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SHS 402 Test 1

Total questions: 214

Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Classify the universal design principle for learning: "preferential seating or allowing written rather than spoken communication"

a)

Accomodation

b)

Modification

c)

Assistive Technology

2.

Classify the universal design principle for learning: "decreased amount of classwork, homework, or reduced goals for productivity or learning"

a)

Accomodation

b)

Modification

c)

Assistive Technology

3.

Classify the universal design principle for: "learning and speech to text software"

a)

Accomodation

b)

Modification

c)

Assistive Technology

4.

Define: selection, sequencing, and generalization of therapy targets

a)

Programming

b)

Behavior Modification

c)

Key Teaching Strategies

d)

Session Design

e)

Data Collection

5.

Define: systematic use of specific stimulus-response-consequence procedures

a)

Programming

b)

Behavior Modification

c)

Key Teaching Strategies

d)

Session Design

e)

Data Collection

6.

Define: use of basic training techniques to facilitate learning

a)

Programming

b)

Behavior Modification

c)

Key Teaching Strategies

d)

Session Design

e)

Data Collection

7.

Define: Organization and implementation of therapy sessions, including interpersonal dynamics

a)

Programming

b)

Behavior Modification

c)

Key Teaching Strategies

d)

Session Design

e)

Data Collection

8.

Define: systematic measurement of client performance and treatment efficacy

a)

Programming

b)

Behavior Modification

c)

Key Teaching Strategies

d)

Session Design

e)

Data Collection

9.

T/F: therapy targets are short term goals

a)

True

b)

False

10.

T/F: A clinician should consider the client's cultural and linguistic background when identifying potential therapy targets

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Pretreatment (a)   are clinician-designed measures that provide multiple opportunities for a client to demonstrate a given communicative behavior.

12.

Which performance level accuracy percentage indicates that the communication skill in question is NOT in need of remediation?

a)

75%

b)

80%

c)

60%

d)

90%

13.

Which therapy target strategy is based on "known normative sequences of communicative behaviors and typically achieving individuals"?

a)

Developmental/ Normative Strategy

b)

Client Specific Strategy

14.

Which therapy target strategy is based on "an individual's specific needs rather than developmental norms"?

a)

Developmental/ Normative Strategy

b)

Client Specific Strategy

15.

Which strategy is most effective for articulation and language intervention?

a)

Developmental/ Normative Strategy

b)

Client Specific Strategy

16.

Which strategy can be implemented across a wide range of communication disorders?

a)

Developmental/ Normative Strategy

b)

Client Specific Strategy

17.

Which is NOT a factor in determining the progression of the therapy sequence?

a)

Stimulus Type

b)

Task Mode

c)

Response Level

d)

Client Age

18.

Direct physical manipulation, concrete symbols, and abstract symbols are all:

a)

Stimulus Types

b)

Task Modes

c)

Response Levels

19.

Imitation, cue/prompt, and spontaneous all describe:

a)

Stimulus Types

b)

Task Modes

c)

Response Levels

20.

Which is NOT a type of TASK MODE?

a)

Imitation

b)

Cue/ Prompt

c)

Spontaneous

d)

Direct Physical Manipulation

21.

Which are all reasons to terminate therapy?

a)

Attainment of communication skills commensurate with the client's developmental age

b)

Attainment of functional communication skills that permit the client to operate in their daily environment

c)

Lack of discernible progress persisting beyond a predetermined time period

d)

All of the Above

22.

Which identifies "the specific action the client is expected to perform"?

a)

Do

b)

Condition

c)

Criterion

23.

Which identifies the "situation in which the target behavior is to be performed"?

a)

Do

b)

Condition

c)

Criterion

24.

Which "specifies how well the target behavior must be performed for the objective to be achieved"?

a)

Do

b)

Condition

c)

Criterion

25.

Identify the "do" in the following statement: The client will verbally segment 100 written multisyllabic words into their component syllables with no more than four errors.

a)

Verbally segment words into syllables

b)

Given a written list of 100 multisyllabic words

c)

With no more than four errors

26.

Identify the "criterion" in the following statement: The client will verbally segment 100 written multisyllabic words into their component syllables with no more than four errors.

a)

Verbally segment words into syllables

b)

Given a written list of 100 multisyllabic words

c)

With no more than four errors

27.

Which is based on the theory of operant conditioning and involves a stimulus, response, and a consecutive event?

a)

Behavior Modification

b)

Key Teaching/ Scaffolding

c)

Homework

28.

Which aspect of Behavior Modification is defined as "the behavior exhibited by an individual on presentation of the stimulus"?

a)

Stimulus

b)

Response

c)

Consequence

29.

Which aspect of Behavior Modification is defined as "an event that proceeds and elicits a response"?

a)

Stimulus/ Antecedent

b)

Response

c)

Consequence

30.

Which aspect of Behavior Modification is defined as "an event that is contingent on and immediately follows the response"?

a)

Stimulus/ Antecedent

b)

Response

c)

Consequence

31.

A positive reinforcement in which a client reacts favorably due to the biological makeup or physiologic predisposition is known as:

a)

Primary Positive Reinforcement

b)

Secondary Positive Reinforcement

c)

Negative Reinforcement

d)

Punishment

32.

Reinforcement in which a client must be taught to perceive as rewarding.

a)

Primary Positive Reinforcement

b)

Secondary Positive Reinforcement

c)

Negative Reinforcement

d)

Punishment

33.

Which is a type of primary event?

a)

Social

b)

Food

c)

Token

d)

Performance Feedback

34.

Which is a type of secondary event?

a)

Social

b)

Food

c)

Token

d)

Performance Feedback

35.

An unpleasant event or condition is removed contingent on the performance of a desired behavior

a)

Negative Reinforcement

b)

Punishment

c)

Positive Reinforcement

36.

An event is presented contingent on the performance of an undesired behavior, to decrease the likelihood that the behavior will recur

a)

Negative Reinforcement

b)

Punishment

c)

Positive Reinforcement

37.

(a)   reinforcement is presented after every correct performance of a target behavior.

38.

A type of intermittent reinforcement where a SPECIFIC NUMBER OF CORRECT RESPONSES must be exhibited before a reinforcer is delivered (ex: every 3 responses)

a)

Fixed Ratio

b)

Fixed Interval

c)

Variable Ratio

d)

Variable Interval

39.

A type of intermittent reinforcement that is delivered for the first correct response AFTER A PREDETERMINED TIME has elapsed (ex: every 3 minutes)

a)

Fixed Ratio

b)

Fixed Interval

c)

Variable Ratio

d)

Variable Interval

40.

A type of intermittent reinforcement that varies the NUMBER OF CORRECT RESPONSES REQUIRED from trial to trial according to a predetermined pattern set by the clinician. (ex: after 3rd, then 5th, then 7th response)

a)

Fixed Ratio

b)

Fixed Interval

c)

Variable Ratio

d)

Variable Interval

41.

A type of intermittent reinforcement that varies the TIME PERIOD for reinforcement (ex: after 3 minutes then 5 minutes, then 7 minutes)

a)

Fixed Ratio

b)

Fixed Interval

c)

Variable Ratio

d)

Variable Interval

42.

Clinician demonstrates a direct model for the client to imitate

a)

Direct Modeling

b)

Indirect Modeling

c)

Shaping by Successive Approximation

d)

Prompts

43.

Clinician demonstrates a specific behavior frequently to expose a client to numerous well-formed examples of the target behavior

a)

Direct Modeling

b)

Indirect Modeling

c)

Shaping by Successive Approximation

d)

Prompts

44.

A target behavior is broken down into smaller components and type in ascending sequence of difficulty

a)

Direct Modeling

b)

Indirect Modeling

c)

Shaping by Successive Approximation

d)

Prompts

45.

Clinician provides verbal or nonverbal cues to facilitate a clients production of a correct response

a)

Direct Modeling

b)

Indirect Modeling

c)

Shaping by Successive Approximation

d)

Prompts

46.

Which Teaching Strategy is described as "Stimulus modeling, prompting, and reinforcements are gradually reduced while maintaining target behaviors"?

a)

Fading

b)

Expansion

c)

Recast

d)

Negative Practice

e)

Target Specific Feedback

47.

Which Teaching Strategy is described as "Clinician reformulates a client's utterance into a more mature or complete version"?

a)

Fading

b)

Expansion

c)

Recast

d)

Negative Practice

e)

Target Specific Feedback

48.

Which Teaching Strategy is described as "Clinician reformulates a client's utterance into a different sentence type"?

a)

Fading

b)

Expansion

c)

Recast

d)

Negative Practice

e)

Target Specific Feedback

49.

Which Teaching Strategy is described as "the client is required to intentionally produce a target behavior using a habitual error pattern"?

a)

Fading

b)

Expansion

c)

Recast

d)

Negative Practice

e)

Target Specific Feedback

50.

Which Teaching Strategy is described as "The clinician provides information regarding the accuracy or inaccuracy of a client's response relative to the specific target behavior"?

a)

Fading

b)

Expansion

c)

Recast

d)

Negative Practice

e)

Target Specific Feedback

51.

(a)   is provided to a client to practice an existing skill to strengthen the response and facilitate its generalization outside of a clinical setting.

52.

T/F: When designing an intervention program, you have to consider a client’s verbal and nonverbal cognitive abilities. 

a)

True

b)

False

53.

What is the ultimate goal of intervention?

a)

to teach a client how to produce all speech sounds effectively

b)

to teach strategies for facilitating the communication process rather than teaching isolated skills

c)

to keep communication skills from falling further behind

d)

All of the above

54.

___ are required to achieve specific outcomes in given situations

a)

Skills

b)

Strategies

55.

___ enable the individual to know when and how to use their skills in new and varied learning contexts

a)

Skills

b)

Strategies

56.

T/ F: Therapy goals are tailored to promote a client’s knowledge one step beyond the current level.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Therapy is terminated when :

a)

A client has communication skills commensurate with their chronological/ developmental age or premorbid status

b)

Attainment of functional communication skills permits a client to operate in the daily environment without significant handicap

c)

There is a lack of progress

d)

The client produces target errors less than 30% of the time.

58.

T/F: A clinician should not consider a client’s cultural and linguistic background when developing therapy goals

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Selection, sequencing, and generalization of therapy targets describes:

a)

Programming

b)

Behavior Modification

c)

Key Teaching Strategies

d)

Session Design

e)

Data Collection

60.

Systematic use of specific stimulus-response-consequence procedures describes:

a)

Programming

b)

Behavior Modification

c)

Key Teaching Strategies

d)

Session Design

e)

Data Collection

61.

Use of basic training techniques to facilitate learning describes:

a)

Programming

b)

Behavior Modification

c)

Key Teaching Strategies

d)

Session Design

e)

Data Collection

62.

Organization and implementation of therapy sessions, including interpersonal dynamics describes:

a)

Programming

b)

Behavior Modification

c)

Key Teaching Strategies

d)

Session Design

e)

Data Collection

63.

Systematic measurement of client performance and treatment efficacy describes:

a)

Programming

b)

Behavior Modification

c)

Key Teaching Strategies

d)

Session Design

e)

Data Collection

64.

Objects, photographs, and drawings are examples of:

a)

Concrete Symbols

b)

Abstract Symbols

65.

Oral and written language are examples of:

a)

Concrete Symbols

b)

Abstract Symbols

66.

___ is the nature of input used to elicit target responses.

a)

Stimulus Type

b)

Task Mode

c)

Response Level

67.

___ is the type of clinician support/scaffolding to obtain desired response.

a)

Stimulus Type

b)

Task Mode

c)

Response Level

68.

___ is the degree of difficulty of target response

a)

Stimulus Type

b)

Task Mode

c)

Response Level

69.

Which of the following are true about response levels?

a)

They increase the length and complexity of desired response

b)

Decrease latency (actual time) between stimulus presentation and client response

c)

Involve syllables, words, phrases, sentences, and text

d)

Involves direct physical manipulation

70.

(a)   is achieved by increasing or decreasing the difficulty level by one step according to the therapy sequence hierarchies.

71.

The Branching Technique is used by a clinician when:

a)

the client does not perform as predicted

b)

tasks are too easy or difficult

c)

The clinician has determined that the client's therapy sessions shall be terminated

72.

A client’s ability to transfer newly mastered behaviors to their everyday environment is also known as:

a)

Branching

b)

Generalization

c)

Carryover

73.

What are 3 factors that influence degree of success for carryover/ generalization?

a)

Variety of stimuli during therapy activities such as objects, pictures, or questions

b)

Varying physical environments so the client isn't used to one setting

c)

Varying the audience so the behavior isn't attached to one individual

d)

Varying the targets so the client has a variety of skills to carryover

74.

(a)   involves the spatial arrangement or relationships between a clinician and client within the therapy setting

75.

Select all the therapy session design factors

a)

Efficiency or pace a session

b)

Material appropriateness

c)

Proxemics

d)

Cultural background of client

76.

A statement that describes specific target behavior that is observable and measurable is known as:

a)

Behavioral Objectives

b)

Short-Term Goals

c)

Short-Term Objectives

d)

All of the Above

77.

Three components of a behavioral objective are:

a)

Do (action) statement

b)

Condition

c)

Criterion

d)

Stimulus Type

78.

Which is NOT a consequent event?

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Punishment

c)

Termination of therapy

79.

Which type of positive reinforcement is susceptible to satiation?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

80.

Which type of positive reinforcement must be taught to perceive as rewarding?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

81.

Which type of positive reinforcement is difficult to generalize outside of therapy?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

82.

Which type of positive reinforcement is difficult to reinforce immediately after each occurrence?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

83.

Which type of secondary positive reinforcement consists of verbal praise, smiling, and eye contact?

a)

Social

b)

Token

c)

Performance Feedback

84.

Which type of secondary positive reinforcement consists of symbols or objects?

a)

Social

b)

Token

c)

Performance Feedback

85.

Which type of secondary positive reinforcement consists of biofeedback, graphs, and rating scales?

a)

Social

b)

Token

c)

Performance Feedback

86.

Which of the following is TRUE about positive behavioral supports?

a)

They are more preventative and positive in nature

b)

SLPs can prevent problematic behaviors if materials are creative, interesting and sessions well-paced

c)

It is a pro-active approach that uses interpersonal and environmental strategies to minimize opportunities of problematic behavior

d)

They encourage socially useful behaviors.

e)

All of the Above

87.

T/F: The preferred Task Order Pattern is:  easy-hard-easy

a)

True

b)

False

88.

In the Service Delivery Model, what are the 3 types of collaborative partnerships?

a)

Consultative

b)

Team Teaching

c)

Self-contained

d)

Clinician-Client

89.

Which of the following is Step 1 of the Service Delivery Model?

a)

Clinician Presents Stimulus

b)

Clinician Presents Appropriate Consequent Event

c)

Clinician Records Response

d)

Clinician Removes Stimulus

e)

Clinician Waits for Client Response

90.

Which Step comes after "Clinician Presents Stimulus" in the Service Delivery Model?

a)

Clinician Waits for Client Response

b)

Clinician Presents Appropriate Consequent Event

c)

Clinician Records Response

d)

Clinician Removes Stimulus

91.

Which Step comes after "Clinician Waits for Client Response" the Service Delivery Model?

a)

Clinician Presents Stimulus

b)

Clinician Presents Appropriate Consequent Event

c)

Clinician Records Response

d)

Clinician Removes Stimulus

92.

Which Step comes after "Clinician Records Response" in the Service Delivery Model?

a)

Clinician Presents Stimulus

b)

Clinician Presents Appropriate Consequent Event

c)

Clinician Removes Stimulus

d)

Clinician Waits for Client Response

93.

Which Step comes after "Clinician Waits for Client Response" in the Service Delivery Model?

a)

Clinician Presents Stimulus

b)

Clinician Presents Appropriate Consequent Event

c)

Clinician Records Response

d)

Clinician Removes Stimulus

94.

Which Step comes after "Clinician Presents Appropriate Consequent Event" in the Service Delivery Model?

a)

Clinician Presents Stimulus

b)

Clinician Records Response

c)

Clinician Removes Stimulus

d)

Clinician Waits for Client Response

95.

Which are the 4 components of the Dynamics of Therapy?

a)

Clinician-client relationship

b)

Work Efficiency/ Pace

c)

Materials

d)

Proxemics

e)

Multi-Tiered

96.

T/F: When planning a group therapy session, a clinician should consider the group size and composition.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

During group therapy, which clinician role is described as "the clinician sets the agenda, chooses the materials and activities, provides specific instruction, and gives corrective feedback"?

a)

Directive

b)

Non-Directive

98.

During group therapy, which clinician role is described as " the clinician serves as a facilitator who overseas rather than directs while group members take charge of session activities"?

a)

Directive

b)

Non-Directive

99.

During group therapy, which clinician role is more commonly used in the carryover stages of therapy and with self-help groups?

a)

Directive

b)

Non-Directive

100.

During group therapy, which clinician role is typically used with groups composed of young children?

a)

Directive

b)

Non-Directive

101.

During group therapy, which clinician role is more common in the early stages of therapy to teach new communication behaviors?

a)

Directive

b)

Non-Directive

102.

Which of the following are classified as appropriate "procedures" in a group setting?

a)

Reinforce client behaviors & comments that are consistent with treatment goals

b)

Model target behaviors or techniques group members are attempting to develop

c)

Focus attention and group time on members who are making progress toward established goals

d)

Encourage interaction within a group by asking one member to demonstrate a target behavior for other members

103.

T/F: During a group therapy session, it is best to ask close-ended questions limited to one or two-word responses so group members remain interested.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

T/F: During a group therapy session, it is best to cue a group member to focus on a particular therapy target before they begin speaking.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

T/F: During a group therapy session, it is best to restructure comments or topics to appeal to all members of the group.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

T/F: During a group therapy session, behaviors of individual members should never be used to form generalizations applicable to the group as a whole.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Which of the following is NOT an ADVANTAGE of group therapy sessions?

a)

Carryover is facilitated

b)

Clients stimulate and motivate each other

c)

More opportunities exist for natural speaking situations

d)

Each group member receives more direct attention from the clinician

108.

Which of the following ARE ADVANTAGES of group therapy sessions?

a)

Clients recognize that others have problems similar to their own

b)

More occasions exists for clients to engage in critical listening

c)

A broader variety of activities and materials can be used

d)

Increased opportunities exist to learn by observing others

e)

Self-monitoring is encouraged

109.

Which of the following are DISADVANTAGES of group therapy sessions?

a)

One or two members may become dominant and monopolize the group

b)

Clients who are shy or a different cultural backgrounds may be reluctant to participate

c)

Fewer opportunities exist to adjust the specific weaknesses of each client

d)

Each group member receives less direct attention from the clinician

e)

The groups rate of progress may be too fast or too slow for members

110.

Which collaborative partnership model is described as "the clinician acts as a resource for professionals who work directly with a child and parents"?

a)

Consultative

b)

Team Teaching

c)

Self Contained

111.

Which collaborative partnership model would the agent of intervention be someone other than the SLP?

a)

Consultative

b)

Team Teaching

c)

Self Contained

112.

Which collaborative partnership model involves the clinician and teacher sharing the responsibility for classroom instruction on a regular basis?

a)

Consultative

b)

Team Teaching

c)

Self Contained

113.

Which collaborative partnership model involves the clinician serving as a classroom teacher alone, responsible for developing and implementing all aspects of the curriculum?

a)

Consultative

b)

Team Teaching

c)

Self Contained

114.

instrument administered periodically throughout treatment to measure a client's progress are known as (a)   .

115.

T/F: Multitiered Systems of Support (MTTS) is an umbrella term for Response to Intervention

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Which Act sanctioned Response to Intervention as an approach for identifying students with learning disabilities?

a)

Individuals with Disabilities Act (2004)

b)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (1996)

c)

Americans with Disabilities Amendments Act (2008)

117.

In the Response to Intervention (RTI) ____ is when students need to demonstrate a significant gap between cognitive ability and academic achievement

a)

Discrepancy Criterion

b)

Gap Criterion

c)

Cognitive Criterion

d)

Achievement Criterion

118.

In the Response to Intervention Model (RTI), the term ___ describes the phenomenon that despite high-quality & remedial instruction, a student does not progress at the expected rate.

a)

Dual Discrepancy

b)

Achievement Gap

c)

Discrepancy Criterion

d)

Instructional Gap

119.

Which of the following are challenges of the Response to Intervention (RTI) model?

a)

No studies are available on the long-term effects of Tier 1 &2 on later academic achievement

b)

The applicability to oral language and writing is unknown

c)

It is not clear how long a student should remain in a particular tier of service

d)

All of the Above

120.

In Evidence-Based Practice, a general term that encompasses the factors of effectiveness, efficiency, and effects is known as treatment (a)   .

121.

For Evidence-Based Practice treatment efficacy, which term asks "does treatment work?"?

a)

Effectiveness

b)

Efficiency

c)

Effects

122.

For Evidence-Based Practice treatment efficacy, which term asks "does one treatment work better or faster than another?"?

a)

Effectiveness

b)

Efficiency

c)

Effects

123.

For Evidence-Based Practice treatment efficacy, which term asks "in what ways does treatment alter behavior?"?

a)

Effectiveness

b)

Efficiency

c)

Effects

124.

Which Response to Intervention (RTI) tier involves students receiving "high-quality core classroom curriculum in the general education setting"?

a)

Tier 1

b)

Tier 2

c)

Tier 3

125.

Which Response to Intervention (RTI) tier involves "specialized instruction within the education curriculum for students when their performance & rate of progress lag behind peers "?

a)

Tier 1

b)

Tier 2

c)

Tier 3

126.

Which Response to Intervention (RTI) tier involves "intensive individualized instruction and a referral for a comprehensive evaluation to determine eligibility for special education services "?

a)

Tier 1

b)

Tier 2

c)

Tier 3

127.

How many tiers are in the Response to Intervention (RTI)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

128.

Which of the following are the three main components of Evidence-Based Practice (EBP)?

a)

Current best scientific evidence

b)

Clinician expertise

c)

Client values beliefs and preferences, including cultural/ linguistic factors

d)

Consultation with Field Experts

129.

The primary mechanism for ensuring clinician accountability is (a)   collection.

130.

Which of the following are true about data collection?

a)

Appropriate data recording sheets should be designed or selected before the therapy session

b)

The notation system should provide information most relevant to the client's disorder

c)

The data collection system must clearly distinguish among imitative, cued/prompted, self corrected, and spontaneous responses

d)

Not every stimulus is required to be recorded

131.

Which of the following are true about data collection?

a)

When therapy tasks are conversational in complexity, a recording system based on time rather than the total number of responses is best

b)

Reinforcement tokens or stimulus items can be used to record client responses in lieu of writing them down

c)

A clinician should not record the absence of an event

d)

Clinical decisions can only be made after a clinicians careful analysis and interpretation of recorded data

132.

T/F: Progress notes are also known as SOAP notes.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Select all the reasons for progress or SOAP Notes:

a)

Short record of therapy visit

b)

Enable monitoring of treatment program

c)

Provide information per visit

d)

Facilitate continuity of treatment

e)

All of the Above

134.

In SOAP notes, SOAP stands for:

a)

Subjective

Objective

Assessment

Plan

b)

Superior

Objective

Assessment

Plan

c)

Subjective

Official

Assessment

Plan

135.

In SOAP Notes, which involves a "brief statement on relative behavior or status" and can be "our opinion or the client's opinion"?

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

136.

In SOAP Notes, which involves "information that we collect for each client task such as what we saw, how they performed, and supports needed"?

 

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

137.

In SOAP Notes, which involves "how we think the client performed, if they improved, and what helped or didn't"?

 

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

138.

In SOAP Notes, which involves a "proposed target for next session"?

 

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

139.

T/F: Progress and final reports document a client's mastery of the goals and objectives outlined in the Initial Therapy Plan (ITP) and are implemented over the course of treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

140.

Select the components of Progress and Final Reports:

a)

Identifying information

b)

Background information or statement of the problem

c)

Therapy objectives in progress

d)

Summary of reinforcement, completion of homework, family participation, and conferences

e)

Recommendations for continued intervention including specific goals & objectives

141.

Which of the following are true about Individualized Education Programs (IEP)?

a)

The process begins with a referral

b)

Part of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act (IDEA)

c)

Involves levels of performance, annual goals, placement recommendations, and accommodations

d)

Provides a formal mechanism for parents to protest decisions they consider inappropriate/ unfair and legal/ procedural safeguards

142.

Which of the following are included on an Individualized Education Plan (IEP)?

a)

Present levels of academic achievement and performance

b)

Measurable annual goals and Progress monitoring

c)

Special education and related services

d)

Placement recommendation and justification

e)

Individual accommodations and initiation and duration of services

143.

On an Individualized Education Plan (IEP), which describes "how the child's progress toward the annual goals will be measured"?

a)

Present levels of academic achievement and performance

b)

Progress monitoring

c)

Special education and related services

d)

Placement recommendation and justification

e)

Individual accommodations

144.

On an Individualized Education Plan (IEP), which describes "the special services needed by the child to achieve the annual goals"?

a)

Present levels of academic achievement and performance

b)

Progress monitoring

c)

Special education and related services

d)

Placement recommendation and justification

e)

Individual accommodations

145.

T/F: It is not important to include a projected date for the beginning of services on an Individualized Education Plan (IEP).

a)

True

b)

False

146.

On an Individualized Education Plan (IEP), which describes "Accommodations necessary to measure the child's academic achievement and performance on state and district-wide assessments"?

a)

Present levels of academic achievement and performance

b)

Progress monitoring

c)

Special education and related services

d)

Placement recommendation and justification

e)

Individual accommodations

147.

(a)   process is a formal mechanism for parents to protest decisions they consider inappropriate or unfair to their child in the IEP process.

148.

Which plan has its main focus on the family as a unit rather than solely on the child?

a)

Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP)

b)

504 Plan

c)

Individualized Education Plan (IEP)

d)

Individualized Service Plan (ISP)

149.

Which plan is for children ages 0 to 3?

a)

Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP)

b)

504 Plan

c)

Individualized Education Plan (IEP)

d)

Individualized Service Plan (ISP)

150.

Which plan is for children ages 3 and older?

a)

Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP)

b)

504 Plan

c)

Individualized Education Plan (IEP)

d)

Individualized Service Plan (ISP)

151.

Which plan is for children ages 3 to 21?

a)

Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP)

b)

504 Plan

c)

Individualized Education Plan (IEP)

d)

Individualized Service Plan (ISP)

152.

Which plan is part of the Americans with Disabilities Amendments Act (2008) and is for students ineligible for an IEP, but need accommodations to participate in school?

a)

Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP)

b)

504 Plan

c)

Individualized Education Plan (IEP)

d)

Individualized Service Plan (ISP)

153.

T/F: Socioeconomic Status (SES) is a better predictor of cognitive-communicative behaviors than other factors such as racial-ethnic background.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

Select all the apply for Linguistic Differences:

a)

nonverbal

b)

paralinguistic

c)

verbal aspects

d)

Socioeconomic Status (SES)

155.

Which means "speaks both language as a native speaker"?

a)

Ambilingual

b)

Equilingual

c)

Semilingual

156.

Which means "can communicate in both languages effectively"?

a)

Ambilingual

b)

Equilingual

c)

Semilingual

157.

Which means "mastery of both L1 and L2 are poor"?

a)

Ambilingual

b)

Equilingual

c)

Semilingual

158.

In mastery of a language, which describes "competence in or mastery of a given language" and "may change over time"?

a)

Proficiency

b)

Dominance

159.

In mastery of a language, which describes "preference for or comfort with a specific language in a particular context"?

a)

Proficiency

b)

Dominance

160.

For the Acquisition of L2, which function involves "use of language for social purposes and is supported by contextual cues, gestures, facial expressions"?

a)

Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills (BICS)

b)

Cognitive-Academic Language Proficiency Skills (CALPS)

161.

For the Acquisition of L2, which function takes 2 to 3 years to fully develop?

a)

Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills (BICS)

b)

Cognitive-Academic Language Proficiency Skills (CALPS)

162.

For the Acquisition of L2, which function involves the "use of language effectively for academic learning purposes "and does not offer "contextual clues and other supports"?

a)

Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills (BICS)

b)

Cognitive-Academic Language Proficiency Skills (CALPS)

163.

For the Acquisition of L2, which function takes 5 to 7 years to fully develop?

a)

Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills (BICS)

b)

Cognitive-Academic Language Proficiency Skills (CALPS)

164.

When L1 and L2 influence each other, which describes "grammar, vocabulary, phonology, or pragmatics of L1 having an impact on the production of utterances in L2"?

a)

Language Interference/ Transfer

b)

Language Loss

165.

When L1 and L2 influence each other, which describes "previously mastered skills in L1 are negatively affected by the introduction of L2, causing a loss of some degree of proficiency"?

a)

Language Interference/ Transfer

b)

Language Loss

166.

For 2nd Language Acquisition, which describes "a child being exposed to L1 and L2 from birth, developing Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills (BICS) in both languages with equivalent levels of proficiency"?

a)

Simultaneous

b)

Sequential/ Successive

167.

For 2nd Language Acquisition, which describes "an L2 introduced later in childhood (usually after age 3) when a significant portion of Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills (BICS) in L1 already in place"?

a)

Simultaneous

b)

Sequential/ Successive

168.

Which pattern of language acquisition involves "aspects of L1 generalize to L2 (dialect/phonological  or words/semantic influence)"?

a)

Interference or transfer

b)

Interlanguage

c)

Silent period

d)

Code Switching

e)

Language loss

169.

Which pattern of language acquisition "occurs when a speaker develops a personal linguistic system while attempting to produce the target language"?

a)

Interference or transfer

b)

Interlanguage

c)

Silent period

d)

Code Switching

e)

Language loss

170.

Which pattern of language acquisition involves "not speaking much of L2 and is more observational learning"?

a)

Interference or transfer

b)

Interlanguage

c)

Silent period

d)

Code Switching

e)

Language loss

171.

Which pattern of language acquisition involves "easily alternating between 2 languages"?

a)

Interference or transfer

b)

Interlanguage

c)

Silent period

d)

Code Switching

e)

Language loss

172.

Which pattern of language acquisition involves "a decline in L1 while L2 is being learned"?

a)

Interference or transfer

b)

Interlanguage

c)

Silent period

d)

Code Switching

e)

Language loss

173.

Which of the following are true about Dialect Differences?

a)

No dialect is disordered or inferior

b)

—Every language and dialect has both more complex and more simple features, when contrasted with other languages

c)

—All individuals speak with an accent and/or dialect.

d)

Standard American English (SAE) is the dialect that other dialects in America are compared to

174.

Which of the following are true about working with interpreters?

a)

—Select an interpreter that is proficient in English and the client’s language, including dialect

b)

—Select an interpreter who is experienced and trained in cross-cultural communication

c)

—Select an interpreter who has training and knowledge of issues relevant to speech/language pathology

d)

—Avoid using a child as an interpreter

e)

It is best to use the client’s family members when available

175.

When counseling clients, which trait describes "recognize personal and professional boundaries"?

a)

Appropriate Sharing

b)

Nonjudgmental

c)

Tolerant of crying and emotional language

d)

Client or Family centered

e)

Refrain from solving client issues

176.

When counseling clients, which trait describes "refraining from imposing your own belief system/values"?

a)

Appropriate Sharing

b)

Nonjudgmental

c)

Tolerant of crying and emotional language

d)

Client or Family centered

e)

Refrain from solving client issues

177.

When counseling clients, which trait describes "allowing clients to express negative emotions can be of therapeutic value"?

a)

Appropriate Sharing

b)

Nonjudgmental

c)

Tolerant of crying and emotional language

d)

Client or Family centered

e)

Refrain from solving client issues

178.

When counseling clients, which trait describes "consider the needs/priorities of the client or family"?

a)

Appropriate Sharing

b)

Nonjudgmental

c)

Tolerant of crying and emotional language

d)

Client or Family centered

e)

Refrain from solving client issues

179.

When counseling clients, which trait describes "not solving a client's problems and helping the client work toward identifying their own solutions"?

a)

Appropriate Sharing

b)

Nonjudgmental

c)

Tolerant of crying and emotional language

d)

Client or Family centered

e)

Refrain from solving client issues

180.

T/F: When counseling a client, the clinician should avoid being purposefully silent so the client feels comfortable.

a)

True

b)

False

181.

When counseling a client, the clinician should do which of the following?

a)

Have effective and empathetic listening with nonverbal behavior that signals respect and attention

b)

—Ask open-ended and indirect questions

c)

Engage in Purposeful Silence

d)

—Be respectful and aware of culture-specific factors that influence a client’s feelings and attitudes toward communicative disorders and therapy

e)

—Paraphrase or summarize content

182.

A clinician saying “good job bringing your lips together for the /m/ sound” in response to a client’s articulation production is an example of:

a)

Prompting

b)

Negative feedback

c)

Recasting

d)

Target- Specific Feedback

183.

The following accommodation is within the scope of a 504 Plan:

a)

preferential seating

b)

permitting oral responses

c)

administering tests over several sessions or days

d)

All of the Above

184.

An Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP) differs from an Individualized Education Program (IEP) in that:

a)

its applies to children from birth to three years

b)

has measurable annual goals

c)

specifies initiation and duration of service

d)

requires progress monitoring

185.

Which of the following is not one of the three main purposes of clinical reports?

a)

use language that is specific and unambiguous

b)

document client performance during sessions

c)

outline the intended intervention plan

d)

periodically summarize/interpret client status

186.

Which of the following is not a basic component of an Individualized Education Program (IEP)?

a)

measurable annual goals

b)

progress monitoring

c)

specific intervention protocols

d)

initiation and duration of services

187.

Which of the following counseling goals is not applicable to preparing for termination of therapy?

a)

Shifting the locus of control to the client

b)

Validating accurate client self-perceptions

c)

Paraphrasing content

d)

Teaching effective self-advocacy skills

188.

For Emotional Responses to a Communication Disorder, which means "sorrow in response to a loss"?

a)

Grief

b)

Anger

c)

Depression

d)

Guilt

189.

For Emotional Responses to a Communication Disorder, which is "an attempt at self-protection resulting from frustration, powerlessness"?

a)

Grief

b)

Anger

c)

Depression

d)

Guilt

190.

For Emotional Responses to a Communication Disorder, which means "anger turned inward results in feelings of helplessness"?

a)

Grief

b)

Anxiety

c)

Depression

d)

Guilt

191.

For Emotional Responses to a Communication Disorder, which means "self-blame"?

a)

Grief

b)

Anxiety

c)

Depression

d)

Guilt

192.

For Emotional Responses to a Communication Disorder, which means "negative evaluation of ones entire self"?

a)

Shame

b)

Anxiety

c)

Inadequacy

d)

Isolation

193.

For Emotional Responses to a Communication Disorder, which means "apprehension or distress that is generally not directly related to the immediate situation"?

a)

Shame

b)

Anxiety

c)

Inadequacy

d)

Isolation

194.

For Emotional Responses to a Communication Disorder, which means "insufficiency or incompetence to handle implications of the communication disorder"?

a)

Shame

b)

Anxiety

c)

Inadequacy

d)

Isolation

195.

For Emotional Responses to a Communication Disorder, which means "a sense of personal detachment or remoteness from society"?

a)

Shame

b)

Anxiety

c)

Inadequacy

d)

Isolation

196.

Reflecting back the content or emotions expressed by a client’s message in a nonjudgmental manner is an example of the _________ counseling technique.

a)

indirect questions

b)

summarizing content

c)

empathetic listening

d)

desensitization

197.

Which is the "DO" in the statement "James will produce the fricatives /f/, /v/, and /s/ in CV syllables when shown a picture and given a model to imitate with 90% accuracy over two consecutive sessions"

a)

produce the fricatives/f/, /v/, and /s/

b)

in CV syllables when shown a picture and given a model to imitate

c)

90% accuracy over two consecutive sessions

198.

Which is the "CONDITION" in the statement "James will produce the fricatives /f/, /v/, and /s/ in CV syllables when shown a picture and given a model to imitate with 90% accuracy over two consecutive sessions"

a)

produce the fricatives/f/, /v/, and /s/

b)

in CV syllables when shown a picture and given a model to imitate

c)

90% accuracy over two consecutive sessions

199.

Which is the "CRITERION" in the statement "James will produce the fricatives /f/, /v/, and /s/ in CV syllables when shown a picture and given a model to imitate with 90% accuracy over two consecutive sessions"

a)

produce the fricatives/f/, /v/, and /s/

b)

in CV syllables when shown a picture and given a model to imitate

c)

90% accuracy over two consecutive sessions

200.

Identify the missing component in the statement "the client will produce is + verb + ing with 80% accuracy"

a)

Do

b)

Condition

c)

Criteria

201.

Identify the missing component in the statement "the client will produce /f/ several times given the clinicians model"

a)

Do

b)

Condition

c)

Criteria

202.

Identify the missing component in the statement "the client will use regular past tense with no errors"

a)

Do

b)

Condition

c)

Criteria

203.

Identify the Conditions

a)

Given the clinician's model

b)

In response to a question from the teacher

c)

Using Pictures

d)

During Free Play

e)

Continuously over a 2-minute Period

204.

Identify the Criterions

a)

90% Accuracy

b)

Less than 4 errors over 3 consecutive sessions

c)

8 correct out of 10 trials

d)

In the presence of 3 classmates

e)

Continuously over a 2 minute period

205.

Which type of negative reinforcement "requires the presence of a condition that the client sees as aversive"?

a)

Escape

b)

Avoidance

206.

Which type of negative reinforcement would "each performance of a target behavior prevent the occurrence of an ANTICIPATED averse condition "?

a)

Escape

b)

Avoidance

207.

Classify the type of negative reinforcement: "a clinician places her hands firmly over a child's hands & removes them only when the child exhibits the target behavior of imitatively producing /s/"

a)

Escape

b)

Avoidance

c)

Punishment

208.

Classify the type of negative reinforcement: a clinician says "NO", frowns, or implements a time out

a)

Escape

b)

Avoidance

c)

Punishment

209.

Select the verbs that would be APPROPRIATE to use in a "do" statement.

a)

Point/ Label

b)

Repeat/ Match

c)

Understand/ Think

d)

Learn/ Believe

210.

Select the verbs that would be APPROPRIATE to use in a "do" statement.

a)

Name/Tell

b)

Say/Write

c)

Improve/ Discover

d)

Know/ Appreciate

211.

Select the verbs that would be APPROPRIATE to use in a "do" statement.

a)

Count/ Vocalize

b)

Ask/ Elevate

c)

Remember/ Apply

d)

Comprehend/ Feel

212.

Select all of the ways a CRITERION can be expressed.

a)

Percent Correct

b)

Within a Given Time Period

c)

Minimum Number of Correct Responses

d)

Maximum Number of Error Responses

e)

Action the Client is Expected to Perform

213.

T/F: A "Do" statement should contain verbs that denote an observable activity.

a)

True

b)

False

214.

Select the items which are present in the CONDITION portion of a behavioral objective.

a)

the situation in which the target behavior is to be performed

b)

when the behavior will occur

c)

where the behavior will be performed

d)

in whose presence a behavior will be performed

e)

what materials and cues will be used to elicit the target