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Pharm (Chap 4 & 12) Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The parenteral route involves breaking through the skin's protective covering, which increases the risk of

a)

pain

b)

fear

c)

infection

d)

inflammation

2.

Which term describes how an insulin syringe is calibrated?

a)

millimeters

b)

units

c)

minims

d)

milligrams

3.

Which statement describes how a tuberculin syringe is calibrated?

a)

cubic centimeters

b)

tenths of cubic centimeters

c)

hundredths of cubic centimeters

d)

thousandths of cubic cenitmeters

4.

Which gauge needle would be used to administer an aqueous medication?

a)

19G

b)

20G

c)

21G

d)

22G

5.

The most common route of exposure to a blood-borne disease is the result of

a)

a cut by broken glassware.

b)

a needlestick injury.

c)

soiled medical equipment.

d)

an accidental spraying by blood or body fluids.

6.

Which statement best describes the proper technique to use when withdrawing a dose of medication from a vial?

a)

Inspect the container to see if there is any medication in the top portion.

b)

Carefully break the neck of the container at the score line.

c)

Add a filter needle to the syringe before withdrawing.

d)

Inject an amount of air equal to the amount of medication you are withdrawing.

7.

The process of adding liquid to a medication that has been stored in powdered form is called

a)

liquification

b)

suspension

c)

reconstitution

d)

dissolution

8.

The proper way to dissolve a reconstituted medication completely is by

a)

shaking the vial.

b)

placing the vial on a countertop and wait 10 minutes.

c)

rolling the vial between your hands.

d)

rapidly inverting the vial.

9.

Which statement describes how to mix different types of insulin in a syringe?

a)

Withdraw the long-acting type, then the fast-acting.

b)

Withdraw the long-acting type, then the clear.

c)

Withdraw the fast-acting type, then the long-acting.

d)

Never mix long-acting and fast-acting insulin.

10.

The inner lower arm, upper chest, and back are sites that can be used when using the __________ route to administer an injection.

a)

intramuscular

b)

intradermal

c)

subcutaneous

d)

intravenous

11.

Which angle(s) should be used when administering an intradermal injection?

a)

100°–110°

b)

20°–40°

c)

45º–90º

d)

5º–15º

12.

The correct position of the bevel of the needle when performing an intradermal injection is

a)

bevel left

b)

bevel right

c)

bevel down

d)

bevel up

13.

An injection performed using the fatty tissues on the outer upper arm, the front of the thigh, the abdomen, and the upper back below the shoulder blades is called

a)

subcutaneous

b)

intradermal

c)

intravenous

d)

intramuscular

14.

What is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants and children?

a)

dorsogluteal sites

b)

ventrogluteal sites

c)

deltoid site

d)

vastus lateralis muscle

15.

When administering an intramuscular injection, what is the correct needle angle?

a)

5–15°

b)

45°

c)

45-90°

d)

90°

16.

The process of pulling back slightly on the plunger of a syringe while administering an injection is referred to as

a)

plunging

b)

injecting

c)

drawing

d)

aspirating

17.

Which statement describes why the healthcare worker must aspirate before administering an injection?

a)

to follow OSHA guidelines

b)

to decrease the amount of pain that the patient experiences

c)

as a safety check to make sure the needle has not entered a blood vessel

d)

to maintain asepsis

18.

Which statement describes the proper procedure to follow if blood is visible in the plunger when aspiration is performed?

a)

Immediately remove the needle.

b)

Discard the syringe into a sharps container.

c)

Repeat the procedure.

d)

All answers are correct.

19.

Which statement describes the information that must be charted after administering medications?

a)

the specific parenteral route

b)

the location of the injection

c)

patient reaction

d)

all answers are correct.

20.

Which type of injections involve the use of site rotation to prevent tissue damage from repeated injections?

a)

intradermal and subcutaneous

b)

intradermal and intramuscular

c)

intramuscular and subcutaneous

d)

insulin and tuberculin

21.

Which of the following will best prevent medication tracking when administering an intramuscular injection?

a)

Using the Z-track method

b)

Injecting the medication quickly

c)

Advising the patient to wear restrictive clothing at the injection site

d)

Massaging the site after administration

22.

Which term describes the administration of fluids, medications, electrolytes, blood, or even nutrients through a vein?

a)

intramuscular therapy

b)

intradermal therapy

c)

intravenous therapy

d)

subcutaneous therapy

23.

Which term describes redness, warmth, and discomfort along the vein that may result from prolonged use of the same vein?

a)

local infiltration

b)

pyrogenic reaction

c)

thrombophlebitis

d)

phlebitis

24.

Which term describes edema at the IV site and a significant slowing or complete stoppage of the intravenous flow that may be caused by a dislodging of the IV needle from the vein?

a)

local infiltration

b)

pyrogenic reaction

c)

thrombophlebitis

d)

phlebitis

25.

Difficulty swallowing is known as

a)

stomatitis.

b)

dysphagia.

c)

dyspepsia

d)

gastritis

26.

Which condition could cause patients to avoid hard-to-chew fibrous foods that would help keep their bowel movements regular? 

a)

peptic ulcer disease

b)

gastritis

c)

tooth and gum disorders

d)

Crohn's disease

27.

Consuming coffee, alcohol, or tobacco may cause a person to experience

a)

hepatitis.

b)

peptic ulcer disease.

c)

stomatitis.

d)

gastritis.

28.

Excessive secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl) may result in which condition?

a)

gastritis

b)

peptic ulcer disease

c)

inflammatory bowel disease

d)

ulcerative colitis

29.

The presence of HCl in the stomach is neutralized by which drug classification?

a)

anticholinergics

b)

histamine H2-receptor antagonists

c)

antacids

d)

astringents

30.

Which category of drugs inhibit gastric acid secretion?

a)

antacids

b)

antispasmodics

c)

histamine H2-receptor antagonists

d)

antiemetics

31.

Which term is used to describe a yellowing of the skin that is a symptom of liver disease?

a)

cirrhosis

b)

melanosis

c)

jaundice

d)

dermatitis

32.

A chronic, progressive disease of the liver characterized by degeneration and destruction of liver cells is which of the following?

a)

jaundice

b)

Crohn's disease

c)

hepatitis

d)

cirrhosis

33.

Which condition could present with symptoms such as fever, vomiting, jaundice, and pain in the upper right quadrant?

a)

hepatitis

b)

Crohn's disease

c)

gallbladder disease

d)

ulcerative colitis

34.

Which category of drug aids in digestion by replacing digestive enzymes that are missing due to diseases such as stomach cancer, pernicious anemia, or pancreatitis?

a)

antispasmodic

b)

digestant

c)

anticholinergic

d)

antiemetic

35.

A disease of the colon and rectum characterized by inflammation and ulceration with alternating periods of remissions and exacerbations is which condition?

a)

Crohn's disease

b)

peritonitis

c)

ulcerative colitis

d)

irritable bowel syndrome

36.

Which condition is caused by straining during bowel movements, heavy lifting, and prolonged sitting and standing?

a)

irritable bowel syndrome

b)

diverticulosis

c)

hemorrhoids

d)

tumors

37.

A drug that suppresses nausea and vomiting by acting on the brain's control center to stop nerve impulses belongs to which drug category?

a)

anticholinergics

b)

antiemetics

c)

antihelmintics

d)

astringents

38.

Defecation is promoted through the use of which drug classification?

a)

emetics

b)

digestives

c)

laxatives

d)

astringents

39.

Which of the following should be taken with bulk-forming (high-fiber) laxatives to prevent constipation and possible fecal impaction?

a)

food

b)

grapefruit juice

c)

water

d)

milk

40.

An intestinal infestation of worms can be treated with which category of drugs?

a)

antiemetic

b)

anticholinergic

c)

astringent

d)

antihelmintic

41.

Weight-loss medications may cause which side effect?

a)

loss of fat-soluble vitamins

b)

hypotension

c)

blood in the stool

d)

stomatitis

42.

Which category of drugs do Pepto-Bismol, Kaopectate, and Imodium-AD belong?

a)

antidiarrheals

b)

laxatives

c)

emetics

d)

antiseptics

43.

Which category of drugs do Metamucil, Dulcolax, and Senokot-S-S belong?

a)

antidiarrheals

b)

laxatives

c)

emetics

d)

antiseptics

44.

Physical measures like eating a high-fiber diet, drinking 1500 to 2000 mL of fluids daily, and increasing physical activity are used in combination with drug therapy to treat

a)

diarrhea

b)

helminthiasis.

c)

vomiting

d)

constipation.

45.

Physical measures like following a bland diet and eliminating substances such as tobacco, coffee, and alcohol should be used in combination with drug therapy to treat which condition?

a)

diarrhea

b)

ulcers

c)

vomiting

d)

constipation

46.

Which may be ordered if a patient is unconscious or cannot take oral medication, or is nauseated, has a fever, or is in pain?

a)

astringent

b)

endoscope

c)

suppository

d)

gastrostomy tube

47.

Which medication should never be crushed when administering medication through a nasogastric or gastrostomy tube?

a)

buccal or sublingual tablets

b)

time-release capsule

c)

enteric-coated tablets

d)

all answers are correct

48.

Which condition can be treated with rest, a high-fiber diet, antibiotics, and a bulk laxative such as Metamucil?

a)

Crohn's disease

b)

diverticulosis

c)

hemorrhoids

d)

diarrhea

49.

Which drug classification is indicated to treat motion sickness, morning sickness, and nausea and vomiting after chemotherapy?

a)

antiemetics

b)

anticholinergics

c)

proton pump inhibitors

d)

antacids

50.

Which medication is an example of an antidiarrheal?

a)

Imodium-AD

b)

Metamucil

c)

Colace

d)

Ducolax