wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

NUR114 Exam 1 Practice

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What are some other names of colon cancer?
a)
Laryngeal Cancer
b)
Parathyroid Cancer
c)
Colorectal Cancer
d)
Thyroid Cancer
2.
Eating these foods will increase the risk of getting colon cancer:
a)
Leafy greens
b)
Red processed meats
c)
Sugary foods
d)
Dairy products
3.

What are risk factors for developing colon cancer?

a)

Age and lifestyle

b)

Genetic

c)

Inflammatory bowel disease

d)

All of the above

4.

Which of the following is NOT an early warning sign of colon cancer?

a)

Diarrhea and constipation

b)

Blood in stool

c)

Vomiting

d)

Rectal bleed

5.

What is a test used to help diagnose colon cancer?

a)

Fecal occult blood test (FOBT)

b)

Colonscopy

c)

CT colonography

d)

MRI

6.

Where does colon cancer usually spread?

a)

Kidney

b)

Bones

c)

Brain

d)

Liver

7.

Most people should start colorectal screening at age 45

a)

True

b)

False

8.

What are the symptoms of colon cancer in early stages of this illness?

a)

Lower gastrointestinal bleeding and rectal bleeding

b)

It does not usually give symptoms until advanced stages

c)

Changes in bowel movements

d)

Abdominal pain

9.

How is a colon (or any type) cancer formed?

a)

You get it by someone who spreaded it to you

b)

Cells' DNA gets damaged and they start dividing without control, forming a tumor

c)

Cells' DNA gets damaged and they turn into evil cells which damage other cells and transform them into more evil cells

10.

Find the impostor: Which of these ISN'T a treatment for colon cancer?

a)

Radiotherapy

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Vasectomy

d)

Partial colectomy

11.
Why might an ostomy be created?
a)
Cancer
b)
Birth defects
c)
Colitis
d)
All of the answers are correct
12.
Section of large intestine that is brought to the surface of the abdomen to drain stool describes which type of ostomy? 
a)
Urostomy
b)
Colostomy
c)
Ileostomy
13.
Section of ileum is brought to surface of abdomen to drain stool describes which type of ostomy? 
a)
Urostomy
b)
Colostomy
c)
Ileostomy
14.
What type of drainage would you expect to be expelled from the ascending colon?
a)
Liquid stool
b)
Formed stool
c)
Urine
15.
What type of drainage would you expect from the sigmoid colon? 
a)
Liquid stool
b)
Formed stool
c)
Urine
16.
What should a normal stoma look like?
a)
bright pink/red and wet
b)
black and dry
c)
bright pink/red and dry
d)
black and wet
17.

Ostomy pouches are usually changed

a)

Every day

b)

Every time feces are present

c)

Every 3 to 7 days

d)

Every month

18.

Which will not prevent ostomy pouch odors?

a)

Good hygiene

b)

Emptying the pouch

c)

Putting deodorants into the pouch

d)

Eating cucumbers and radishes

19.

A person has an ostomy pouch. The pouch is bulging from flatus. What should you do?

a)

Call for the nurse.

b)

Make a hole in the pouch for the escape of gas.

c)

Open the pouch.

d)

Change the pouch.

20.

These statements are about colostomies. Which is incorrect?

a)

The person wears a pouch to collect feces and flatus.

b)

Stool consistency depends on the colostomy site.

c)

The more colon remaining, the more formed the stool.

d)

The more colon remaining, the more liquid the stool.

21.

Distention of ureter with urine due to blockage

a)

hydrouretha

b)

hydroplane

c)

hydroureter

d)

hydronephritis

22.

BPH stands for

a)

Beginning Prostatic Hyperplasia

b)

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

c)

Benign Prostate Hyperplasia

d)

Begin Prostatic Hyperplasia

23.

The medical term for the presence of stones in the kidney

a)

nephrolith

b)

nephrosis

c)

nephrolithiasis

d)

nephropexy

24.

Surgical repair of damage/defect in the walls of the urethra

a)

urethroplasty

b)

urethropexy

c)

urethrolith

d)

urethrotomy

25.

Distention of ureter due to hydroureter or congenital abnormalities is known as

a)

ureteropexy

b)

ureterolith

c)

ureteroplasty

d)

ureterectasis

26.

Discharge of blood from the ureter is known as

a)

ureterphagia

b)

ureteremia

c)

ureterorrhagia

d)

ureteropexy

27.

A stone located in the bladder is called a/an

a)

ureterolith

b)

cystolith

c)

nephrolith

d)

cholelith

28.

The surgical removal of a nephrolith through a small opening in the back

a)

percutaneous nephrolithotomy

b)

percutaneous lithotripsy

c)

percutaneous repair

d)

percutaneous nephritis

29.

The results from compression of urethra due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

a)

prostatectomy

b)

prostatism

c)

prostopexy

d)

prostatic

30.

BPH causes

a)

enlargement of urethra

b)

enlargement of penis

c)

enlargement of bladder

d)

enlargement of prostate

31.

The surgical incision into the renal pelvis

a)

ureterotomy

b)

cystotomy

c)

renalotomy

d)

pyelotomy

32.

OBA : A 30-year-old man is awakened from sleep with pain radiating from left flank to groin. The pain is intense and comes in waves. Next morning he observes dark brown discolouration of urine. He is afebrile. Urinalysis shows p H 4.5 (5.5 - 6) and negative reaction for leukocyte esterase and nitrite. Urine microscopy shows numerous RBCs and crystals as given in the picture.

Which of the following is the most likely type of renal stone present in this patient?

a)

Calcium oxalate

b)

Cystine

c)

Triple phosphate

d)

Uric acid

33.

OBA A 50-year-old woman has a history of recurrent urinary tract infection.For the past 4 days, she has burning pain while micturition, fever and chills. She also has colicky pain in right flank. Urinalysis shows a p H 7.5 (5.5 - 6), positive leukocyte esterase and nitrite reactions and crystals as given in the picture. Ultrasonogram shows a 4 cm irregular branched calculus in right renal pelvis.

Which of the following is the most likely type of renal stone in this patient?

a)

Calcium phosphate

b)

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

c)

Uric acid

d)

Cystine

34.

True/false

A 55-year-old man with a history of chronic gout presents with colicky abdominal pain. Urinalysis shows specific gravity 1.040 (1.010 - 1.030) , p H 4 (5.5 -6 ), negative leukocyte esterase and nitrite reactions. Urine microscopy shows pale yellow crystals of various shapes. USG reveals a 3mm calculus in right upper ureter.

Which of the following factors are involved in renal stone formation in this patient?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Hyperuricemia

c)

Supersaturation of urine with urates

d)

Acidic p H of urine

e)

Urinary tract infection

35.

True/false

A 60-year-old male presents with obstructive uropathy. Following are possible causes of urinary obstruction in this patient.

a)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

b)

Carcinoma of prostate

c)

Renal stones

d)

Posterior urethral valve

e)

Retroperitoneal tumours

36.

Regarding hydronephrosis :

a)

It is a consequence of obstructive uropathy

b)

Dilated renal pelvis and calyces compress the cortex

c)

Glomerular filtration is affected at an early stage of obstruction

d)

Patients have an increased risk of urinary tract infection

e)

Renal insufficiency is a complication

37.

The most common site of cancer in older men within the reproductive system is:

a)

The prostate gland

b)

The cowper's gland

c)

The testicles

d)

The penis

38.
The primary male hormone is
a)
testosterone
b)
estrogen
c)
progesterone
d)
FSH
39.
Structure 5 is the 
a)
seminal vesicle
b)
bulbourethral gland
c)
prostate 
d)
epididymis
40.

Which of the accessory glands produces a liquid to let the sperm move?

a)

Cowper's glands

b)

Prostate

c)

Seminal vesicles

41.

Which Letter corresponds to the Prostate Gland?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

G

d)

K

42.
Name the structure that produces a thin milky fluid that aids in sperm motility and contributes to about 30% of overall semen volume.
a)
testis
b)
seminal vesicle
c)
prostate gland
d)
bulbourethral gland
43.

Main hormone responsible for secondary sex characteristics in males?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

Testosterone

d)

Progesterone

44.

What is the generic name for Flomax?

a)

Tamsulosin hydrochloride

b)

Estradiol

c)

Oxybutin

d)

Finasteride

45.

What is the generic name for Proscar?

a)

Tamsulosin hydrochloride

b)

Estradiol

c)

Oxybutin

d)

Finasteride

46.

What is the generic name for Ditropan?

a)

Tamsulosin hydrochloride

b)

Estradiol

c)

Oxybutin

d)

Finasteride

47.

What is the classification of Flomax?

a)

5 Alpha-reductase inhibitor

b)

Anitspasmodic

c)

Estrogen

d)

Alpha blocker

48.

What is the classification of Proscar?

a)

5 Alpha-reductase inhibitor

b)

Anitspasmodic

c)

Estrogen

d)

Alpha blocker

49.

What is the classification of Ditropan?

a)

5 Alpha-reductase inhibitor

b)

Anitspasmodic

c)

Estrogen

d)

Alpha blocker

50.

What is the indication of Floxmax?

a)

BPH

b)

Hormone Replacement Therapy

c)

OAB

51.

What is the indication of Ditropan?

a)

BPH

b)

Hormone Replacement Therapy

c)

OAB

52.

What is the indication of Proscar?

a)

BPH

b)

Hormone Replacement Therapy

c)

OAB

53.

TRUE/FALSE?

Continuous Bladder Irrigation is used to maintain patency when blood, clots, or debris is anticipated

a)

True

b)

False

54.

What type of catheter should be in place for a patient that is requiring continuous bladder irrigation?

a)

double-lumen

b)

single-lumen

c)

triple-lumen

55.

SATA: Which of the following supplies will the nurse need to perform continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) ?

a)

insert 3-way(triple-lumen) indwelling catheter

b)

2 bags of irrigation fluid hanging at all times

c)

IV pole

d)

Graduated cylinder

e)

connecting tubing

56.

Which of the following is the correct goal for continuous bladder irrigation for patients who have had a transurethral resection of the prostate?

a)

keep urine light pink to clear

b)

keep urine the color of ketchup

c)

keep urine yellow

d)

keep urine brown

57.

The nurse is providing continuous bladder irrigation to a patient post transurethral resection of the prostate. She notices that the draining irrigant solution/urine in the collection bag appears to have red blood cells in it. What is the correct action the nurse should take?

a)

increase the flow of irrigant

b)

stop the irrigation and report to the primary care provider

c)

slow down the flow of irrigant

d)

perform intermittent bladder irrigation

58.

A new nurse is performing continuous bladder irrigation and meets resistance, which of the follow is the correct action for the new nurse to take?

a)

open the clamp wide open until bright red thick drainage collects in the collection bag

b)

Stop the irrigation and discontinue the catheter

c)

Ask the patient to turn slightly, and attempt a second time, then if resistance continues, stop procedure and notify the MD

d)

use a needle to inject air into the drainage tubing

59.

An RN is preparing continuous bladder irrigation, before beginning the flow of irrigation solution the nurse notices that the patients collection bag has 300 mL of urine, what should the nurse do with urine in the catheter collection bag?

a)

empty any urine that is in the bedside drainage bag into a graduated cylinder, measure, and document the volume on the I/O flowsheet

b)

leave it in the bag

c)

empty it directly into the toilet and flush

d)

pour it into a cup and have the patient drink it

60.

Before performing CBI (continuous bladder irrigation) Which of the following pre procedure assessments should the nurse make? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Note characteristics of urine for amount, color, odor, and presence of clots or mucus

b)

Assess for the presence and degree of bladder distension to establish a baseline for assessment

c)

Assess the patient's pain level

d)

Check the MD order for the amount and type of sterile solution and obtain at least 2 bags to keep at bedside at all times

e)

Check the MD order and determine if the irrigant is to remain the bladder for any length of time

61.

An RN working on a medsurg unit has 6 patients with high acuity levels and just received an order for continuous bladder irrigation for a post op patient that just returned from the OR. Which of the following members of the care team are appropriate to delegate bladder irrigation to? Select all that apply

a)

RN

b)

LPN

c)

CNA

d)

Secretary

62.

An RN is gathering supplies to perform intermittent bladder irrigation on a patient with a 3 way cathether, which of the following is the correct syringe needed for this procedure?

a)

30 mL syringe

b)

10mL blunt needle syringe

c)

Sterile 60mL syringe with large-gauge needleless access

d)

1,000mL Syringe with filter needle attatchment

63.

Which of the following should the nurse document/ record when performing continuous bladder irrigation? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Date/Time of procedure

b)

Type of irrigant solution being used

c)

Characteristics of urine (color, odor, clarity, sediment, presence of clots or mucus)

d)

Evidence of catheter patency (flow of urine, absence of distention)

e)

Pt reports of discomfort (pain/spasms)

64.

Which of the following are screening tools to detect against prostate cancer? Select all that apply

a)

DRE (digital rectal exam)

b)

PSA- Prostate specific antigen testing

c)

colonoscopy

d)

mammogram

65.

Which of the following medical diagnoses is a UTI infection that progresses upward to the ureters or kidneys?

a)

pyelonephritis

b)

urethritis

c)

cystitis

d)

kidney stone

66.

Which of the following diagnostic blood studies are commonly used to assess renal function and hydration? Select all that apply

a)

BUN (blood urea nitrogen)

b)

Creatinine

c)

PTT/INR

d)

Blood glucose

67.

What structure in the kidneys filters the blood?

a)

Ureters

b)

Nephrons

c)

Bladder

d)

Urethra

68.

How is the female urethra different from the male urethra?

a)

It is longer

b)

It is wider

c)

It is shorter

d)

It is more narrow

69.

What is another word for stone?

a)

Calculus

b)

Geometry

c)

Algebra

d)

Calcium

70.

If someone has hematuria, they are experiencing

a)

pus in the urine

b)

blood in the urine

c)

glucose in the urine

d)

urea in the urine

71.

bladder infection

a)

Cystitis

b)

Urethritis

c)

Nephritis

d)

Glomerulonephritis

72.

Inflammation of urethra

a)

Cystitis

b)

Urethritis

c)

Nephritis

d)

Glomerulonephritis

73.

Renal Calculi can be caused by

a)

UTI

b)

Food/Diet

c)

Genetics

d)

all of these

74.

Damage to the filtration portion of the kidney

a)

PKU

b)

Glomerulonephritis

c)

Cystitis

d)

Acute Kidney failure

75.

Requires dialysis & possibly kidney transplant

a)

Renal Calculi

b)

Urethritis

c)

Kidney Failure

d)

Edema

76.
Drugs or substances that cause a person to urinate more frequently
a)
catheterization
b)
incontinence
c)
calculus
d)
diuretics
77.
The procedure to remove waste from the blood
a)
homeostasis
b)
dialysis
c)
electrolytes
d)
dysuria
78.
A major waste product located in urine
a)
urea
b)
urologist
c)
UTI
d)
polyuira
79.
Renal failure
a)
When the bladder cannot empty
b)
when the kidneys stop filtering waste properly
c)
When we urinate to much
d)
When a kidney stone forms
80.

Difficulty urinating, can be due to an enlarged prostate

a)

incontinence

b)

UTI

c)

Urinary Retention

d)

Renal Failure

81.

delivers blood to the kidney

a)

bladder

b)

ureter

c)

kidney

d)

Renal artery

e)

urethra

82.

tube that conducts urine to the outside of the body

a)

bladder

b)

ureter

c)

kidney

d)

Renal artery

e)

urethra

83.

tube that conducts urine from the kidney to the blader

a)

bladder

b)

ureter

c)

kidney

d)

Renal artery

e)

urethra

84.

A by product of protein synthesis is a nitrogenous waste that is eventually converted to ____

a)

Sodium Nitrate

b)

Calcium Carbonate

c)

Urea

d)

Carbon Dioxide

85.

A disease that has a sudden and perhaps severe onset, is not long term, and can usually be treated is considered a _______ Condition

a)

Acute

b)

Chronic

c)

Osetopathic

d)

Nosocomial

86.

the functional unit of the kidney is the

a)

ureter

b)

kidney

c)

nephron

d)

renal artery

87.

The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the

a)

urinary bladder

b)

renal pelvis

c)

ureter

d)

urethra

88.

What hormone regulates the absorption of water in the kidneys?

a)

ETP

b)

FSH

c)

PTH

d)

ADH

89.
Which are the tubes that carry urine from the kidney to the bladder?
a)
Adrenal tubes
b)
Kidneys
c)
Ureters
d)
Urethras
90.
In homeostasis, the kidney regulates the:
a)
levels of electrolytes 
b)
amount of water in the body
c)
pH
d)
all of the above
91.
Which stage of urine production involves the removal of substances from the bloodstream?
a)
reabsorption
b)
excretion
c)
filtration
d)
secretion
92.
Which stage of urine production involves returning water, nutrients, and electrolytes to the bloodstream?
a)
filtration
b)
excretion
c)
secretion
d)
reabsorption 
93.
Which stage of urine production involves adding ammonia, uric acid, and other waste substances directly into the renal tubule?
a)
reabsorption
b)
filtration
c)
secretion
d)
excretion
94.
Under normal circumstances, which substance should NOT be found in urine?
a)
glucose
b)
blood
c)
albumin
d)
none of the above
95.

The treatment for most kidney stones is

a)

to wait until it passes.

b)

lithotrypsy

c)

break it down with a laser

d)

surgery

96.

Where and what are the kidneys?

a)

Two inch-wide disks that flank the bladder and absorb nutrients for the body from the bloodstream

b)

Small organs near the stomach that release hormones to encourage digestion

c)

Fist-size organs below the ribs, on each side of the spine, that filter waste from the blood and produce urine

97.

What is a kidney stone?

a)

A tiny undigested piece of something hard often an actual stone that went undetected in food that's been eaten

b)

hard deposits made of minerals and salts that form inside your kidneys.

c)

A small piece of bone that's been dislodged somewhere in the body and settles in the kidney

98.

Which are the most common symptoms when someone has a kidney stone?

a)

Severe pain on one side of the lower back, fever, and nausea

b)

A small lump that can be felt in the abdominal area, fatigue, and tingling in the legs.

c)

Pain in the chest, blurred vision and dizziness

99.

Which conditions or dietary habits are thought to be among the more likely causes of kidney stone formation?

a)

Eating too little fiber and too few fruits with vitamin A

b)

Both of the above

c)

Inadequate water intake and eating too much salt or sugar

100.

What are kidney stones?

a)

crystallized bile

b)

crystallized urine

c)

crystallized saliva

d)

salt accumulation

101.

How much water should an adult drink daily?

a)

half of a liter

b)

1 liter

c)

1.5 liter

d)

2 liters

102.

_________________ is a waste product that forms from the breakdown of amino acids and nucleic acids.

a)

Ammonia

b)

Urea

c)

Ammonium

d)

Uric Acid

103.
The procedure to remove waste from the blood
a)
homeostasis
b)
dialysis
c)
electrolytes
d)
dysuria

Similar Resources on Wayground

CMAA Exam Cram #5

100 questions

CMAA Exam Cram #5

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - Professi...

Evolution Review

103 questions

Evolution Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

6. Neuroscience Revision Quiz BMS191

103 questions

6. Neuroscience Revision Quiz BMS191

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

WWW 2-5

100 questions

WWW 2-5

quiz

Worksheet

•

3rd Grade - University

COMPUTER TECHNOLOGY

100 questions

COMPUTER TECHNOLOGY

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

REVISION UPS 2 CHAPTER 3-6 SB025

100 questions

REVISION UPS 2 CHAPTER 3-6 SB025

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Logic Circuit Design - Comp. Viva

100 questions

Logic Circuit Design - Comp. Viva

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

C004Discrete Structures 1 FinalEXAM

100 questions

C004Discrete Structures 1 FinalEXAM

quiz

Worksheet

•

University