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Worksheets

Super Final Test session FLP-1

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 5hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All can be explained on the basis of cell theory except:

a)

HIV

b)

Nostoc

c)

Yeast

d)

Neuron

2.

Cytosol is a site of many metabolic processes like:

a)

Calvin cycle

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

All a, b, c

3.

Secretory vesicles arise from_______ of Golgi apparatus:

a)

Maturing face

b)

Convex face

c)

Forming face

d)

Circular face

4.

Technically, autophagosomes are also known as:

a)

Primary lysosomes

b)

Secondary lysosomes

c)

Tertiary lysosomes

d)

Complex lysosomes

5.

An animal cell can have all organelles except:

a)

Glyoxisomes

b)

Peroxisomes

c)

Centrioles

d)

Vacuoles

6.

In unit membrane model, the region of lipid bilayer attached to globular proteins is:

a)

Hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophilic

c)

Non-polar

d)

Hyperphobic

7.

Which of the following is a feature of cancerous cells?

a)

Normal metabolism

b)

Less differentiated

c)

Highly differentiated

d)

Slowly dividing

8.

Immediate precursor of mature RBC that still has a nucleus is:

a)

Normoblast

b)

Pro-erythrocyte

c)

Erythroblast

d)

Pro-erythroblast

9.

Water is essential for which of these reactions?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Oxidation

c)

Reduction

d)

Condensation

10.

All of the following will produce similar units on breakdown except:

a)

Dextrin

b)

Dextran

c)

Lactose

d)

Glycogen

11.

These compounds have lower proportion of oxygen:

a)

Lipid

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Enzymes

12.

Select the one which is found in semen:

a)

L-Glucose

b)

D-Glucose

c)

Fructose

d)

Alpha glucose

13.

Amino acid attaches itself with ____ end of tRNA:

a)

3’

b)

5’

c)

3’ and 5’ both

d)

3’ or 5’

14.

Which of the following is not a nucleotide?

a)

NAD

b)

ATP

c)

FAD

d)

G3P

15.

Keratin is a protein abundantly found in:

a)

Muscles

b)

Hairs

c)

Ligaments

d)

Blood

16.

Which one is a product of conjugation in Golgi complex?

a)

Glycolipids

b)

Sphingolipids

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Acylglycerol

17.

Nucleohistones are important because they:

a)

Form structure of chromosome

b)

Play functional role

c)

Regulate gene expression

d)

All (a), (b), (c)

18.

In Insulin molecule, two chains are held together by:

a)

Sulphur linkage

b)

Hydrogen bond

c)

Disulphide bridge

d)

Sulphide bridge

19.

Virus can recognize its specific host cell by:

a)

Specific hormones

b)

Specific enzymes

c)

Specific receptors

d)

Specific pH

20.

An infectious agent which only contain ribonucleic acid:

a)

Virion

b)

Viroid

c)

Prion

d)

TMV

21.

E.coli is:

a)

Produce Vitamin K

b)

Bacilli

c)

Natural flora of colon

d)

All are true

22.

All are associated with plants except:

a)

Nuclear mitosis

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Cell wall

d)

Autotrophs

23.

Which protist closely resembles with sponges?

a)

Dinoflagellates

b)

Plasmodium

c)

Choanoflagellates

d)

Actinopods

24.

Diploblastic animals have:

a)

Specialized transport system

b)

Central nervous system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Excretory system

25.

Stinging cell is a common name given to:

a)

Nematocyst

b)

Cnidocyte

c)

Sporocyst

d)

Sporozoite

26.

In molluscs, the respiratory pigment is:

a)

Absent

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Haemocyanin

d)

Cyanocobalamine

27.

These are on border line between aquatic and true terrestrial animals:

a)

Fishes

b)

Dipnoi

c)

Reptiles

d)

Amphibians

28.

A pinworm is common name of:

a)

Ancylostoma doudenale

b)

Enterobius vermicularis

c)

Ascaris lumbricoides

d)

Fasciola hepatica

29.

All of the following act involuntarily during swallowing except:

a)

Tongue

b)

Soft palate

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Larynx

30.

Cartilage lid at the top of wind pipe in humans is:

a)

Larynx

b)

Pharynx

c)

Glottis

d)

Epiglottis

31.

Gastric glands that secrete gastric juice are composed of _______ main types of cells:

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

32.

Volume of air which we take in and remove during breathing at rest is called:

a)

Inspiratory volume

b)

Expiratory volume

c)

Residual volume

d)

Tidal volume

33.

If inflammation of liver is done it will be referred to as:

a)

Acute otitis media

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Sinusitis

34.

______ act as speed breaker of nerve impulse:

a)

Nodes of Reinveer

b)

Myelin sheath

c)

Synapse

d)

Schwan cells

35.

Volume of urine is regulated by:

a)

Aldosterone & steroids

b)

ADH & steroids

c)

Aldosterone & testosterone

d)

Aldosterone & ADH

36.

Heart of heart is:

a)

SA node

b)

Bundle of HIS

c)

AV node

d)

Purkinje fibers

37.

Nerve impulse is initiated by:

a)

Inward movement of K+

b)

Outward movement of K+

c)

Inward movement of Na+

d)

Outward movement of Na+

38.

Parkinson’s disease is due to deficiency of:

a)

Neurons

b)

GDNF

c)

Hormones

d)

Neurotransmitter

39.

Chondrocytes in cartilage are surrounded by non-living matrix of:

a)

Muscles

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Ligaments

d)

Collagen protein

40.

The joints which fix teeth into the jaws are:

a)

Fibrous joints

b)

Cartilaginous joints

c)

Synovial joints

d)

Pivot joints

41.

The T-tubule and sarcoplasmic reticulum form:

a)

Muscle fiber

b)

T system

c)

Triad

d)

Z disc

42.

Both urethra and vagina in human female are:

a)

External genitilia

b)

Separate openings

c)

Same opening

d)

Part of reproductive system

43.

In oestrous cycle, estrogen production:

a)

Does not prepare the uterus for conception

b)

Prepares the uterus for conception partly

c)

Prepares the uterus for conception fully

d)

Is stopped permanently

44.

Deficiency of thyroxin in adult may cause:

a)

Myxoedema

b)

Cretinism

c)

Grave’s disease

d)

Parkinsonism

45.

In man the parathyroid glands are embedded in the ___________ of thyroid:

a)

Posterior part of lateral lobes

b)

Lateral part of posterior lobes

c)

Anterior part of posterior lobes

d)

Anterior part of anterior lobes

46.

All of the following hormones are amino acid derivatives except:

a)

Thyroxin

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Nor epinephrine

47.

Among plasma proteins, antibodies are manufactured in:

a)

Liver

b)

Red bone marrow

c)

T lymphocytes

d)

Plasma cells

48.

Cells involved in shutting down the immune response are:

a)

Cytotoxic cells

b)

Helper T cells

c)

Suppressor T cells

d)

Memory cells

49.

Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

a)

Malaria

b)

Cholera

c)

AIDS

d)

Measles

50.

Anemia is:

a)

Tonsillitis

b)

Cancer

c)

Deficiency of RBC

d)

Rabies

51.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis primarily affects:

a)

Liver

b)

Meninges

c)

Bone

d)

Lungs

52.

The production of ATP in mitochondria is done by the process of:

a)

Phosphorylation

b)

Chemiosmosis

c)

Light reactions

d)

Dark reactions

53.

How many molecules of oxygen are consumed during Krebs cycle?

a)

0

b)

2

c)

6

d)

12

54.

What is the nature of Ribulose bisphosphate?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Vitamin

55.

The form of anaerobic respiration that occurs in muscle cells is:

a)

Alcoholic fermentation

b)

Succinic acid fermentation

c)

Lactic acid fermentation

d)

Citric acid fermentation

56.

Myelin sheath is composed of:

a)

Phospholipids

b)

Glycolipid

c)

Sphingolipids

d)

None of these

57.

Extra chromosomal DNA molecules having genes for resistance etc, were discovered for the first time in:

a)

E. coli

b)

Pseudomonas

c)

H. influenzae

d)

Proteus

58.

Which of the following are known as defense proteins in human body?

a)

Restriction enzymes

b)

Antibodies

c)

Plasmids

d)

Reverse transcriptase

59.

Which of the following is positively charged?

a)

Proteins

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

Histones

60.

Oxidation of ammonia and ammonium ions in soil by bacteria is:

a)

Ammonification

b)

Nitrogen fixation

c)

Nitrification

d)

Denitrification

61.

Plants used _____ energy for photosynthesis:

a)

Radiant heat

b)

Light energy

c)

Chemical energy

d)

Wind energy

62.

Smallest bone of human body is:

a)

Femur

b)

Occipital

c)

Maxilla

d)

Stapes

63.

Origin of life is:

a)

Rivers on mountains

b)

Hydrothermal vents

c)

Water in channels

d)

Sea with islands

64.

Principles of Geology is the work of:

a)

Lamarck

b)

Malthus

c)

Cuvier

d)

Lyell

65.

The relation between wings of birds and that of insects is:

a)

Divergent evolution

b)

Convergent evolution

c)

Line evolution

d)

Web evolution

66.

A person has blood genotypes LMLN, IAIB & Dd is married to a woman with genotypes LMLM, IAi & DD. Which phenotype will not be present at all in their children?

a)

M, AB & Rh +ive

b)

N, O & Rh –ive

c)

MN, B & Rh +ive

d)

M, A & Rh +ive

67.

Interaction between two or more gene pairs which work in an additive way is:

a)

Dominance

b)

Epistasis

c)

Polygenic inheritance

d)

Pleiotropy

68.

Which of the following is associated with Lamarckism?

a)

Divergent evolution

b)

Convergent evolution

c)

Ladder evolution

d)

Web evolution

69.

A real gas, at a very high pressure, occupies:

a)

For more volume than that of an ideal gas

b)

Slightly more volume than that of an ideal gas

c)

Same volume as that of an ideal gas

d)

Less volume than that of an ideal gas

70.

Greater the strength of intermolecular forces, lesser will be:

a)

For more volume than that of an ideal gas

b)

Boiling point

c)

Vapour pressure

d)

Heat of fusion

71.

For a reversible reaction the value of KC is 10, if the concentration of products is reduced to half, then the value of KC for that reaction at constant temperature will be:

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

10

72.

Which one of the following graphs is representation for more rapid catalyzed reaction?

a)
b)
c)
d)
73.

6NaOH(aq) + 3Cl2(g) 5NaCl(aq) + NaClO3(aq) + 3H2O

In above disproportionation reaction the oxidation state of chlorine is converted from zero to _________ and __________:

a)

-1, +1

b)

-1, +3

c)

-1, +5

d)

+1, +5

74.

Which of the following has neutral co-ordination sphere?

a)

K4[Fe(CN)6]

b)

[Ni(CO)4]

c)

[Cu(NH3)4]SO4

d)

[MnCl4]2-

75.

Mark the incorrect statement about cis-trans isomers:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

76.

The most typical reaction of a simple alkenes is:

a)

Electrophilic substitution

b)

Electrophilic addition

c)

Nucleophilic substitution

d)

Nucleophilic addition

77.

The correct IUPAC name for the following compound is:

a)

3-Bromo-2-methoxybenzaldehyde

b)

2-Methoxy-5-bromo benzene formaldehyde

c)

3-Formyl-5-bromo phenyl methyl ether

d)

2-Bromo-5-methoxybenzaldehyde

78.

88g of CO2 reacts with 54g of water to produce carbonic acid as shown in the reaction:

CO2 + H2O H2CO3

Which of the given statements is/are correct for above reaction?

a)

CO2 is limiting reactant

b)

Amount of H2CO3 produced is 124.0g

c)

Amount of non-limiting reactant left behind is 18.0g

d)

All of these

79.

Which of the following relations is not correct?

a)

c = λ x v

b)

v\overline{v}  = 1/λ

c)

v\overline{v}  = 1/v

d)

λ = c/v

80.

Study the following graphs of boiling points of some substances:

Which of the above graphs show that some members of the graph have hydrogen bonding?

a)

I + V

b)

II + IV

c)

III + IV + V

d)

I + II + III

81.

Which of the following when dissolved in water and placed in the conductivity apparatus would cause the light to glow?

a)

Table salt

b)

Ethyl alcohol

c)

Sugar

d)

Glycerine

82.

Which option shows all the molecules with bond angle 109.5o:

a)

CH4, NH3, PH3

b)

SiCl4, H2O, BeCl2

c)

SiCl4, NH4+, CH4

d)

H2O, CCl4, NH3

83.

Melting point of Na and Mg decreases down the group due to :

a)

Greater electronegativity

b)

Strong attractive forces

c)

Increase in size

d)

High ionization energy

84.

Which of the following statements applies to most of the non-metals? They have:

a)

Low ionization energy and good electrical conductivity

b)

High ionization energy and poor electrical conductivity

c)

Low ionization energy and poor electrical conductivity

d)

High ionization energy and good electrical conductivity

85.

Which one of the following statements about class of organic compounds containing functional groups is incorrect?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

86.

Which of the following species are 3,5 (meta) directing groups when second group is introduced into the benzene ring: 2017

I = -NH2 II = -CHO

III = -COOH IV = -CH3

a)

II, III and IV

b)

II and III

c)

I and IV

d)

I, II and IV

87.

Select the correct acidic strength order of chlorosubstituted acids:

a)

CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH > Cl2CHCOOH > Cl2CCOOH

b)

CH3COOH > Cl2CHCOOH > Cl3CCOOH > ClCH2COOH

c)

Cl3CCOOH > Cl2CHCOOH > ClCH2COOH > CH3COOH

d)

Cl3CCOOH > CH3COOH > Cl2CHCOOH > ClCH2COOH

88.

The rate of reaction for a reaction is 30 mol dm–3s–1, if the product of concentration of reactant is unity the specific rate constant is

a)

2.5

b)

15

c)

25

d)

30

89.

The cathode in an electrochemical cell is the electrode that is:

a)

Always negative

b)

The electrode at which reduction takes place

c)

Always neutral

d)

Always positive

90.

Consider the following statements about synthesis of organic compounds?

I This concept was put forward by a German chemist, Friedrick Wohler in 1828.

II According to the modern concept, organic compounds can be obtained not only by living organisms.

III They can also be synthesized in the laboratory.

IV With the help of this experiment he disproved the vital force theory concept.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II, III and IV

91.

The ester CH3CH2CH2CO2CH3 is responsible for the aroma of apples. When this ester is hydrolyzed by acid in the stomach, what is the formula of the organic acid produced

a)

CH3COOH

b)

CH3CH2CH2COOH

c)

HCOOH

d)

CH3CH2COOH

92.

There are almost 200 million people alive in Pakistan. If you were to distribute rupees 1000 to each Pakistani in the form of 5 rupee coin, how many moles of coins you must have?

a)

6.67 x 10-14

b)

1.5 x 10-14

c)

6.67 x 1014

d)

1.5 x 1014

93.

Which diagram correctly describes the behaviour of a fixed mass of an ideal gas? (T is measured in K.)

a)
b)
c)
d)
94.

Which of the following liquids has greater boiling point?

a)

Benzene

b)

Ethanoic acid

c)

Ethanol

d)

Phenol

95.

The product of the concentrations of each ion in a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt at 298K, raised to the power of their relative concentration is:

a)

Ksp

b)

Ka

c)

Kw

d)

Kb

96.

Which is the measure of activation energy in an endothermic reaction?

a)

The energy of activation of forward reaction is less than that of backward reaction

b)

The energy of activation of forward-backward reaction is same

c)

The energy of activation of backward reaction is less than that of forward reaction

d)

The energy of activation of backward reaction is more than that of forward reaction

97.

All of the following enthalpy changes (∆Ho) have only negative value EXCEPT

a)

∆HoC

b)

∆Hon

c)

∆Ho1st-E.A

d)

∆HoBDE

98.

Which of the following sets constitutes of all the molecules and ions

of non-planar geometry?

a)

PH4+, NH3, SO3, C6H6

b)

C2H2, H2O, BeCl2, H2S

c)

SO2, C2H4, BF3, NO3-

d)

CH4, NH4+, MnO4-, NF3

99.

The solubility of hydroxides of group IIA increases from Mg(OH)2 to Ba(OH)2 due to

a)

Increase in lattice energy

b)

Decrease in lattice energy

c)

Increase in ionization energy

d)

Increase in thermal stability

100.

Which of the following properties is not shown by transition elements?

a)

They form complex compounds

b)

They conduct electricity and heat

c)

They all form coloured compounds in their ionic form

d)

They show +2 and +3 oxidation state in their ionic compounds

101.

Identify the incorrect statement:

a)

Organic means … life or living

b)

Inorganic means … lifeless (non-living source)

c)

Methane … the simplest organic compound

d)

HCN and Na2CO3 … organic compounds

102.

An organic compound 'X' on treatment with acidified K2Cr2O7 gives a ketone which reacts with I2 and sodium hydroxide to form triiodomethane. The compound 'X' is:

a)

CH3CH(OH)CH3

b)

CH3COCH3

c)

CH3CHO

d)

CH3OH

103.

Mark the incorrect statement about empirical formula:

a)

It tells us simple relative atomic ratio of atoms of elements present in the compound

b)

Percentage of elements is required to determine their empirical formula

c)

This term is used only for ionic compounds

d)

Empirical formula = molecular formula/n

104.

In van der Waal’s equation for non-ideal gas, net force of attraction among the molecules is given by:

a)

a n2/V2

b)

P - a n2/V2

c)

P + a n2/V2

d)

a n/V2

105.

If concentration vs time graph of a reactant indicates a constant half-life, then the order reaction with respect to that reactant is:

a)

Zero order

b)

Half order

c)

Second order

d)

First order

106.

Which enthalpy change is relevant in the following process?

Na(s)   Na(g) Δ\Delta  H = +

a)

Enthalpy of atomization

b)

Enthalpy of vaporization

c)

Enthalpy of fusion

d)

Enthalpy of formation

107.

Of the following, the element that does not react with hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen gas is:

a)

Zn

b)

Fe

c)

Hg

d)

Ca

108.

Which one of the following properties does not increase from top to bottom in IA group?

a)

Reducing power

b)

Atomic radii

c)

Reactivity

d)

Ionization energy

109.

Consider the following statements about electronegativity:

I. It increases with the increase of effective nuclear charge

II. It increases with the decrease of atomic radius

III. It increases along the period

IV. It decreases down the group

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III and IV only

d)

I, II, III and IV

110.

Markownikov’s addition of HBr is not applicable to:

a)

Propene

b)

1-Butene

c)

1-Pentene

d)

2-Butene

111.

Under what reaction conditions does the electrophilic chlorination of aromatic compounds usually occur?

a)

Cl2.AlCl3

b)

Cl2.H2O

c)

Cl2,CCl4

d)

NaCl.H2O

112.

In elimination reaction, alcoholic KOH is used. OH- in this case will act as:

a)

Electrophile

b)

Base

c)

Leaving group

d)

Acid

113.

Alcohol reacts slowly with Na-metal as compared to water because it has low concentrate of H+ ions which suggests it is:

a)

Less acidic than water

b)

Less basic than phenol

c)

More acidic than phenol

d)

More acidic than water

114.

The principal quantum number ‘n’ represents:

a)

Average size of the electronic cloud

b)

Average energy of the electron

c)

Average distance of the electron from the nucleus

d)

All of these

115.

Crystalline solids have all of the following properties EXCEPT:

a)

They have symmetry

b)

They have definite geometrical shape

c)

They have sharp and distinct melting points

d)

They have irregular intermolecular forces throughout

116.

A buffer is prepared by mixing the solutions of equimolar acetic acid and sodium acetate. The pH should be equal to

a)

pKa of acid

b)

Number of moles of acid

c)

Less than pKa of acid

d)

More than pKa of acid

117.

The rate of a reaction

a)

Increases as the reaction proceeds

b)

Decreases as the reaction proceeds

c)

May increases or decreases during the reaction

d)

Remains constant as the reaction proceeds

118.

The standard reduction potentials of Ag, Cu, Co and Zn are 0.799, 0.337,-0.277-0.762V respectively. Which one is the best reducing agent?

a)

Zn

b)

Ag

c)

Cu

d)

Co

119.

Which mechanism of reactions is shown by carbonyl compounds?

a)

Electrophile addition

b)

Electrophilic substitution

c)

Free radical substitution

d)

Nucleophilic addition

120.

Bonds present in CuSO4.5H2Ois

a)

Electrovalent and covalent bonds

b)

Electrovalent and coordinate covalent bonds

c)

Covalent and coordinate bonds

d)

Electrovalent, covalent and coordinate covalent bonds

121.

Name the compound, which shows geometric isomerism:

a)

1-Bromo-2-chloropropene

b)

2-Pentene

c)

2,3-Dimethylpropene

d)

Both A and B

122.

Which one of the following compounds is known as tertiary alcohol?

a)

1-Propanol

b)

2-Methyl-2-propanol

c)

2-Methyl-1-Propanol

d)

2-Propanol

123.

Which gas is filled in photocell?

a)

Neon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Helium

d)

No gas

124.

If the velocity of electron entering in velocity selector is V < E/B , the electron

a)

Move straight

b)

Deflect towards E\overrightarrow{E}  

c)

Deflect towards B\overrightarrow{B}  

d)

Move in circular path

125.

Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has photons with the greatest momentum?

a)

Blue light

b)

Yellow light

c)

X rays

d)

Radio waves

126.

The P.E gained by projectile when it reaches at maximum height is expressed by equation

a)

K.Ei cos2θ

b)

K.Ei tan θ

c)

K.Ei sin2θ

d)

K.Ei cot θ

127.

The Laplace correction in the expression for the velocity of sound is needed because sound waves

a)

Are longitudinal

b)

Propagate adiabatically

c)

Propagate isothermally

d)

Are of long wavelength

128.

The magnitude of electric field strength E such that an electron placed in it would experience an electrical force equal to its weight is given by

a)

mg

b)

mg/e2

c)

mg/e

d)

e/mg

129.

In a half wave rectifier, the frequency of the input is N, the frequency and form of the output will be

a)

N/2 and Pulsating

b)

2N and steady

c)

N and Pulsating

d)

N and continuous

130.

When a photon collides with an electron which of the following of photon increases?

a)

Frequency

b)

Energy

c)

Wavelength

d)

None

131.

A car of mass 1000 kg moving with 25 ms–1 collide straight with stationary truck of mass 1500 kg, and start moving together. Find the velocity of truck.

a)

15 ms-1

b)

25 ms-1

c)

10 ms-1

d)

6 ms-1

132.

Activity of a sample is initially 320 counts per second. At the end of 90 minutes it gives 40 counts per second. What is the half-life of the element in sample?

a)

30 minutes

b)

60 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

75 minutes

133.

Two parallel metal plates are at potentials of +800 V and +1300 V. Which diagram best shows the electric field between the metal plates?

a)
b)
c)
d)
134.

A neutron decays within the nucleus into

a)

One P, one v and one β+

b)

One proton, one β- and one anti-neutrino

c)

One β+ , one β- and neutrino

d)

All of above

135.

According to the equation zA_z^A  X Y +3α particles, what are the atomic and mass numbers of ‘Y’?

a)

Z–6, A–12

b)

Z+1, A

c)

Z–2, A–4

d)

Z+3, A

136.

A transmitter radiates 30 μ\mu  W at 6.63 mm wavelength. The number of photons emitted per second are:

a)

6.63 × 10–34

b)

6.63 × 1034

c)

1018

d)

1011

137.

The radial component of acceleration a is

a)

α x r

b)

r x α

c)

ω x α

d)

ω2 x r

138.

A system exhibiting S.H.M must have

a)

Elasticity as well as inertia

b)

Elasticity only

c)

Elasticity, inertia and an external force

d)

Inertia only

139.

Three infinite straight wires A, B, and C carry currents as shown. The net force on the wire B is directed.

a)

Toward A

b)

Normal to plane of paper

c)

Toward C

d)

Zero

140.

The half-life period of a radioactive sample depends upon

a)

Temperature

b)

Nature of substance

c)

Pressure

d)

All of above

141.

The ratio of fundamental wavelengths of one end close pipe to the both end open pipe having same lengths

a)

1 : 2

b)

1 : 4

c)

2 : 1

d)

4 : 1

142.

Two ions having masses in the ratio 1:1 and charges 1:2 are projected into uniform magnetic field perpendicular to field with speeds in the ratio 2:3 the ratio of the radii of circular parts along which the two particles move is

a)

4:3

b)

2:3

c)

3:1

d)

1:4

143.

On moving a charge of 20 C by 2 cm, 2 J of work is done, then the potential difference between the points is

a)

0.1V

b)

8 V

c)

2 V

d)

0.2V

144.

The relationship between force and position is shown in the figure given (in one dimensional case). The work done by the force in displacing a body from x = 1 cm to x = 5 cm is

a)

60 ergs

b)

700 ergs

c)

70 ergs

d)

20 ergs

145.

The angular velocity of a wheel increases from 100 rps to 300 rps in 10s. The number of revolutions made during that time is

a)

600

b)

1500

c)

1000

d)

2000

146.

Which type of wave is used in submarine navigation system

a)

Transverse

b)

Longitudinal

c)

Both

d)

None

147.

Two equal and opposite 5C charges are separated by a distance 10 cm. The electric potential at the midway between them is

a)

Zero

b)

High

c)

Constant

d)

Low

148.

The equation E = pc is valid

a)

For an electron as well as for a photon

b)

For an electron but not for a photon

c)

For a photon but not for an electron

d)

Neither for electron nor for a photon

149.

Instantaneous velocity of a body executing S.H.M at it mean position is

a)

ωx02x2\omega\sqrt[]{x_0^2-x^2}  

b)

ωx02\omega\sqrt[]{x_0^2}  

c)

ωx2\omega\sqrt[]{x^2}  

d)

Zero

150.

The ratio of radius of 3rd to 1st Bohr’s orbit is

a)

3:1

b)

1:3

c)

9:1

d)

None

151.

The first resonance length in a closed pipe is 20 cm then second resonance occurs at

a)

60 cm

b)

90 cm

c)

120 cm

d)

None

152.

In a stationary wave, the particle velocity at the nodal points is

a)

Zero

b)

Minimum but not zero

c)

Maximum and finite

d)

Infinity

153.

When a string of mass ‘m’ per unit length is stretched by a force ‘T’, its frequency is given by

a)

121Tm\frac{1}{21}\sqrt[]{\frac{T}{m}}  

b)

21Tm21\sqrt[]{\frac{T}{m}}  

c)

n21Tm\frac{n}{21}\sqrt[]{\frac{T}{m}}  

d)

21nmT\frac{21}{n}\sqrt[]{\frac{m}{T}}  

154.

In a stationary wave the distance between consecutive antinodes is 25 cm. If the wave velocity is 300 ms–1, then the frequency of wave will be

a)

 150 Hz

b)

 300 Hz

c)

600 Hz 

d)

750 Hz 

155.

A beam of electron pass between the poles of a magnet as shown, the beam will be deflected

a)

Into the plane

b)

Out of the plane

c)

Towards n pole

d)

Towards south poles

156.

The isothermal elasticity of a medium is Ei and the adiabatic elasticity is Ea. The velocity of the sound in the medium is proportional to

a)

Ei\sqrt[]{E_i}  

b)

Ea

c)

Eiγ\sqrt[]{E_i\gamma}  

d)

Ei

157.

When velocity time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis then

a)

 Acceleration is constant

b)

Acceleration is variable

c)

 Acceleration is zero

d)

Velocity is zero

158.

Newtons laws do not hold good for particles

a)

At rest

b)

Moving slowly

c)

Move with high velocity

d)

Move with velocity comparable to velocity of light

159.

Which one is the correct relation for fundamental frequency of open and closed pipe?

a)

fopen = 2 fclosed

b)

fclosed = 2 fopen

c)

fopen = fclosed

d)

fopen = 1/fclosed

160.

The graph shows how the force acting on a body varies with time. Assuming that the body is moving in a straight line, by how much does its momentum change?

a)

40kgms-1

b)

36kgms-1

c)

20kgms-1

d)

16kgms-1

161.

Kinetic energy of a body moving with speed of 10 ms–1 is 30 J. If its speed becomes 30 ms–1 then its K.E becomes

a)

10 J

b)

90 J

c)

270 J

d)

180 J

162.

Two charges are placed at a certain distance apart in air. When a metallic sheet is placed between them, the electrostatic force between them will.

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Remain unchanged

d)

Become zero

163.

What is the value of current in a wire of 1cm long at right angle to a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 Wb/m2. When the force acting on the wire is 5N.

a)

1A

b)

10A

c)

100A

d)

1000A

164.

A body of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 1m/s on a frictionless table. The force required to keep the body moving with same velocity

a)

8N

b)

1/2 N

c)

2×42N

d)

Zero

165.

750 kW engine is generating full power. It is able to provide a 700 kg airplane a speed 2.5 ms–1. Find the fraction of engine power used.

a)

1/100

b)

2/200

c)

3/100

d)

7/300

166.

The angle described in 2sec by an object rotating at a rate of 600 rpm is

a)

20π rad

b)

5π rad

c)

40π rad

d)

Zero

167.

A wave transfers

a)

Energy

b)

Momentum

c)

No mass

d)

All are possible

168.

Area under Q –V graph for a capacitor represents

a)

Charged stored

b)

Energy stored

c)

Electric field strength

d)

Potential difference

169.

A 100W, 200V bulb is connected to a 160V supply. The actual power consumption would be

a)

64W

b)

100W

c)

72W

d)

90W

170.

γ\gamma  - radiations are emitted due to:

a)

De excitation of atom

b)

De excitation of nucleus

c)

Excitation of atom

d)

Excitation of nucleus

171.

The time taken by a particle to travel between a trough and a crest in a transverse wave is

a)

T

b)

3T/4

c)

T/2

d)

T/4

172.

A body moves from point P (3, 4) to Q (5, 7). Its displacement vector would be

a)

8iˆ + 10 ˆj

b)

8iˆ + 2 ˆj

c)

2iˆ - 2 ˆj

d)

2iˆ + 3 ˆj

173.

Which of the following quantities is non-zero at the mean position for a particle executing SHM?

a)

Force

b)

Acceleration

c)

Velocity

d)

Displacement

174.

A battery of emf E and negligible internal resistance is connected to two resistors of resistances R1 and R2 as shown in the circuit diagram.

What is the potential difference across the resistor of resistance R2?

a)

E(R1+R2)/R1

b)

E(R1+R2)/R2

c)

ER2/R1+R2

d)

ER2/R1

175.

An electric field due to a positive charge is represented by the diagram. Which of the following points has higher potential?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

176.

The v0 and vt are speeds of sound in a gas at 0°C and t°C then " vt/v0" is _______

a)

v0 + 0.61t

b)

1 + t/546

c)

1+ 546t

d)

1 + 546/t

177.

CHOOSE THE CORRECT SPELLING.

a)

Comemarate

b)

Commemorate

c)

Comemorate

d)

Comemmorate

178.

Though Majid prefers watching romantic films, he rented the latest spy thriller, and he enjoyed it very much. The given sentence is a:

a)

Simple

b)

Compound

c)

Complex

d)

Compound complex

179.

CHOOSE THE CORRECT SENTENCE

a)

The board of directors recommended that he be not dismissed.

b)

The board of directors recommended that he not be dismissed.

c)

The board of directors recommended that he is dismissed.

d)

The board of directors recommended that he not being dismissed.

180.

Ask either of them. The underlined word is a/an:

a)

Noun

b)

Adjective

c)

Pronoun

d)

Conjunction

181.

The older models of car have now been superseded. The underlined word means:

a)

Displaced

b)

Disintegrated

c)

Degenerated

d)

Modified

182.

Fill in the blanks.

I ______for the swimming classes tomorrow if I _____ from fever.

a)

Go…recover

b)

Will go… recover

c)

Will go … will recover

d)

Would go… recover

183.

SPOT THE ERROR:

Prisoners have been holding hunger strikes in protest on their living conditions

a)

holding

b)

hunger strikes

c)

in protest

d)

on

184.

It goes without saying that the interest at a loan company is higher than a bank.

a)

goes without saying

b)

that

c)

the interest

d)

than a bank

185.

A bouquet of yellow roses lend color and fragrance to the room.

a)

A bouquet

b)

lend

c)

color and fragrance

d)

to the room

186.

Excitement as well as nervousness are the cause of her shaking.

a)

as well as

b)

are

c)

the cause

d)

of her shaking

187.

A MSDS (material safety data sheet) was used to record the data.

a)

A

b)

Was

c)

used

d)

to record

188.

The papers were lying neatly on his desk. The underlined verb is a:

a)

Intransitive verb

b)

Transitive verb

c)

Auxiliary

d)

Modal verb

189.

Change the correct passive of the given statement.

They say that people live on distant planets.

a)

It was said that people live on distant planets.

b)

It is being said that people live on distant planets.

c)

It is said that people live on distant planets.

d)

It is saying that people live on distant planets.

190.

Change the correct passive of the given statement.

The teacher said to the boys, “Work hard if you want to pass the exam.”

a)

The teacher advised the boys work hard if they wanted to pass the exam.

b)

The teacher advised the boys to work hard if they wanted to pass the exam.

c)

The teacher advised the boys to work hard if they want to pass the exam.

d)

The teacher advised the boys to work hard that if they wanted to pass the exam.

191.

CHOOSE THE CORRECT SENTENCE

a)

Spanish are known for their warm hospitality.

b)

The Spanish are known for its warm hospitality.

c)

The Spanish are known for their warm hospitality.

d)

The Spanish is known for their warm hospitality.

192.

CHOOSE THE CORRECT SENTENCE

a)

The Waris Shah is a Shakespeare of the Punjab.

b)

Waris Shah is the Shakespeare of the Punjab.

c)

Waris Shah is a Shakespeare of Punjab.

d)

Waris Shah is the Shakespeare of Punjab.

193.

CHOOSE THE CORRECT SENTENCE

a)

Not only we saw him drown in the deep water but also call for help.

b)

We saw him not only drowning in the deep water but call for help.

c)

We saw him not only drown in the deep water but also calling for help.

d)

We saw him not only drown in the deep water but also call for help.

194.

How much does it cost per kilo? The underlined word is a:

a)

Noun

b)

Pronoun

c)

Preposition

d)

None

195.

13,37,613,1021,1531,?\frac{1}{3},\frac{3}{7},\frac{6}{13},\frac{10}{21},\frac{15}{31},?  

a)

21/43

b)

43/21

c)

17/35

d)

20/41

196.

Statements:

All roads are waters. Some waters are boats.

Conclusions:

I. Some boats are roads.

II. All waters are boats.

a)

Only I

b)

Only II

c)

I and II

d)

I and II are inappropriate

197.

Anam, Mehwish Raju, Laraib and Dua are five cousins. Anam is twice as old as Mehwish. Raju is half the age Mehwish. Anam is half the age of Dua and Raju is twice the age of Laraib.

Who is the youngest?

a)

Dua

b)

Raju

c)

Laraib

d)

Anam

198.

A tiger, when killing its natural prey, which it does either by stalking or lying-in wait for it, depends for the success of its attack on its speed and, to a lesser extent, on the condition of its teeth and claws. When, therefore, a tiger is suffering from one or more painful wounds or when its teeth are missing or defective and its claws worn down, and it is unable to catch animals it has been accustomed to eating, it is driven by the necessity to killing human beings.

Human beings are the natural prey of tigers.

a)

Definitely true

b)

Probably true

c)

Data inadequate

d)

Probably false

e)

 Definitely false

199.

Statement:

Japan is not likely to grant Pakistan's request for a $500 million fast disbursing loan for the current year.

Courses of action:

I) Pakistan should approach other countries to get a loan.

II) Pakistan should persuade Japan to grant the loan to meet its immediate demand of foreign exchange.

a)

If only I is most appropriate

b)

If only II is most appropriate

c)

If either I or II is most appropriate

d)

If neither I nor II is most appropriate

e)

If both I and II are most appropriate

200.

I. It is the aim of the city's civic authority to get the air pollution reduced by 20% in the next two months.

II. The number of asthma cases in the city is constantly increasing.

a)

Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

b)

Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

c)

Both the statements I and II are independent causes

d)

Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

e)

Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause