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TERM EXAM - PERIOPERATIVE

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A preoperative nurse works in the operating room.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Can a pre-operative nurse witness a surgical consent?

a)

Yes

b)

No

3.

The pre-operative nurse is responsible for

a)

Assessing medication history

b)

Performing baseline vital signs

c)

Administering local anesthetics

d)

Answer option 1 and 2

4.

The pre-operative nurse is responsible for performing a surgical scrub and donning a sterile gown.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The pre-operative nurse is part of the surgical interdisciplinary team.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The Circulating Nurse is sterile

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The Scrub personnel can be either a nurse or surgical technician

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Patient positioning is crucial in order to avoid nerve damage or injury to the patient.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The Surgical Time Out is the last part of the Universal Protocol.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The scrub personnel and circulating nurse perform and verify surgical counts cohesively.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

The PACU nurse is responsible for admitting the patient for surgery.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The handoff report to the PACU nurse should include which of the following?

a)

Patient Name

b)

Surgical Procedure

c)

Current Medications and Allergies

d)

All Of The Above

13.

The PACU nurse assesses the patient's:

a)

Airway

b)

Breathing

c)

Circulation

d)

All Of The Above

14.

What is the PACU nurse's priority nursing intervention?

a)

Preventing postoperative complications

b)

Positioning the patient

c)

Preventing pain

d)

Keeping the patient warm

15.

A PACU nurse is assessing the wound of a surgical site. Which of the following should be assessed?

a)

Assess drainage

b)

Assess color and consistency

c)

Assess for signs of infection

d)

All Of The Above

16.

Symptoms of unrelieved pain in a hospital setting include (select all that apply)

a)

Increase in release of insulin

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Decrease in urinary output

d)

Increase in gastric mobility

e)

Decrease in cardiac workload

17.

Surgical trauma; wound and burn pain, cancer pain and labor pain are all nociceptive pain that is referred to as ________ pain

a)

Peripheral pain

b)

Somatic pain

c)

Visceral pain

d)

Systemic pain

18.

This pain is pathological and results from abnormal processing of sensory input by the nervous system as a result of damage to the peripheral or central nervous system

a)

Breakthrough pain

b)

Nociceptive pain

c)

Neuropathic pain

d)

Chronic pain

19.

In a hospital, a nurse is assessing a patient's pain. Pain is (select all that apply)

a)

What the patient says it is

b)

Is the primary reason people seek health care treatment

c)

Is objective data

d)

Can be defined as acute or chronic

e)

Always treatable by some method

20.

The age at which a person can identify pain by a number?

a)

6

b)

5

c)

7

d)

8

21.

Constipation, nausea, vomiting, and sedation are side effects of_______

a)

Antagonist

b)

Opioids

c)

Analgesic

d)

Steroids

22.

Nonpharmacologic methods of pain management include? (select all that apply)

a)

Proper body alignment

b)

Yoga

c)

TENS

d)

Humor

e)

Placebo

23.

A patient named Ethan is receiving an opioid via a PCA pump as part of his postoperative pain management program. During rounds, the nurse named Hannah finds him unresponsive, with respirations of 8 breaths/min and blood pressure of 102/58 mm Hg. After stopping the opioid infusion, what should the nurse named Kai do next?

a)

Notify the charge nurse

b)

Draw arterial blood gases

c)

Administer an opiate antagonist per standing orders

d)

Perform a thorough assessment, including mental status evaluation

24.

Which nursing diagnosis is possible for a patient named Zoe who is now recovering after having been under general anesthesia for 3 to 4 hours during surgery?

a)

Impaired urinary elimination related to the use of vasopressors as anesthetics

b)

Increased cardiac output related to the effects of general anesthesia

c)

Risk for falls related to decreased sensorium for 2 to 4 days postoperatively

d)

Impaired gas exchange due to the CNS depressant effect of general anesthesia

25.

During a patient's recovery from a lengthy surgery, the nurse monitors for signs of malignant hyperthermia. In addition to a rapid rise in body temperature, which assessment findings would indicate the possible presence of this condition? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Seizure activity

e)

Muscle rigidity

26.

The preoperative phase of surgery begins with...

a)

the decision to proceed with surgical intervention

b)

the patient being admitted to the pre-admission testing unit

c)

the patient being transferred to the OR suite

d)

the patient signing admission paperwork

27.

Which of the following surgeries would be classified as emergent?

a)

Kidney stones

b)

Urethral stones

c)

Fractured skull

d)

Cataract

28.

Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with obese patients and of primary concern when scheduled for surgery? Select all that apply

a)

Wound infection

b)

Sleep apnea

c)

Wound dehiscence

d)

Hypoventilation

29.

Which health care provider informs the patient of the benefits and risks of surgery prior to going to surgery?

a)

Registered Nurse

b)

Surgeon

c)

OR administrator

d)

Licensed Physician's Assistant

30.

Which of the following items is included in a valid informed consent? Select all that apply

a)

Patient must be 16 years of age or older

b)

Patient must be 18 years of age or older

c)

Consent must be freely given

d)

A physician must obtain informed consent

e)

A physician assistant may obtain informed consent

31.

Name the instrument:

(a)  

32.

Name the instrument:

(a)  

33.

Name the Instrument

(a)  

34.

Name the Retractor

(a)  

35.

Name the Retractor

(a)  

36.

Name the instrument

(a)  

37.

Name the Instrument

(a)  

38.

Name the instrument

(a)  

39.

Name the instrument

(a)  

40.

Name the Instrument

(a)  

41.

Which type of scissors is used when dealing with more delicate tissues?

a)

mayo dissecting scissors

b)

Metzenbaum dissecting scissors

c)

sharp/blunt operating scissors

d)

iris scissors

42.

What type of clamping instrument is used to stop bleeding by collapsing the lumen to the blood vessel?

a)

tissue forceps

b)

hemostatic forceps

c)

towel clamp

d)

hand-held retractor

43.

When gowning in sterile attire, which item of clothing is put on last?

a)

sterile gloves

b)

cap

c)

mask

d)

sterile gown

44.

All of the following are part of the "sterile field" with the exception of:

a)

the surgeon's front above the waist including the arms

b)

the draped patient

c)

dedicated operating room shoes

d)

the instrument tray

45.

Which instrument is used to clamp blood vessels and stop bleeding?

a)

towel clamp

b)

hemostat

c)

obturator

d)

forceps

46.

Which instrument can enlarge a constricted tube or duct?

a)

forceps

b)

scalpel

c)

clamp

d)

dilator

47.

Which is used to attach surgical drapes to each other?

a)

Jones towel clamp

b)

Kelly clamp

c)

Mosquito clamp

d)

Hemostat clamp

48.

Which scissor was named for its specialized use in eye surgery?

a)

Iris scissor

b)

Adson scissor

c)

Lister scissor

d)

Operating scissor

49.

What instrument has a blade secured in a handle and can be disposable or reusable?

a)

scalpel

b)

forceps

c)

tenaculum

d)

clamp

50.

What is the locking mechanism on surgical instruments called?

a)

serrations

b)

ratchets

c)

ligatures

d)

teeth

51.

What is the role of a perioperative nurse?

a)

Assisting the surgeon during surgery

b)

Providing postoperative care to patients

c)

Administering anesthesia to patients

d)

Performing preoperative assessments

52.

Which of the following is a common perioperative complication?

a)

Urinary tract infection

b)

Common cold

c)

Headache

d)

Back pain

53.

What is the purpose of surgical drapes?

a)

To provide comfort to the patient

b)

To prevent contamination of the surgical site

c)

To improve visibility for the surgeon

d)

To reduce surgical time

54.

ASA (aspirin) should be discontinued...

a)

7-10 days before surgery

b)

1-3 days before surgery

c)

At least 30 days before surgery

d)

At least 60 days before surgery

55.

Which of the following items is included in a valid informed consent? Select all that apply

a)

Patient must be 16 years of age or older

b)

Patient must be 18 years of age or older

c)

Consent must be freely given

d)

A physician must obtain informed consent

e)

A physician assistant may obtain informed consent

56.

Which health care provider informs the patient of the benefits and risks of surgery prior to going to surgery?

a)

Registered Nurse

b)

Surgeon

c)

OR administrator

d)

Licensed Physician's Assistant

57.

Which of the following surgeries would be classified as emergent?

a)

Kidney stones

b)

Urethral stones

c)

Fractured skull

d)

Cataract

58.

The use of herbal medicines should be discontinued...

a)

At least 2 days before surgery

b)

At least 2 weeks before surgery

c)

At least 30 days before surgery

d)

At least 7-10 days before surgery

59.

Which of the following statements is the correct way for patients to splint incisions when they cough?

a)

Put the palms of the fingers together and interlace the fingers snugly and place hands across incision

b)

Hold one hand gently directly over the incision and breathe deeply before coughing

c)

Hold both hands on top of each other strongly exerting pressure over the incision

d)

Have the patient deep breathe while they provide medium pressure over the incision

60.

Deep breathing is an important pre-operative teaching area. Which one of the following would be included in your teaching for the pre-operative patient?

a)

Take a deep breath and hold for 5 seconds, repeat 15 times twice daily

b)

Take a deep breath and hold for 10 seconds

c)

Take a deep breath and hold for 3 seconds, repeat 15 times twice daily

d)

Take a deep breath and hold for 5 seconds, repeat 5 times twice daily

61.

The patient who is considered at risk for surgical complications is...

a)

A patient with arthritis

b)

A patient with HTN (hypertension)

c)

A dehydrated patient

d)

A patient who smokes

62.

Why should pts stop smoking as soon as possible with scheduled surgery?

a)

Delays wound healing

b)

Increases difficult clearing airway

c)

Causes strokes

d)

Causes pneumonia

63.

Which age group has less physiological capacity to adapt to the stress of surgery?

a)

Adolescents

b)

School aged children

c)

Older adults

d)

Adults

64.

Why does surgery increase the need for nutrition?

a)

Adequate nutrition prevents internal bleeding

b)

Adequate nutrition promotes tissue repair

c)

Adequate nutrition decreases edema

d)

Adequate nutrition increases resistance to infection

65.

What happens as a pt's weight increases?

a)

Decreased ventilation and heart function

b)

Increased risk of post op atelectasis, pneumonia, and death

c)

Increased risk for pressure injuries

d)

Increased ventilation and heart function

66.

Partial or complete obstruction of the upper airway during sleep

a)

Hypoventilation sleep apnea

b)

Pulmonic sleep apnea

c)

Central sleep apnea

d)

Obstructive sleep apnea

67.

What changes happen to the body during obstructive sleep apnea?

a)

Decreased cardiac output

b)

Decreased sympathetic output

c)

Decreased oxygen saturation

d)

Decreased blood pressure

68.

What is risky for a patient with obstructive sleep apnea?

a)

Incentive spirometry

b)

Conscious sedation

c)

Post op ambulation

d)

Drinking

69.

Immunosuppression imposes what risks with surgery?

a)

Amputation

b)

Risk for infection

c)

Inadequate wound healing

d)

Blood clotting

70.

What happens due to stress response from surgery?

a)

Negative nitrogen balance

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Water and sodium retention

d)

Potassium loss

71.

Which patients are at a higher risk of experiencing fluid and electrolyte imbalances following surgery?

a)

Patients with preexisting diabetes and renal diseases

b)

Patients with gastrointestinal or cardiovascular abnormalities

c)

Patients with spine and bone deformities

d)

Patients with brain or nerve damage

72.

Postoperative nausea and vomiting can cause

a)

Wound splitting

b)

Aspiration

c)

Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

d)

Pain

73.

Which of the following increases the risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting?

a)

Opioids and inhaled anesthetics

b)

Increased fluid and electrolyte intake

c)

Eating 24 hours before surgery

d)

ENT, abdominal, and gynecology surgeries

74.

Which factors increase risk of a venous thromboembolism?

a)

Joint replacement

b)

Surgery longer than 90 minutes

c)

Mobility reduction after surgery

d)

Cancer or cancer treatment

75.

Who is at risk for developing a venous thromboembolism?

a)

An obese pt with dehydration

b)

A 5 year old pt with a paper cut

c)

A 60 year old critical care pt with a known clotting disorder

d)

An anorexic pt with hypoglycemia

76.

Loss of all sensation and consciousness

a)

Moderate conscious sedation

b)

General anesthesia

c)

Local anesthesia

d)

Regional anesthesia

77.

Loss of sensation in one area of the body

a)

Moderate conscious sedation

b)

General anesthesia

c)

Local anesthesia

d)

Regional anesthesia

78.

Loss of sensation at a specific site

a)

Moderate conscious sedation

b)

General anesthesia

c)

Local anesthesia

d)

Regional anesthesia

79.

High risk surgery

a)

Major surgery

b)

Minor surgery

80.

What type of surgery is considered low risk?

a)

Major surgery

b)

Minor surgery

81.

Not time sensitive

a)

Urgent surgery

b)

Elective surgery

c)

Emergency surgery

82.

Scheduled within 24-48 hours to alleviate symptoms, repair, or restore a body part

a)

Urgent surgery

b)

Elective surgery

c)

Emergency surgery

83.

Pt is transported to the OR ASAP to preserve life and function

a)

Urgent surgery

b)

Elective surgery

c)

Emergency surgery

84.

Removal of a diseased part

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Ablative

d)

Diagnostic

85.

Used to confirm or rule out a condition

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Ablative

d)

Diagnostic

86.

Used to alleviate discomfort or other disease symptoms without producing a cure

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Cosmetic

d)

Transplant

87.

Used to restore function

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Cosmetic

d)

Transplant

88.

Used to improve appearance

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Cosmetic

d)

Transplant

89.

Replaces a malfunctioning body part, tissue, or organ

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Cosmetic

d)

Transplant

90.

What are surgeries classified by?

a)

Specialty

b)

Seriousness

c)

Urgency

d)

Purpose

91.

ASA classification of a patient with a mild systemic disease without substantive changes

a)

ASA 1

b)

ASA 2

c)

ASA 3

d)

ASA 4

92.

ASA classification of a patient with severe systemic disease with substantive changes

a)

ASA 1

b)

ASA 3

c)

ASA 4

d)

ASA 5

93.

Poor control of blood glucose during and after surgery can lead to

a)

Gangrene

b)

Blood clots

c)

Risk of infection

d)

Poor healing

94.

Observation, post anesthesia recovery score, and discharge occur during which phase of postoperative care?

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

95.

Focused assessment, v/s every 5-15 mins, recovery from anesthesia, airway management, dressing assessment, pain control, fluid therapy, mobility and sensation assessment occur during which phase of postoperative care?

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

96.

Assessment of airway, circulation, temperature, fluid & electrolyte, neuro, skin, metabolism, GI, GU, mobility, comfort, and nutrition occurs during which phase of postoperative care?

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

97.

Rare genetic life threatening complication of anesthesia where a hypermetabolic state occurs within skeletal muscles that become triggered

a)

Benign Hypothermia

b)

Benign Hyperthermia

c)

Malignant Hypothermia

d)

Malignant Hyperthermia

98.

Malignant hyperthermia results in increased

a)

Intracellular calcium ions

b)

Extracellular calcium ions

c)

Intracellular sodium ions

d)

Extracellular sodium ions

99.

Malignant hyperthermia results in

a)

Increased CO2, O2, and K+ levels

b)

Metabolic and respiratory acidosis

c)

Production of heat

d)

Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

100.

Early signs of malignant hyperthermia include

a)

Tachypnea and tachycardia

b)

Heart arrhythmias and muscle rigidity

c)

Hypotension and hypoventilation

d)

Hyperkalemia and hypercarbia

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