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PARC Exam

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Your patient is complaining of localized pain over the lower right area of the chest while breathing. When you auscultate her chest, you hear a rasping noise at her point of pain on both inspiration and expiration. This is most likely

a)

Pleural friction rub

b)

Normal breath sounds

c)

Wheezes

d)

Rhonchi

2.

All of the following could result in a mediastinal shift on a chest x-ray film EXCEPT

a)

Right-sided hemothorax

b)

Bilateral lower lobe pneumonia

c)

Bilateral lower lobe pneumonia

d)

Right lower lobe atelectasis

3.

The respiratory therapist is assessing a patient with severe emphysema and observes pedal edema and jugular venous distention. The therapist should note in the patient’s chart these signs are most likely the result of:

a)

Pulmonary infection

b)

Right ventricular hypertrophy

c)

Hypercapnia

d)

Systemic hypertension

4.

You are called to the Emergency Department to help care for a patient who was in a car accident and has chest injuries, including broken ribs. While palpating her neck, you feel a crepitation. What is the most likely cause of this?

a)

She has aspirated a tooth.

b)

She has an air leak from her lung.

c)

Blood is in the back of her throat.

d)

She has a laryngeal tumor.

5.

Tactile fremitus would be reduced in all of the following conditions EXCEPT

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

COPD

6.

Active listening is most essential during what stage of the clinical encounter?

a)

Introductory stage

b)

Initial assessment stage

c)

Treatment and monitoring stage

d)

Follow-up stage

7.

What type of lung problem is associated with severe kyphoscoliosis?

a)

COPD

b)

Pulmonary fibrosis

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Restrictive lung disease

8.

PERRLA is used to describe findings while examining

a)

Gag reflex

b)

Deep tendon reflexes

c)

Pupils

d)

Level of consciousness

9.

You have finished charting on your patient when you notice that an error was made. You should do which of the following?

a)

Have your supervisor chart

b)

Place a line through the error, initial it, and write

c)

Tell the nurse so that she will tell the physician

d)

Tell the nurse so that she will chart the correct information.

10.

A patient enters the emergency department, and on initial examination the respiratory therapist observes paradoxical chest movement. Which of the following should the therapist suspect?

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Flail chest

d)

Pleural effusion

11.

For a clinical encounter with a patient on airborne precautions, you should:

a)

Wear goggles or an eye shield

b)

Perform a surgical hand scrub

c)

Wear a properly fitting n95 respirator

d)

Don sterile gloves

12.

Which of the following violates HIPAA-related privacy and security rules?

a)

Providing the minimal needed patient information on request.

b)

Keeping patient information on a whiteboard in the staff room.

c)

Discussing a patient’s health status with the nurse at the bedside.

d)

Leaving a computer unattended without logging off.

13.

The family history may be helpful in diagnosing a patient with which of the following problems?

a)

Acute bronchitis

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Pneumothorax

14.

In what section of the patient history can a detailed description of the patient’s current symptoms be found?

a)

Chief complaints

b)

History of present illness

c)

Past medical history

d)

Occupational history

15.

At which of the following topographic locations is the bifurcation of the trachea located on the anterior chest?

a)

Over the upper part of the manubrium

b)

Beneath the sternal angle

c)

The fourth rib at the sternum

d)

Under the xiphoid process

16.

Which of the following would be examples of techniques used in conversational interviewing?

a)

Using questions such as “what happened next?”

b)

Saying things like “you feel better now, don’t you?”

c)

Asking for clarification of a symptom

17.

In which of the following spaces is patient rapport best established?

a)

Social

b)

Personal

c)

Intimate

d)

Territorial

18.

A patient responds poorly to a treatment you have given. After assuring that the patient is stable, you should:

a)

Carefully note the patient’s response to treatment in the patient’s chart.

b)

Speak with the patient’s nurse, chart the response and whom you notified.

c)

Orally notify the patient’s nurse of his poor response to treatment.

d)

Request that the patient’s physician discontinue the therapy.

19.

After a postoperative patient you are interviewing grimaces while holding her abdomen, you note some confusion about her responses. Which of the following factors likely is affecting communication?

a)

Self-concept

b)

Listening habits

c)

Pain and anxiety

d)

Hearing impairment

20.

The peak pressure in the arteries is known as which of the following?

a)

Pulse pressure

b)

Diastolic pressure

c)

Systolic pressure

d)

Pulse pressure

21.

The knowledge of neurologic function and its assessment is important in the daily practice of the respiratory therapist (RT) because:

a)

The rt is often the first health care professional to encounter a patient with stroke.

b)

The rt is an important member of neurology clinic staff.

c)

Many respiratory conditions also affect the central nervous system.

d)

Many central nervous system conditions also affect the respiratory system.

22.

An adult patient with a history of smoking has shown an increased anteroposterior diameter and depressed hemidiaphragms on a PA chest radiograph. It is most likely that the patient

a)

Has pulmonary fibrosis.

b)

Has emphysema.

c)

Would have normal findings if an AP chest radiograph were taken.

d)

Has left ventricular failure.

23.

Your patient has a DNR label on his chart and at the head of his bed. This indicates:

a)

The patient is not responsive.

b)

The patient is not oriented to time, place, and person.

c)

The patient should not be resuscitated if cardiac arrest occurs.

d)

The patient has psychiatric problems and needs close supervision.

24.

Proper introduction of yourself to the patient before the interview is useful for all the following except:

a)

Establishing your role

b)

Asking permission to be involved

c)

Conveying your sincere interest in the patient

d)

Identifying diagnostic information

25.

Perfusion in the extremities may best be determined by which of the following methods?

a)

Obtaining ABG studies and determining PaO2

b)

Assessing the patient’s SpO2.

c)

Assessing capillary refill.

d)

Palpating a brachial pulse

26.

All of the following are appropriate roles for a respiratory therapist serving on a team managing a patient with COPD, except:

a)

Helping the patient develop good action plans

b)

Training the patient in self-care techniques

c)

Recommending changes in diet and nutrition

d)

Providing patient education about the disease

27.

During auscultation greatly diminished breath sounds in her right lower lobe can be heard, and her trachea has shifted to the right. These signs indicate which condition?

a)

Right-sided pneumothorax

b)

Right-sided atelectasis

c)

Left-sided pneumothorax

d)

Left-sided pneumonia

28.

The respiratory therapist notes a respiratory rate of 36/min in an adult patient’s chart. The patient’s breathing pattern is best described by which of the following?

a)

Hyperventilation

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Hypoventilation

d)

Tachypnea

29.

While supervising a respiratory therapy student, you observe that an anxious patient asks her if the aerosol bronchodilator she is about to deliver has any bad effects. The student replies “none to worry about.” After the treatment session is over, you should explain to the student that:

a)

Only the patient’s doctor should be discussing medication effects with the patient

b)

Her reply was consistent with what the patient needs to know

c)

Patients should be encouraged to ask questions about their medications

d)

Her reply was good—no need to further worry an anxious patient

30.

You are called to evaluate a patient’s breathing pattern. You notice that the patient’s tidal volumes go from small to large to small and then stop for 10 seconds before starting up again. The pattern repeats itself. This patient’s breathing pattern would best be called

a)

Eupnea

b)

Obstructed expiration

c)

Kussmaul’s respiration

d)

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

31.

A patient with Kussmaul breathing is likely to have:

a)

Severe acidosis

b)

Hypoxic drive to breathe

c)

Brain death

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

32.

In listening to a patient’s lungs, you notice bronchial breath sounds in her right lower lobe. These would indicate which of the following?

a)

Normal lungs

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Consolidation in her right lower lobe

d)

Pleural effusion in her right lower lobe

33.

Information that is evident only to the patient and cannot be perceived by the observer is known as which of the following?

a)

Subjective data

b)

Objective data

c)

Clinical signs

d)

Pertinent negatives

34.

Which of the following causes an increased tactile fremitus?

a)

Atelectasis with a patent bronchiole

b)

Pleural effusion

c)

Emphysema

d)

Obesity

35.

Which of the following causes an increased resonance to percussion of the chest?

a)

Lobar consolidation

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Atelectasis

36.

After several attempts to instruct a patient with COPD on the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler, the patient complains of the inability to master the correct technique. Applying patient-centered principles, you should:

a)

Request permission from the patient’s doctor to find a more acceptable delivery system.

b)

Cease trying to train the patient and recommend discontinuing the therapy.

c)

Push the patient to keep practicing until a return demonstration indicates competency.

d)

Chart the treatment as not given and return for another try on second rounds.

37.

In what section of the patient’s history would you find information about a possible history of exposure to asbestos?

a)

History of present illness

b)

Family history

c)

Occupational history

d)

Past medical history

38.

What is the normal range of the respiratory rate for adults?

a)

6-10 breaths/min

b)

8-12 breaths/min

c)

12-20 breaths/min

d)

15-25 breaths/min

39.

While palpating the chest, the respiratory therapist determines that there are decreased vibrations over the right lower lobe. This may be the result of which of the following?

1. Pneumothorax;

2. Pleural effusion;

3. Pneumonia

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

2 and 3 only

40.

In observing an infant’s chest configuration, you notice that it is the same size in both the AP and lateral dimensions. This would indicate that the patient has

a)

A normal chest

b)

Funnel chest/pectus excavatum

c)

Pulmonary emphysema with air trapping

d)

Lordosis

41.

Which of the following respiratory patterns consists of phases of hyperpnea that regularly alternate with episodes of apnea?

a)

Biot

b)

Kussmaul

c)

Apnea

d)

Cheyne-Stokes

42.

A patient coughs up yellow sputum after an IPPB treatment. Which one of the following statements is true in regard to this sputum production?

a)

It is old and contains little water.

b)

It is termed hemoptysis.

c)

It contains white blood cells (WBCs).

d)

It is a normal color for sputum.

43.

A decrease in the intensity of the palpated pulse during inhalation is a definition of which of the following?

a)

Abdominal paradox

b)

Pulse pressure

c)

Pulsus paradoxus

d)

Pulsus alternans

44.

Subjective manifestations of disease are termed:

a)

Symptoms

b)

Clinical findings

c)

Objective data

d)

Signs

45.

In which of the following conditions is lymphadenopathy of the neck seen?

a)

Infection of the upper airway

b)

Asthma

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Atelectasis

46.

A patient cannot provide a medical history, and it is obtained from a close relative. This is an example of which of the following?

a)

Family history

b)

Background information

c)

Screening information

d)

Alternative source

47.

You are called to help in the evaluation of a 55-year-old male patient. You notice the following signs and symptoms: oral temperature of 40° C (104.5° F), dia-phoresis, respiratory rate of 22, the use of accessory muscles of respiration, and palpable rhonchi in the right lower lobe. You would suspect which of the fol-lowing diagnoses:

a)

Bacterial pneumonia

b)

Heart attack

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Viral pneumonia

48.

You are called to the Emergency Department to help evaluate a pediatric patient. On entering the room, you observe the patient’s breathing effort and can hear a harsh, high-pitched sound on inspiration. Which of the following is true?

a)

Sounds are tracheal and normal.

b)

Sounds are bronchovesicular and not normal.

c)

Sounds are stridorous and indicate a respiratory emergency.

d)

Sounds are bronchial and indicate a respiratory

49.

“An inward depression of the sternum” describes which of the following thoracic configurations?

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Funnel chest

c)

Flail chest

d)

Barrel chest

50.

Pursed-lip breathing is most often seen in patients with which of the following diseases?

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

COPD

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Congestive heart failure

51.

Your patient has distended external jugular veins, even though her head and body are raised 45 degrees above her legs. This would indicate that she

a)

Is hypertensive

b)

Is fluid overloaded

c)

Has emphysema

d)

Is dehydrated

52.

Which of the following arterial sites is the most common for evaluating the pulse in the adult patient?

a)

Pedal

b)

Temporal

c)

Radial

d)

Femoral

53.

A patient who is suffering respiratory distress would exhibit all of the following except

a)

Normal respiratory rate

b)

Nasal flaring

c)

Intercostal retractions

d)

Use of accessory muscles of inspiration

54.

What is the most widely used instrument to quantify neurologic impairment?

a)

Merck Gait Evaluation

b)

Glasgow Coma Scale

c)

Apache III Score

d)

Apnea Test

55.

Which of the following is the normal topographic location of the PMI?

a)

Third intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

b)

Fourth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

c)

Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

d)

Sixth intercostal space at the midsternal line

56.

The term used to describe a condition in which a patient has difficulty breathing while in a supine position is which of the following?

a)

Orthopnea

b)

Hypoventilation

c)

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

d)

Kussmaul respirations

57.

What is the normal value of the resting pulse rate in the adult?

a)

30-60 beats/min

b)

60-100 beats/min

c)

80-120 beats/min

d)

100-150 beats/min

58.

Which of the following is not a typical component to physical examination?

a)

Inspection

b)

Palpation

c)

Auscultation

d)

Interviewing

59.

What is indicated by the presence of retractions?

a)

Heart failure

b)

An increase in the work of breathing

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Restrictive lung disease

60.

A Glasgow Coma Scale score below this number is typically an indication for endotracheal intubation:

a)

8

b)

10

c)

12

d)

14