down

d)

hearth rolls would speed up

43.

Which of the following devices will isolate a controlling circuit from a controlled circuit?

a)

an SCR or a resistor

b)

a relay

c)

a transistor

d)

a diode

44.

To properly turn off an SCR once it is conducting,

a)

remove the gate signal to turn it off

b)

use a high speed contactor in series with the anode

c)

reverse bias the anode with respect to the cathode

d)

reverse bias the gate with respect to the cathode

45.

To increase the PIV (Peak Inverse Voltage) ability of an SCR circuit (power rectifier),

a)

connect two SCRs in series

b)

increase the snubber capacitor value

c)

decrease the snubber resistor

d)

parallel to anode inductive reactances

46.

In a full wave reversing the SCR bridge rectifier package with diodes connected to a three-phase delta transformer, what is the maximum number of SCR's required?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

3

d)

1

47.

In the circuit shown below, the main function of the R component is to

a)

filter output voltage and current

b)

discharge the capacitors when turned off

c)

balance the load

d)

reduce the load on the rectifier

48.

In a power transformer, the phase differential relay is used to

a)

control output power

b)

determine the policy to secondary voltage

c)

protect the transformer in case of overload on any phase

d)

protect the transformer in case the total current input vs total current output in any phase is different

49.

How many volts of secondary voltage does the 220-440 V/110-220 V transformer have when connected as shown below

a)

20

b)

110

c)

220

d)

440

50.

What is the correct use of a current transformer?

a)

control circuit power

b)

limiting current

c)

metering

d)

lighting

51.

Short circuits in any system are always accompanied by a sudden

a)

voltage decrease

b)

current decrease

c)

voltage increase

d)

resistance increase

52.

Given the AC sine wave voltage shown, what is the value of the RMS (Root Mean Square) Voltage?

a)

10V

b)

20V

c)

7.07V

d)

14.14V

53.

Total opposition to current flow in an AC circuit is expressed as the

a)

amperes

b)

flux density

c)

reaction

d)

impedance

54.

According to the electron theory, a flow of current is a movement of

a)

protons from atom to atom

b)

electrons from atom to atom

c)

the nucleus around the atom

d)

molecules within an atom

55.

If the current is 12 amperes and voltage is 15 volts, what is the resistance?

a)

.75 ohms

b)

.80 ohms

c)

.90 ohms

d)

1.25 ohms

56.

If the voltage is 115 volts and resistance is 20 ohms, what is the current?

a)

5.75 amps

b)

57.5 amps

c)

230 amps

d)

2300 amps

57.

What is the current flow through the 3 ohm resistor in the circuit below?

a)

1.3A

b)

4A

c)

6A

d)

8A

58.

What two factors change the speed of an AC induction motor?

a)

size and direction

b)

current and direction

c)

resistance and current

d)

number of poles and frequency

59.

In normal operation, the voltage drop across a forward-biased silicon diode is

a)

0.0V

b)

0.7V

c)

proportional to current through the diode

d)

dependent on the applied voltage

60.

A resistor that is color coded orange, orange, and brown has a resistive value of

a)

22

b)

330 ohms

c)

44K ohms

d)

2k Ohms +/-5%

61.

Choose the answer that expresses Ohm's Law

a)

R = E^2I

b)

R = E/I

c)

R = EI

d)

I = ER

62.

What should be used to convert AC to DC current?

a)

transformer

b)

bridge rectifier

c)

shunt wound motor

d)

conversion module

63.

The ampere is the measure of

a)

current

b)

voltage

c)

power

d)

resistance

64.

The watt is the measure of

a)

current

b)

voltage

c)

power

d)

resistance

65.

A transformer has 400 turns in the primary and 200 turns in the secondary. If 240 volts are applied to the primary winding, what voltage will be measured on the secondary winding?

a)

400V

b)

240V

c)

220V

d)

120V

66.

To prevent damage to a current transformer, the secondary winding must be

a)

open

b)

disconnected

c)

short-circuited

d)

insulated

67.

What is the smallest control transformer requirement for a secondary full load of 11.2 Amps at 120 volts?

a)

1 KVA

b)

0.75 KVA

c)

2.0 KVA

d)

1.5 KVA

68.

What device automatically or manually stops current flow under trouble conditions?

a)

time delay fuse

b)

control relay

c)

circuit breker

d)

circuit checker

69.

A current transformer rated 2000/5 means

a)

2000 volts through the primary of th current transformer will produce 5 volts in the secondary

b)

the current transformer is rated for use on a 2000 volt circuit

c)

a current transformer does not have a rating

d)

the current transformer will produce 5 amps on the secondary if 2000 amps is passed through the primary of the current transformer

70.

A potential transformer is used for

a)

metering and relaying on a high voltage AC system

b)

determining the current flow on an AC system

c)

fuse protection for overloads

d)

prevention of eddy current

71.

A dual element fuse is used to

a)

operate at higher voltage

b)

operate at higher current

c)

operate with a temporary overload

d)

protect the transistor

72.

Percentage differential relays compare the

a)

incoming current to the outgoing current

b)

outgoing currents on each feeder

c)

incoming current to the bus tie

d)

outgoing currents to the bus tie voltage

73.

In power transmission, a transformer is used to raise the voltage on the sending end and lower the voltage on the receiving end in order to decrease

a)

corona loss at towers

b)

insulator length on units

c)

eddy currents in breakers

d)

wire size of power lines

74.

Because of the manner in which a voltmeter is used, it must have

a)

low resistance

b)

high resistance

c)

a multiplier in parellel

d)

a movement that indicates plus and minus values

75.

In the diagram below, what would the ammeter reading at "A" equal?

a)

1/2 of B

b)

2 times that of B

c)

(A + B) / 2

d)

the total current of the circuit

76.

To see a picture of a particular point in a circuit you would use

a)

a voltmeter

b)

a frequency generator

c)

an oscilloscope

d)

a frequency counter

77.

The accuracy of a volt-ohm-milliammeter is given as 2% of full scale. On the 10 volt range this would allow for an error of how many millivolts at full scale?

a)

0.2 mV

b)

0.02 mV

c)

0.002 mV

d)

200 mV

78.

What is most harmful to the human body?

a)

current

b)

high votlage

c)

high resistance

d)

reactance

79.

An "infinite" (10 megaohms or more) reading on a solenoid shows

a)

a good solenoid

b)

a grounded solenoid

c)

an open solenoid

d)

a short-circuited solenoid

80.

The potential required to operate a megohmmeter is usually supplied by

a)

a current transformer

b)

the circuit being tested

c)

a potential transformer

d)

an internal power supply

81.

The purpose of a megger is to measure

a)

power factor

b)

current

c)

resistance

d)

megawatts

82.

Power in a circuit can be measured using a

a)

voltmeter

b)

wattmeter

c)

ohmmeter

d)

ammeter

83.

What coupler would allow the greatest flexibility?

a)

rigid shaft coupler

b)

chain coupling

c)

gear coupling

d)

rubber mounted coupling

84.

What information is needed to calculate the force that a hydraulic cylinder can exert?

a)

diameter of inlet pipe

b)

piston stroke

c)

flow rate

d)

hydraulic pressure (psi)

85.

If a cylinder has an input pressure of 50 PSI and the BLANK SIDE of the piston is 5 sq. inches, how much total force is applied by the piston?

a)

5 lbs

b)

10 lbs

c)

50 lbs

d)

250 lbs

86.

What is the most important use of oil film lubrication?

a)

separate moving surfaces

b)

prevent corrosion

c)

increase pressure

d)

increase friction

87.

The viscosity of an oil is affected most by

a)

contamination

b)

resistance to corrosion

c)

pressure

d)

temperature

88.

When metal parts are "seized" because of lack of lubrication, it is due to

a)

expansion of the metal

b)

contraction of the metal

c)

contraction of the lubricant

d)

expansion of the lubricant

89.

In the diagram below, each circle represents a gear which can rotate about its own axis. If gear A is driven in a clockwise direction, which direction will gear C rotate and what will be its speed in reference to gear A?

a)

clockwise and slower than A

b)

clockwise and faster than A

c)

counterclockwise and slower than A

d)

counterclockwise and faster than A

90.

What is the reason that an oxygen gauge reads "use no oil"?

a)

oil causes the brass gauge to corrode

b)

oil and oxygen make an explosive mixture

c)

soap is a better lubricant

d)

oil would gum up the mechanism

91.

With E-stop in normal run position, which input must be "on" to start the motor?

a)

10012

b)

10020

c)

10025

d)

10067

92.

Which of the following PLC input operations requires a conversion to digital form prior to input?

a)

disc

b)

analog

c)

contact closures

d)

limit switches

93.

If a programmable controller controls the operation of a motor, what connects the motor to the PLC?

a)

RS232 cable

b)

Line voltage

c)

I/O device

d)

Modem

94.

Computer software is

a)

printer paper

b)

computer programs

c)

a soft keyboard

d)

a computers wiring harness

95.

If you had a flow transmitter that had a 4-20 mA mode output and a recorder that only accepted a 1 to 5 VDC input, what size resistor would you use on the input of the recorder to accommodate the mA signal?

a)

25 ohms

b)

40 ohms

c)

250 ohms

d)

400 ohms

96.

Computer memory capacity is usually measured in terms of

a)

volumes

b)

bytes

c)

electrical impulses

d)

watts

97.

A PLC system experiences a problem where a particular device connected to a 120Vac solid state output card remains energized at all time. An on-line examination of the ladder logic indicates that the output logic bit for that particular output is turning off and on as it should. All the other outputs connected to the card appear to be working. The device wiring shows no opens or shorts when an ohmmeter is connected to the wiring while it is disconnected from the output card. Which of the following procedures would most likely correct the situation?

a)

replace the PLC processor card

b)

replace the output card

c)

reload the PLC memory

d)

replace the output device

98.

What tap is best to cut threads near the bottom of a blind hole?

a)

centering tap

b)

plug tap

c)

bottoming tap

d)

taper tap

99.

If an indicator is not available, alignments between shafts can be checked with a

a)

rule

b)

chalk line

c)

straightedge and feelers

d)

square

100.

When repairing a machine, you should

a)

shut off the main source of power

b)

shut off and lock the main source of power

c)

use the on-off switch on the machine

d)

instruct the operator to shut off the machine

101.

Mark the letter of the correct reading for the micrometer in thousandths

a)

0.04125

b)

0.40125

c)

0.412

d)

4.125

102.

When threading conduit on a pipe machine, cutting oil is used to

a)

lubricate the drive motor on the pipe machine

b)

prevent the chips from the threading of the conduit from blowing on the floor

c)

prevent the formation of rust on the threads of the conduit after installation

d)

cool and lubricate the die during the threading operation

103.

If a fuse blows when the start button is pressed, what should you check for?

a)

shorted motor circuit

b)

open coils

c)

grounded fuse holder

d)

open neutral

104.

In a step-down 3-phase transformer with no terminal markings, what would indicate the low voltage winding outputs?

a)

the diameter of the wires sticking out of the transformer

b)

the top wires are always on the high side of the transformer

c)

the level of the insulating fluid since the high side is normally not in the fluid

d)

if the transformer is a delta to delta, the center tap is on the secondary or low voltage side

105.

When a Dc shunt motor does not come up to speed, the

a)

field is too strong or the motor is oversized

b)

field is too strong or the motor terminal voltage is too low

c)

motor is oversized

d)

motor terminal voltage is too low or the motor is oversized

106.

What will happen to a DC compound motor without field loss protection if the shunt field coil opens while the motor is running under light load?

a)

it runs faster

b)

it runs at the same speed

c)

it runs slower

d)

it stops

107.

What should you test before putting into service a wet motor which has been dried out?

a)

voltage rating

b)

winding resistance

c)

insulation resistance

d)

current required

108.

In the case of a fire in a switch room, what kind of extinguisher should be used?

a)

ABC type

b)

hydrogen gas

c)

foam type

d)

water

109.

An amp clamp (for example, Amprobe) should be placed around

a)

one wire

b)

two wires

c)

three wires

d)

the power wire and neutral

110.

From a 900 ton production run, 90 tons were found to be defective. The precent defective is

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

111.

An inexperienced electrician notices that the secondary voltage on a 480 volt distribution transformer is 510 volts. He is concerned because the one he checked last month was 461 volts. You explain to him that although both voltages are within the voltage tolerance established by NEMA,

a)

the actual terminal voltage depends on plant incoming voltage and local load-center load. taps on both transformers are probably correct

b)

the taps on both transformers should be adjusted immediately to get 480 volts on the secondary

c)

transformer reading 461 volts should be adjusted to get closer to 510 volts

d)

the lower voltage transformer should be inspected for shorted turns or other faults

112.

The purpose of an arc chute over a contractor on a panel board is to

a)

keep the dirt away from the contactor

b)

keep the contactor aligned

c)

protect your eyes

d)

help extinguish the electric arc

113.

What is the maximum number of 90 degree bends which should be used in a run of conduit between points where the wire can be pulled?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

3

d)

6

114.

It is permissible to run instrumentation cables

a)

with 4160 volt cable without dividers

b)

with control cable without dividers

c)

in separate steel conduit

d)

in disconnected trays

115.

How many feet of conduit may be run before a fitting or a pull box is required?

a)

15 feet

b)

50 feet

c)

75 feet

d)

100 feet