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IMMUNOLOGY

Total questions: 21

Worksheet time: 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Antinuclear antibody tests are performed to help diagnose:

a)

acute leukemia

b)

acute leukemia

c)

lupus erythematosus

d)

Crohn disease

2.

In the anti-double-stranded DNA procedure, the antigen most commonly utilized is:

a)

rat stomach tissue

b)

Crithidia luciliae

c)

mouse kidney tissue

d)

Toxoplasma gondii

3.

Which of the following is most useful in establishing a diagnosis in the convalescence phase of a viral infection?

a)

Slide culture

b)

Shell vial

c)

Serological techniques

d)

Culture on McCoy media

4.

 

The presence of HbsAg, anti-HBc and often HbeAG is characteristic of:

a)

early acute phase HBV hepatitis

b)

Recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis

c)

early convalescent phase HBV hepatitis

d)

Past HBV infection

5.

AN example of an organ specific disease with autoimmune antibodies is:

a)

Wegener granulomatosus

b)

Hashimoto thyroiditis

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

6.

IgM antibodies are frequently hemolytic because of:

a)

their dimeric structure

b)

their sedimentation coefficient of 7-15 S

c)

the molecule's 5 antigen binding sites

d)

their efficient ability to fix complement

7.

To which of the following classes do the antibodies that cause hemolytic disease of the newborn belong

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

8.

Which of the following releases histamine and other mediators from basophils?

a)

C3a

b)

Clq

c)

properdin factor B

d)

C4

9.

A monoclonal spike of IgG, Bence Jones proteinuria, and bone pain are usually associated with:

a)

Burkitt lymphoma

b)

Severe combined immunodeficiency disease

c)

Bruton disease

d)

Multiple myeloma

10.

Which of the following is the most common humoral immune deficiency disease?

a)

Bruton agammaglobulinemia

b)

Selective IgA deficiency

c)

IgG deficiency

d)

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

11.

Immunodeficiency with thrombocytopenia and eczema is often referred to as:

a)

DiGeorge syndrome

b)

Ataxia talengiectasia

c)

Bruton agammaglobulinema

d)

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

12.

The autosomal recessive form of severe combined immunodeficiency disease is also referred to as:

a)

Bruton agammaglobulinemia

b)

DiGeorge syndrome

c)

Swiss-type lymphopenic agammaglobulinemia

d)

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

13.

Hereditary angioedema is characterized by:

a)

decreased activity if C3

b)

increased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor

c)

decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor

d)

decreased activity if C2

14.

Infantile X-linked agammaglobulinemia is referred to as:

a)

Bruton agammaglobulinemia

b)

DiGeorge syndrome

c)

Swiss-type agammaglobulinemia

d)

Hypogammaglobulinemia

15.

Which of the following is used to detect allergen specific IgE?

a)

RIST

b)

IEP

c)

RAST

d)

CRP

16.

In skin test, a wheal and flare development is indicative of:

a)

Immediate hypersensitivity

b)

antibody mediated cytotoxicity

c)

immune complex

d)

delayed hypersensitivity

17.

T cells are incapable of:

a)

collaborating with B cells in antibody responses

b)

secretion of immunoglobulins

c)

secretion of cytokines

d)

Producing positive skin tests

18.

Which T-cell malignancy may retain "helper" activity with regard to immunoglobulin synthesis by B cells?

a)

Hodgkin lymphoma

b)

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

c)

Sézary syndrome

d)

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

19.

Cells from a patient with hairy cell leukemia have immunologic and functional features of:

a)

mast cells and B lymphocytes

b)

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

c)

Granulocytes and monocytes

d)

B lymphocytes and monocytes

20.

HLA-B8 antigen has been associated with which of the following pairs of diseases?

a)

ankylosing spondylitis and myasthenia gravis

b)

celiac disease and ankylosing spondylitis

c)

myasthenia gravis and celiac disease

d)

Reiter disease and multiple sclerosis

21.

Which of the following is an important marker for the presence of immature B cells in patients with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

a)

terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

b)

adenosine deaminase

c)

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

d)

purine nucleoside phosphorylase