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Geology Exam Part 2

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You have received a map from a client. You determine a 150-foot property line measures 3 inches on the map. You need a final scale at 1 inch = 20 feet (1:240). What percentage of enlargement or reduction is needed?

a)

250% enlargement

b)

250% reuction

c)

500% enlargement

d)

500% reduction

2.

A remote sensing procedure that would be best suited for detecting temperature variations in buried karst terrain is:

a)

side looking airborne radar

b)

near-infrared photography

c)

false color infrared imagery

d)

long-wave infrared scanning imagery

3.

The following measured section was made in a semiarid region where Tertiary volcanism

has been extensive. The section is described from top (Unit 4) to bottom (Unit 1). What

can be concluded about the origin of the soil horizon (Unit 4)?

Unit 4: 1 ft Soil, red-brown, sandy, abundant quartz grains and red microcline,

some quartz silt and montmorillonite (smectite).

Unit 3: 20 ft Basalt, upper 2 ft weathered irregular and altering to clay with

abundant vertical fissures filled with clay and residual soil. Rock is easily broken with a

hammer, but becomes hard below 2 ft. About 3 ft below top and extending downward

for 5 ft is a zone containing vesicles which at top are oriented nearly horizontal but at the

base are essentially vertical. A representative sample taken from the unit indicates the

following: Texture: aphanitic to porphyritic, uniform throughout. Mineralogy: 20%

labradorite, lath-like crystals about 2 mm long; 10% hornblende, thin crystals about

3 mm long; 70% matrix, finely crystalline, not glassy.

Unit 2: 5 ft Clay, silty, red, swells noticeably when wet, grades downward into

rubble composed of fragments of weathered, dark gray granite.

Unit 1: 15 ft Rock, dark gray, generally aphanitic texture, with very finely crystalline

ground mass containing few crystals identified as microcline, biotite, and albite.

The soil horizon (Unit 4), was derived from weathering:

a)

of Unit 3, in a humid climate

b)

of Unit 3, in a semiarid climate

c)

and transported from another source

d)

of another basalt flow

4.

A small oil field is located on the crest of a large anticline. A regional reverse fault is mapped along the flank of the anticline. At shallow depths in five out of the twenty wells, faults intersected by the bore holes caused 100 to 200 feet of missing section. A reasonable structure is:

a)

normal faulting in a tensional setting

b)

reverse faulting in a compressional setting

c)

compressional faulting and folding followed by shallow normal faulting

d)

compressional faulting and folding followed by shallow reverse faulting

5.

You are the geologist in responsible charge of designing a foundation exploration drilling program to be carried out in an area underlain by unconsolidated sediments containing large, granitic boulders. The site is known to be uncontaminated. Of the following, which would most likely be the fastest and most efficient drilling method?

a)

solid-stem auger drilling

b)

mud-rotary drilling

c)

direct-push drilling

d)

cable-tool drilling

6.

Porosity and permeability are important in petroleum reservoir development. Choose the correct statement for a well sorted sandstone reservoir.

a)

porosity is always permeable

b)

smaller grain size usually means greater porosity and greater permeability

c)

greater grain size usually means greater porosity and permeability

d)

permeability is always present with porosity

7.

What is difference in orientation between a transverse and a longitudinal cross section of a structure such as embankment?

a)

A transverse section is perpendicular to the longest dimension of the structure and a longitudinal section is parallel to longest dimension of a structure.

b)

A transverse section is parallel to the longest dimension of the structure and a longitudinal section is perpendicular to dimension of a structure.

c)

A transverse section cuts the major features of the structure at an acute angle and and a longitudinal section parallels the major features of the structure.

d)

A transverse section is parallel to the longest dimension of the structure and a longitudinal section is parallel to the shortest dimension of a structure.

8.

You have retained to identify the extent of groundwater contamination resulting from a truck rollover accident with a release of 1,000 gallons of trichloroethylene (TCE) two days ago. A large municipal well field, located about 1.5 miles from the accident site, produces groundwater from a carbonate aquifer. Regional stratigraphy, based on published sources and the well field stratigraphic logs, is characterized by: 0-29 ft below ground surface (bgs), unconsolidated sand and silty sand; 20-35 ft bgs, hard, blue-green clay; 35-100 ft bgs, weathered, fractured limestone. Water levels in the superficial aquifer are are reported to be about 12 ft bgs. Monitoring wells installed at the accient site should be screened from:

a)

75-100 ft bgs

b)

5-15 ft bgs

c)

10-20 ft bgs

d)

15-40 ft bgs

9.

In exploring a site for evidence of past superficial fault rupture, which of the following fault types is LEAST likely to be found in a 10-foot deep backhoe trench dug across a projected fault trace?

a)

steeply dipping normal fault

b)

shallowly dipping thrust fault

c)

shallowly dipping blind thrust

d)

steeply dipping reverse fault

10.

Which of the following is NOT part of a RCRA subtitle D landfill closure and post-closure?

a)

groundwater monitoring

b)

installation and maintenance of a low permeability landfill cap

c)

Construction a contoured crest with slopes less than 5%

d)

limiting or controlling access

11.

On large construction projects, aggregate for Portland cement is often locally derived. you are the project geologist. There are two potential sources to be explored. One source is a rather pure quartzite with clean but moderately to widely spaced fractures. The other source contains abundant chert with closely to moderately spaced fractures, and some rhyolite with opaline fracture fillings. The cherty source is nearer to the project site and appears to be easier to develop. Time critical. Without even the time to do a petrographic microscope examination of thin sections from artificially aged concrete samples from each aggregate source, which aggregate source should you recommend and why?

a)

The cherty source because it is easier to develop.

b)

The cherty source because haul distance is less.

c)

The quartzite source because the natural fracture spacing willing make it easier to process the material.

d)

The quartzite source because of the potential for alkali-aggregate reaction from the cherty source.

12.

Quality control is a(an):

a)

state-of-the-art industry standard designed to control appropriate inquiry into the reproducibility of test results.

b)

plan which details how a system shall function to assure that standards of quality are being met.

c)

prescribed set of activities that monitor and correct system functions to ensure quality standards are consistently being met.

d)

Unbroken paper trail used to document the quality of procedures relating to a facility, project or service from the cradle to grave.

13.

Which of the following compounds would NOT be found in an analysis of groundwater contaminated only by leaded gasoline?

a)

ethyl benzene

b)

tetra ethyl lead

c)

xylene

d)

methyl tertiary butyl ether

14.

An oil well at elevation 9,575 ft., in the Desolation Formation, has been economically depleted. Management has decided to plug and abandon the well. Which of the following plugging procedures should be followed?

a)

The well should be cemented from total depth to ground surface.

b)

A granular bentonite plug should be placed over the production interval with a steel cap welded at the surface.

c)

At a minimum, the well should be sealed in compliance with the controlling agencies' requirements.

d)

A bridge plug should be set over the productive interval.

15.

The alluvial aquifer is known to exist to a depth of 100 feet below ground surface (ft. bgs). The water table is 50 ft. bgs. The transmissivity of the aquifer has been determined to be 1,000 ft2/day. The slope of the water table is 0.001 ft.ft. What is the average Darcy velocity of groundwater movement?

a)

1.0 ft/day

b)

0.02 ft/day

c)

0.2 ft/day

d)

0.01 ft/day

16.

You are the consulting geologist for the State Board of Facilities, reviewing the for a new administrative building. The architect proposes to use a coarse crystalline, dark gray rock containing exposed pyrite crystals as the exterior facade. You should FIRST:

a)

approve the rock for the building

b)

determine the rock strength properties

c)

assess the weathering properties of the rock

d)

assess the cost of the rock for this building

17.

Which suite of analytical parameters would you recommend to best monitor post- closure groundwater quality at a closed copper mining facility?

a)

total dissolved solids (TDS), pH, per Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (8 RCRA metals)

b)

methane, pH, 8 RCRA metals, and total organic carbon (TOC)

c)

methane, TDS, pH, and 8 RCRA metals

d)

pH, 8 RCRA metals, total organic halides (TOX), and hydrogen sulfide

18.

A placer gold deposit has been discovered at two sites in the outcrop of a paleochannel located in a region that has been tectonically deformed and metamorphosed. Further exploration for gold in this deposit should be based on an interpretation of the:

a)

direction of channel flow prior to tectonic and metamorphic alteration

b)

channel geometry within the altered terrain

c)

tectonic history of the region

d)

geochemical and mineralogical alteration caused by metamorphism

19.

Your have been asked to locate a public water supply well in shallow, sand aquifer. Your locations are limited to three choices, all associated with land-use restrictions:

Site 1 is 300 feet upgradient of a multi-acre, cattle feedlot.

Site 2: is centered in an established residential neighborhood with 1/2-acre unsewered lots.

Site 3 is 1,000 feet upgradient from a newly developed industrial park.

In what order would you rank (best to worst) these three sites for installation of the new well?

a)

1,3,2

b)

3,2,1

c)

3,1,2

d)

1,2,3

20.

A slow leak in the underground piping at a service station has resulted in a release of

gasoline into the subsurface and the state environmental regulatory agency has been

notified. The line has been repaired, all visually impacted soil in the immediate vicinity of

the leak has been removed. A careful inventory reconciliation indicates that over time, up

to 1,500 gallons of gasoline may have been lost. The water table is expected to occur 8 to

12 feet below ground surface. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?

a)

Check for soil contamination and remove any additional contaminated soil.

b)

Check for contamination dissolved in groundwater, and begin pump-and-treat remediation.

c)

Check for the presence of free product, and begin recovery free product.

d)

Check for the presence of microbial population, and initiate enhancement of natural biodegradtion.

21.

You will be mapping unconsolidated deposits for gravel exploration. Which method is LEAST appropriate for locating potential deposits?

a)

aerial photography interpretation

b)

analysis of surface resistivity measurements

c)

magnetometry interpretation

d)

test boring logging

22.

A tailings storage facility at an operating gold mine has been constructed using a starter dam. Annual precipitation in the area averages over 40 inches. No active faults are known in the immediate vicinity of the facility. Which monitoring program provides the highest degree of dam safety?

a)

a seepage collection system that monitors seepage volume and quality on a continuous basis for cyanide

b)

network of groundwater wells constucted upgradient and downgradient of the facility to monitor groundwater quality and water levels on a quarterly basis

c)

a combination of visual inspections of the facility on a weekly basis and monitoring of vibrating wire piezometers and survey monuments on a monthly basis, plus continuous monitoring of seepage in a seepage collection system.

d)

a visual monitoring program inspect the tailings storage facility for seeps, settlement, and cracking on a weekly basis

23.

You have identified a paleosol horizon that has developed on Ordovician bedrock that was originally deposited in a marine environment. The Ordovician rocks are unconformably overlain by a thin succession of Pennsylvanian coal-bearing strata. The Paleozoic succession is covered by glacial-related Quaternary deposits.

The age of paleosol is:

a)

Post-Ordovician to Pre-Pennsylvanian

b)

Permian

c)

Post-Pennsylvanian to pre-Quaternary

d)

Cambrain

24.

Important descriptive, NOT interpretive, seismic reflection patterns are:

a)

cross-bedding and offshore bars

b)

onlap and offlap

c)

sequence boundaries and parasequence sets

d)

transgressions and regressions

25.

Which isotope dating is best to determine the age of a mid-Eocene tuff?

a)

tritium-deuterium dating

b)

uranium-lead dating

c)

potassium-argon dating

d)

carbon-carbon dating

26.

The use of bentonite-cement rout to seal a monitor well results in a seal that is:

a)

more permeable than a bentonite grout

b)

more permeable than the sand pack

c)

less susceptible to cracking than neat cement grout

d)

more susceptible to failure than a bentonite grout above the water table

27.

You are performing a geomorphological appraisal to identify fluvial hazards at the foundation site of a proposed bridge pier in a large perennial stream in mountainous terrain. The stream is entrenched in competent bedrock and is backfilled by an appreciable thickness of coarse alluvium and debris. Which of the following fluvial hazards has the greatest potential to affect the future integrity of the bridge and will receive the greatest attention during design development?

a)

channel migration

b)

Channel bed scour during flooding

c)

upstream nickpoint migration

d)

channel aggradation

28.

A client asked you to prepare a report describing the geologic constraints affecting the design and construction of a large underground structure. The client has limited your budget for exploration and you cannot be certain that the subsurface conditions exposed by borings are consistent across the site you should:

a)

avoid any reference to any possible condition that cannot be supported by your data.

b)

describe the nature of your uncertainty along with possible consequences of your incomplete understanding of the subsurface conditions.

c)

refuse to complete your report until the client agrees to fund the additional exploration you require.

d)

structure the report to emphasize the probability that your data and conclusions are adequate, but use language that will limit your liability if different conditions are encountered during construction.

29.

Based on these results, which laboratory is the most consistent?

a)

American

b)

Brown

c)

Continental

d)

Delta

30.

You are conducting a soil geochemistry survey. There is a mineralized zone shown in Figure 54.The soil profile indicates the location of samples within the soil horizons developed in the area. The mineralized zone has elevated levels of Au, Ag, As, and Hg. Of concentrations of these metals have elevated values in the soil?

a)

Sample 1

b)

Sample 2

c)

Sample 3

d)

Sample 4

31.

With respect to Figure 103, the sequence A-D represents:

a)

massive submarine slides

b)

regression

c)

transgression

d)

lascustrine deposits