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WorksheetsCassopoiea: Blood Banking
Total questions: 74
Worksheet time: 37mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
ISBT 001
a)
ABO
b)
Rh
2.
ISBT 004
a)
ABO
b)
Rh
3.
Hydatid disease antibody
a)
Anti-P1
b)
Anti-P
4.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae associated antibody
a)
Anti-I
b)
Anti-i
5.
Infectious mononucleosis associated antibody
a)
Anti-I
b)
Anti-i
6.
Duffy phenotype resistant to malaria
a)
Fy (a-b-)
b)
Fy (a+b-)
7.
Blood group with the short term "Yt"
a)
Cartwright
b)
Diego
c)
Wright
d)
Dombrock
8.
C4 associated blood group
a)
MNS
b)
P
c)
Rhea
d)
Chido-Rodgers
9.
Donath-Landsteiner Antibody
a)
Anti-P1
b)
Anti-P
10.
pH-dependent antibody
a)
Anti-M
b)
Anti-A
c)
Anti-N
d)
Anti-S
11.
The name Lutheran derived from
a)
Donor named Lutheran
b)
Lupus diffusus patient
c)
A Lutheran minister
d)
Martin Luther King
12.
Notorious antibody
a)
Anti-Jk
b)
Anti-K
c)
Anti-Fy
d)
Anti-Ge
13.
Antigens reside on Complement Receptor 1
a)
Indian
b)
Gerbich
c)
Knops
d)
Radin
14.
Higher prevalence in the Mennonite population
a)
Scianna 2
b)
Scianna 1
c)
Cromer
d)
Fy (a+b-)
15.
An important blood group discovered by Landsteiner and Levine in 1927 from injecting humans with rabbit rbcs and divided it into 2 groups
a)
P
b)
Rh
c)
ABO
d)
Kell
16.
Blood anticoagulant preservative introduced in 1957
a)
ACD
b)
CPD
c)
Sodium Citrate
d)
Sodium phosphate
17.
Anti-Leb
a)
is an IgG
b)
Occurs only as IgM
c)
is usually IgM
d)
is an IgA
18.
Which of the following antibodies is not associated with HDN?
a)
anti-K
b)
anti-c
c)
anti-Lub
d)
anti-Lea
19.
Chromosomal number of ABO Gene
a)
9p
b)
9q
c)
6p
d)
6q
20.
How many H antigen structures are currently identified?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
21.
What is the blood type of an individual with acquired B phenomenon?
a)
Group A
b)
Group B
c)
Group AB
d)
Group O
22.
Identify the blood type of this newborn patient: Anti-A 0 / Anti-B 4+ / A1 cells 0 / B cells 0
a)
Group A
b)
Group B
c)
Group AB
d)
Group O
23.
Anti-U
a)
reactive with Vicia graminea
b)
pH sensitive at 6.5
c)
Found only in blacks
d)
U stands for Uruguay
24.
Subtype of Duffy associated with Plasmodium knowlesi
a)
Fy1
b)
Fy3
c)
Fy6
d)
Fy9
25.
Donor Deferral: Sexual contact with a person postive for AIDS
a)
Deferred: 12 months
b)
Accepted
c)
Deferred: Indefinite
26.
Donor Deferral: Donor with bluish purple areas under the skin
a)
Accepted
b)
Deferred: 12 months
c)
Deferred: Indefinite
27.
Donor Deferral: White spots in the mouth or mucous membranes
a)
Accepted
b)
Deferred: 12 months
c)
Deferred: Indefinite
28.
Donor Deferral: Hgb level of 10.8 g/dL
a)
Accepted
b)
Deferred
29.
Donor Deferral: Rubeola vaccine 2 months ago
a)
Accepted (2 weeks)
b)
Deferred: 12 months
c)
Accepted
d)
Deferred: Indefinite
30.
Donor Deferral: Individual who had appendectomy 5 months ago
a)
Deffered (12 months)
b)
Accepted
c)
Accepted (2 weeks)
d)
Deferred: Indefinite
31.
A donor has taken live attenuated vaccine for German measles. He must be deferred for how long?
a)
No deferral
b)
2 weeks
c)
4 weeks
d)
1 year
32.
MMR vaccine deferral
a)
2 weeks
b)
4 weeks
c)
1 year
d)
No deferral
33.
Shelf life of RBCs on CP2D anticoagulant
a)
21 days
b)
35 days
c)
42 days
d)
None
34.
Vaccines: Rubeola (measles) deferral
a)
No deferral
b)
2 weeks
c)
4 weeks
d)
1 year
35.
Collection of whole blood with concurrent infusion of crystalloid or colloid solutions, thus maintaining a normal blood volume but decreasing the patient's hematocrit
a)
Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution
b)
Preoperative collection
c)
Intraoperative collection
d)
Postoperative Blood Salvage
36.
Occurs during 5-6 weeks immediately preceding a scheduled, elective surgical procedure unless RBCs and plasma are frozen
a)
Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution
b)
Preoperative collection
c)
Intraoperative collection
d)
Postoperative Blood Salvage
37.
Collecting shed blood from the surgical site
a)
Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution
b)
Preoperative collection
c)
Intraoperative collection
d)
Postoperative Blood Salvage
38.
Collected from a drainage tube at the surgical site
a)
Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution
b)
Preoperative collection
c)
Intraoperative collection
d)
Postoperative Blood Salvage
39.
Processing the blood through an instrument that washes it with saline, concentrates the residual cells, and then reinfusing immediately.
a)
Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution
b)
Preoperative collection
c)
Intraoperative collection
d)
Postoperative Blood Salvage
40.
It is reinfused via microaggregate filter to screen out any debris.
a)
Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution
b)
Preoperative collection
c)
Intraoperative collection
d)
Postoperative Blood Salvage
41.
Shelf life of RBCs on CPDA-1
a)
21 days
b)
35 days
c)
42 days
d)
None
42.
Shelf life of RBCs in Adsol
a)
21 days
b)
35 days
c)
42 days
d)
None
43.
Shelf life of RBCs stored in SAG-M; Similar to AS-1
a)
21 days
b)
35 days
c)
42 days
d)
None
44.
Shelf life of pRBCs obtained through open system with ACD anticoagulant
a)
30 days
b)
21 days
c)
35 days
d)
None
45.
Blood component needed in liver disease
a)
FFP
b)
Leukoreduced RBCs
c)
Frozen RBCs
d)
Cryoprecipitate
46.
Who can bleed blood donors?
a)
RMT
b)
RN
c)
MD
d)
All
47.
Blood component that can help reduce CMV transmission
a)
Leukoreduced RBCs
b)
FFP
c)
Frozen RBCs
d)
Cryoprecipitate
48.
After thawing and deglycerolization, how much of the donor's RBCs can be recovered?
a)
0.7
b)
0.75
c)
0.60
d)
0.85
49.
Prothrombin complex concentrains contains factors ___
a)
II, VII, IX, X
b)
II,V, VII, IX, X, XI
50.
Coagulation factor not found in cryoprecipitate
a)
Factor XIII
b)
Fibrinogen
c)
Factor VIII
d)
Factor IX
51.
Blood component therapy for individuals with Rosenthal syndrome
a)
Factor IX concentrate
b)
Cryoprecipitated AHF
c)
Fresh frozen plasma
d)
All of the above
52.
Neocytes have __ posttransfusion survival time
a)
Longer
b)
Shorter
53.
What are neocytes?
a)
Blood from cord blood
b)
Blood from a newborn
c)
Blood from a fetus
d)
Blood cells newly released by the bone marrow
54.
Color of anti-A sera
a)
Yellow
b)
Green
c)
Blue
d)
Colorless
55.
Color of LISS reagent
a)
Yellow
b)
Green
c)
Blue
d)
Colorless
56.
What is the color of a comercially-prepared AHG reagent?
a)
Yellow
b)
Blue
c)
Yellow-Green
d)
Colorless
57.
What is the color of bovine serum albumin?
a)
Yellow
b)
Blue
c)
Yellow-Green
d)
Colorless
58.
In Gel tube technology, a negative reaction refers to:
a)
RBC agglutinates at the top of the gel and bottom
b)
RBC observed in the lower half of the gel column with red cells also in the bottom
c)
RBC agglutinates dispersed throughout the gel column with few agglutinates at the bottom of the tube
d)
Red cells forming a well-delineated pellet in the bottom of the microtube
59.
Who invented the gel test?
a)
Yves Lapierre
b)
Karl Landsteiner
c)
Jules Bordet
60.
Centrifugation time for gel tube technology
a)
5 minutes
b)
10 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
20 minutes
61.
This is a process of removing antibody from RBC membrane
a)
Dilution
b)
Elution
c)
Abdsorption
d)
Enzyme treatment
62.
1'C rise in temperature caused by anti-leukocyte antibodies
a)
FNHTR
b)
Allergic Reaction
c)
Anaphylactic Reaction
d)
TA-GVHD
63.
Blood product given to a person with history of FNHTR
a)
Leukoreduced RBCs
b)
Washed RBCs
c)
Irradiated RBCs
d)
Corticosteriod
64.
Patient has IgA deficiency but has anti-IgA
a)
Allergic Reaction
b)
Anaphylactic Reaction
c)
FNHTR
d)
Anaphylactoid Reaction
65.
Patient was given donor plasma with foreign proteins
a)
Allergic Reaction
b)
Anaphylactic Reaction
c)
Anaphylactoid Reaction
d)
FNHTR
66.
Blood product given to a person with Allergic Transfusion Reaction
a)
Leukoreduced RBCs
b)
Washed RBCs
c)
Irradiated RBCs
d)
Corticosteriod
67.
Patient has normal IgA with anti-IgA antibodies; Patient is febrile
a)
Allergic Reaction
b)
Anaphylactic Reaction
c)
Anaphylactoid Reaction
d)
Corticosteriod
68.
Blood product given to a person with Anaphylactoid Reaction
a)
Leukoreduced RBCs
b)
Washed RBCs
c)
Irradiated RBCs
d)
Corticosteriod
69.
Blood product given to a person with Analaphylactic reaction
a)
Leukoreduced RBCs
b)
Washed RBCs or IgA deficient blood
c)
Irradiated RBCs
d)
Corticosteriod
70.
Rapid infusion of large volumes of blood products
a)
TA-GVHD
b)
TRALI
c)
TACO
d)
PCITR
71.
Caused by anti-platelet antibodies
a)
PCITR
b)
TRALI
c)
NCPE
d)
PTP
72.
Blood product that prevents TA-GVHD
a)
Irradiated RBCs
b)
Leukoreduced RBCs
c)
Washed RBCs
d)
Corticosteriod
73.
Iron-chelating agent used to treat iron overload
a)
Antihistamine
b)
Deferroxamine
c)
Propanol
74.
Newly discovered blood transfusion transmitted virus:
a)
HIV
b)
Hepatitis B
c)
TTV
d)
RSV
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