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WorksheetsHigh-Yield ISE Review 2025
Total questions: 14
Worksheet time: 7mins
This steroidogenesis inhibitor may be used for residual hypercortisolemia s/p adrenalectomy AND for evaluating adrenal insufficiency.
a) Mitotane
b) Metyrosine
c) Metyrapone
d) Meta-Iodobenzylguanidine
The name and mechanism of the preferred agent used after radical Nx for an 11 cm, G4, clear-cell RCC is:
a) Pembrolizumab: T-cell suppression via inhibition of PD-1
b) Pembrolizumab: B-cell suppression via inhibition of PD-L1
c) Atezolizumab: B-cell suppression via inhibition of PD-L1
d) Atezolizumab: T-cell Suppression via inhibition of PD-L1
e) Ipilimumab: T-cell suppression via inhibition of CTLA-4
A 70M is diagnosed w/ metastatic UC. GFR is 100 mL/min, ECOG PS is 0, he denies hearing loss, neuropathy, and heart failure. The preferred next step in treatment is:
a) IV cisplatin + gemcitabine
b) Maximal TURBT and bladder XRT
c) IV cisplatin + gemcitabine + durvalumab
d) IV carboplatin
e) IV enfortumab vedontin + pembrolizumab
The next step in management following a complete resection of multifocal LG Ta (4 cm, 1 cm) disease is:
a) Surveillance cystoscopy in 6 months
b) UroVysion FISH
c) Six weeks of induction intravesical chemo or Chemotherapy
d) Repeat TURBT within 6 weeks of initial TURBT
e) Radical Cystectomy
The most likely electrolyte abnormalities observed s/p incontinent jejunal conduit urinary diversion are:
a) Alkalosis, hypoCl, hypoK
b) Alkalosis, hypoCl, hypoK
c) Acidosis, hyperCl, hyperK
d) Acidosis, hypoCl, hyperK
e) Acidosis, hyperCl, hypoK
This systemic agent is approved for use in the settings of both (High-Risk M0 CRPC) and (M1 CRPC +/- prior chemo).
a) Apalutamide
b) Darolutamide
c) Enzalutamide
d) Abiraterone Acetate
e) Olaparpib
2784 HIV (-) men age 18-24 were randomized to circumcision vs. observation. Two years later the rate of HIV (+) was 2.1% in the circumcised group and 4.2% in the observation group. The NNtC to prevent one case of HIV acquisition within two years of circumcision is:
a) 200
b) 50
c) 25
d) 1
e) 20
PET avidity will indicate RPLND for a patient with normal tumor markers and the following primary tumor pathology and post-chemo RP mass size:
a) Pure Seminoma, 2 cm
b) Mixed Non-seminoma, 2 cm
c) Teratoma, 2 cm
d) Pure Seminoma, 4 cm
e) Mixed Non-seminoma, 4 cm
Allopurinol should be offered to patients with:
a) CaOx, hypERuricosuria, normal urinary Ca
b) CaOx, hypOuricosuria, elevated urinary Ca
c) CaOx, hypERuricosuria, low urinary Ca
d) Uric Acid, hypERuricosuria, normal urinary Ca
e) Uric Acid, hypOuricosuria, elecated urinary Ca
Renovascular Hypertension will be present and respond to ACE-Inhibitor Administration in which scenario?
a) BL 75% RAS due to fibromuscular disease
b) UL 25% RAS stenosis due to atherosclerosis w/ normal contralateral kidney
c) solitary kidney 80% RAS due to atherosclerosis
d) UL 75% RAS due to fibromuscular disease w/ normal contralateral kidney
The intended Nerve Root and Motor Response for SNM are:
a) S2, Foot, (-) Anal Bellows
b) S2, Great Toe, (+) Anal Bellows
c) S3, Great Toe, (+) Anal Bellows
d) S3, Great Toe, (-) Anal Bellows
e) S4, Foot, (+) Anal Bellows
A woman whose cervix rests at the level of hymen while straining in the dorsal lithotomy position _______.
a) Stage I Prolapse
b) Stage II Prolapse
c) Stage III Prolapse
d) Stage VI Prolapse
e) Repeat test in standing position
To minimize the radiation dose received by the physician during a fluoroscopic case, one should:
a) Stand close to the X-ray source
b) Avoid use of collimation
c) Increase the pulsed fluoroscopy rate
Minimize the source to image distance (SID)
Maximize the source to object distance (SOD)
In male GU embryology, the ____ cells produce androgens and stimulate the ____ ducts to form the ejaculatory duct work.
a) Leydig, Paramesonephric
b) Sertoli, Mesonephric
c) Sertoli, Mullerian
d) Leydig, Mesonephric
e) Leydig, Mullerian
