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Oracle EBS Purchasing Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When a quotation is due to expire within the number of days you specified, then you receive the following message in the Notifications Summary window: Quotations active or approaching expiration: [number]. Where is this [number] set up in the system?

a)

In the Quote Header - Warning Delay field

b)

In the Systems Profile Options - PO: Quote Warning Delay

c)

In Purchasing Options on the 'Default' Tab - Quote Warning Delay field

d)

Lookup Code, which is an (LOV) list of Values, in the Quote Header - Warning Delay field

2.

Select three true statements regarding the Workflow Document Creation prerequisite (PO Create Documents workflow). (Choose three.)

a)

Catalog quote must not be expired, but may be inactive.

b)

Supplier and supplier site are required on the requisition related to a contract purchase order.

c)

If a system Item is not associated with the requisition line, a supplier item number is required.

d)

Sourcing rules are required If the requisition originates in Oracle Purchasing or Procurement.

e)

The only time an approved supplier list is required is if your source document is a blanket purchase agreement and you are using a system item.

3.

Consider the following setups:

1) Purchasing System Option enforce Full Lot Quantity * Mandatory

2) Rounding Factor at the item level = 75%

3) Unit of Issue at the item level = Dozen

Select two statements that are true.(Choosetwo.)

a)

If the user enters 6 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,

b)

If the user enters 6 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,

c)

If the user enters 11 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,

d)

If the user enters 11 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,

e)

An advisory message suggesting rounding and a suggested rounding quantity are displayed, but you can override this.

4.

Requisition Import groups all requisitions with the same group code under the same requisition header. If no group code is specified, Requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import process. Identify them. (Choose five.)

a)

Group by Item.

b)

Group by buyer.

c)

Group by location.

d)

Group by supplier.

e)

Group all requisition lines under one requisition header

5.

While defining Approval Groups, which three objects can you define authorization rules for? (Choose three.)

a)

Buyer

b)

Location

c)

Commodity

d)

Item Category

e)

Account Range

6.

Which two statements are true regarding approval workflows In Purchasing? (Choose two.)

a)

You can limit approval levels in an Approval Group by Item Category.

b)

Approval routing can cut across legal entities within a business group.

c)

A Purchase Requisition and a Standard Purchase Order cannot have different approval levels.

d)

The Hierarchy Forward Method routes the document to the first approver in the hierarchy who has the required approval limits for that document.

e)

During Position Hierarchy setup, a constraint that must be considered is that the Subordinate must not be the manager of the Position Holder in their regular job roles.

7.

Which three are true about the Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) proems? (Choose three)

a)

Invoice is always created for the supplier site.

b)

Invoice is always created In unapproved status,

c)

Invoice currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency.

d)

Payment currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency,

e)

Amount is always determined by multiplying the Quantity received by the purchase order item unit price.

8.

There are four tabbed regions In the Supplier Item Catalog window (Negotiated Sources, Prior Purchases, Sourcing Rules, and Requisition Templates), but function security can be used to determine whether a user will be able to see all of them. In release R12, where is the requisition setup option that determines which of the tabbed regions is the default?

a)

in the Profile Options setup

b)

in the Lookup Codes setup

c)

in the Document Types setup

d)

in the Purchasing Options setup

e)

in the Expense Account Rules setup

9.

Price Tolerance (%) on the Purchasing Options Control section refers to the percentage by which

a)

the purchase order line price cannot exceed a price quote

b)

the invoice price cannot exceed the purchase order line price

c)

the purchase order line price cannot exceed the blanket amount

d)

the supplier catalog price cannot exceed purchase order line price

e)

the purchase order line price cannot exceed the requisition line price

10.

Select three statements that are true regarding the clearing account. (Choose three.)

a)

An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.

b)

You can have a maximum of one asset clearing account per asset category.

c)

For each payables document you create, you can have a separate cash clearing account.

d)

You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash account are separate.

e)

You use a separate cash clearing account and cash account to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on the balance sheet.

11.

Your client has the following requirements for electronic delivery of purchasing documents to indirect spend vendors:

 

1. No third-party software should be needed; the built-in Oracle functionality should be used.

2. No special supplier set up should be required; the supplier should need minimal resources to participate.

3. No requirement for audit trail or confirmation.

The best method within standard functionality is

a)

EDI

b)

XML

c)

Email

d)

Facsimile

e)

Direct interface

12.

A Blanket Purchase Agreement Is created with the following cumulative price break:

 

Quantity > 0: Unit Price = $5 Quantity > 20: Unit Price = $4

Single line, single distribution releases are created as follows: Release# 1 with quantity 15

Release# 2 with quantity 10

 

What are the unit price values on the releases?

a)

Release1 $5, Release2 $5

b)

Release1 $4, Release2 $4

c)

Release1 $5, Release2 $4

d)

It depends on the price tolerance for the line.

e)

Release1 $5, Release2 $4 for a quantity of 5 and $5 for a quantity of 5

13.

You match an unordered receipt to

a)

a purchase order shipment from any organization

b)

a Return Material Authorization (RMA). from any organization

c)

a purchase order shipment from the same organization for any supplier

d)

a purchase release shipment from the same organization for the same supplier

e)

a finally closed purchase order shipment from the same organization for the same supplier

14.

Which four sources of information default records Into the Supplier Header? (Choose four.)

a)

Financial Options

b)

Payables Options

c)

Receiving Options

d)

Purchasing Options

e)

Invoice Options

15.

While implementing Oracle Payables, Oracle Purchasing, and Oracle General Ledger at GLO Ltd., you are informed by the accountant that the AP Clearing Account balance Is Increasing daily. To solve this issue, what would you check in the accounting process?

a)

whether journals are posted regularly

b)

whether suppliers are sequentially numbered

c)

whether the month-end accrual process is run

d)

whether invoices are matched to purchase orders and receipts

e)

whether Oracle Payables transactions are reconciled with Oracle General Ledger

16.

Consider the following scenario for inventory item A:

1)  Standard Cost $10 Purchase Order Line Price: $12, Purchase Order Line Quantity: 10

2)  Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery

 

You created a receipt of 8 units for item A. Which option correctly describes the effect on different accounts?

a)

Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $16; No effect on Purchase Price Variance Account

b)

Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16

c)

Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $80; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16

d)

Credit Material Account $80; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16

e)

Debit Material Account $96; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16

17.

Which three are valid setup options for purchasing document types? (Choose three.)

a)

Archive On

b)

Forward Method

c)

Default Hierarchy

d)

Security Access Level

e)

Can Change Hierarchy

18.

Consider the following scenario for Inventory Item B.

 

1) Standard Cost: $10

2) Purchase Order Line Quantity: 100; Purchase Order Line Price: $12

3) Match Approval Level: Three-Way Matching; Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery

4) Received Quantity: 40

5) Invoice Price: $14; Invoiced Quantity: 20

Which option describes the effect on different accounts correctly?

a)

Debit Material Account $480; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $0; Credit AP Liability Account $280

b)

Debit Material Account $400; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Credit AP Liability Account $280

c)

Debit Material Account $400 ; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $80; Debit Purchase price Variance Account $40; Credit AP Liability Account $280

d)

Credit Material Account $400; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Credit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Debit AP Liability Account $280

19.

Identify four ways in which sourcing rules significantly improve efficiency of procurement processes. (Choose four.)

a)

Assigning sourcing rules at the item or item-organization level using an assignment set.

b)

Giving you the ability to identify the priority to be given to the local sites of a global supplier.

c)

Sourcing the highest percentage of an item from only those suppliers who ranked the highest.

d)

Allowing you to identify the most efficient shipping method to be used for a specific sourcing rule,

e)

Automatically allocating planned orders across different suppliers based on predetermined criteria such as rank and percentage.

20.

Select three true statements about the default of sourcing Information for requisitions and purchase orders. (Choose three.)

a)

The item price on a requisition can be defaulted from the Item attribute setup.

b)

Buyer name cannot be defaulted onto a requisition, but you can assign notes to a buyer.

c)

You can modify the last name of the requester defaulting from the Human Resources employee record.

d)

You must use the Transfer From assignment on a sourcing rule for Item Information to default onto an Internal requisition.

e)

When you assign a commodity to an approved supplier list, you do not need to assign the individual items in the commodity.

21.

You receive a request to create a new menu. Instead of creating a new menu, you modify an existing menu and save It to a different User Menu Name. What happens after saving the menu with a different User Menu Name?

a)

There will be two menus.

b)

The original menu is disabled.

c)

The new menu will not contain any functions.

d)

The new menu will overwrite the original menu.

22.

A Global Single Instance (GS1) provides the global enterprise with a single, complete data model, Identify three features In Oracle Business Suite Release 12 that support a 6SL (Choose three.)

a)

Maintenance of third-party applications

b)

Automation of standardized documents and audit processes

c)

Decentralization of operations by regions, divisions, or processes

d)

Consolidation of data centers and lowering administrative overhead

e)

Capture of statutory and customary local requirements In the same database

23.

Identify two types of regions in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)

a)

Menu

b)

Table

c)

Folder

d)

Report

e)

Graph

24.

A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for Its operations In the U.S. and Canada. The company Is now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. As a system administrator, you need to set the MO: Operating Unit profile option for Mexico. Customer is not using Multi-Org Access Control.

 You set the MO: Operating Unit profile option at the              level.

a)

Site

b)

User

c)

Application

d)

Responsibility

25.

Identify the sequence of steps to determine the Descriptive Flexfield name on a form in Oracle E- Business Suite Release 12 with Diagnostics enabled.

 

1) Select Help > Diagnostics > Examine.

2) The username of the DFF appears in the Value field.

3) Select the DFF name from the list of values in the "Field" field.

4) Select the "$DESCRIPTIVE_FUEXFIELD$B value for the Block name.

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

1 4, 3, 2

c)

1, 3, 4, 2

d)

4, 3, 1, 2

26.

Which two parameters facilitate cross organization reports in a Multi-Org environment? (Choose two.)

a)

Ledger

b)

Legal Entity

c)

Operating Unit

d)

Reporting Level

e)

Reporting Context

27.

XYZ Corp. has operations In the U.S. and Canada. Within Canada, It has two separate Divisions due to Statutory requirements: one In Quebec and another In Ontario. How would you define the organization structure for XYZ Corp. from the Information given above?

a)

Two Ledgers, two Legal Entitles, and two Operating Units

b)

Two Ledgers, two Legal Entities, and three Operating Units

c)

Two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and two Operating Units

d)

Two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units

e)

Three Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units

28.

Identify the four resources that Oracle Technology Network (OTN) provides. (Choose four.)

a)

Sample codes

b)

Bug Database

c)

Technical articles

d)

Product downloads

e)

Product documentation

29.

ABC Corp, has the following Organization Structure

 

1) Legal Entity: A

2) Operating Units: B end C

3) Balancing Entitles: 10. 20. and 30

 Identify three correct statements regarding the Balancing Entity. (Choose three.)

a)

Each Balancing Entity must balance within itself.

b)

There can be multiple Balancing Entitles within an Operating Unit

c)

Balancing Entity is the lowest postable unit in the Chart of Accounts.

d)

Balancing Entitles can be automatically secured at the Legal Entity level.

e)

Balancing Entities can be secured at the Operating Unit level through Security Rules

30.

Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)

a)

View asset information across multiple asset books

b)

Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignment!

c)

Submit and view data across different ledgers using a single responsibility.

d)

Enter Payables Invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.

e)

View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility

31.

Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)

a)

Creating an appropriate role

b)

Creating an appropriate group

c)

Constructing a new menu hierarchy

d)

Defining rules to exclude specific functions

32.

A Ledger is a financial reporting entity. What is new in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that facilitates generation of accounting entries?

a)

Ledger

b)

Chart of Accounts

c)

Multi-Org Structure

d)

Accounting Convention

e)

Financial Accounting Calendar

33.

Employee Information in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 is partitioned by       .

a)

Legal Entity

b)

Operating Unit

c)

Business Group

d)

HR Organization

e)

Inventory Organization

34.

XYZ Corp. has acquired ABC Corp. XYZ operates with Multi-Org Access Control. Consequently XYZ Corp. needs to add additional Operating Units. Identify the statement that describes the sequence for adding additional Operating Units.

a)

It is not possible to add additional Operating Units.

b)

Set the MO: Operating Unit profile option, run the Replicate Seed Data concurrent request, create the Operating Unit, and create new responsibilities as necessary:

c)

Set the MO: Security Profile profile option, run the Replicate Seed Data concurrent request, create the Operating Unit, and create new responsibilities as necessary.

d)

Create the Operating Unit, run the Replicate Seed Data concurrent request, create new responsibilities as necessary, and set up the MO: Default Operating Unit profile option.

e)

Create the Operating Unit, run the Replicate Seed Data concurrent request, assign the Operating Unit to a security hierarchy, run Security List maintenance concurrent program, create new responsibilities as necessary, and set up the MO: Security Profile profile option.

35.

You are involved in a project to upgrade to Oracle E-Business Suite, Release 12. You need more information about the upgrade processes and paths. Where would you find the upgrade guide for Oracle E-Business Suite?

a)

AppsNet

b)

Bug Database

c)

Technical Forums

d)

MetaLink Knowledge Base

e)

Oracle Technology Network

36.

Company X has three Operating Units: A, B, and C. Each Operating Unit has the MO: Security Access profile option called ABC Security assigned. Operating Unit A has both the MO: Operating Unit profile option and the MO: Default Operating Unit profile option assigned to it. Which statement is true?

a)

Paul can create transactions for the A, B, and C Operating Units.

b)

Ail transactions created by Paul are automatically assigned to the Operating Unit A.

c)

Paul can report on data across A, B, and C Operating Units, but enter transactions only against A.

d)

The profile option did not include Operating Unit B and Operating Unit C due to an error by the system administrator.

e)

The Payables responsibility is linked to the Operating Unit A by the MO: Operating Unit profile option and can create transactions for that Operating Unit alone.

37.

Identify three true statements about defining actions in Oracle Alert. (Choose three.)

a)

An alert can contain only one Action Set.

b)

An alert can contain any number of Action Sets.

c)

When multiple actions are defined they must be included in an Action Set.

d)

Oracle Alert waits for user response before executing next action in an Action Set.

e)

Oracle Alert does not wait for user response before executing next action in an Action Set.

38.

Identify two features of a Value Set that has a validation type of "None." (Choose two.)

a)

It has an approved list of values associated with It.

b)

The entered value must meet the formatting requirements.

c)

The Flexfield value security rules cannot be used for a segment that uses this Value Set.

d)

Users can enter any value that they want even if It does not meet formatting requirements.

39.

In the Multi-Org model, which organization type is the highest level that impacts accounting?

a)

Ledger

b)

Operating Unit

c)

Business Group

d)

GRE/Legal Entity

e)

Inventory Organization

40.

You have Purchase Order approval authority In Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. You are planning to go on vacation for three weeks without access to email. Select four ways in which you can manage Workflow notifications using Advanced Worklist options in your absence. (Choose four.)

a)

Grant your Worklist Access for all Workflow Item Types to your assistant

b)

Grant your Worklist Access for selected Workflow Item Types to your assistant.

c)

Create a Vacation Rule to automatically close all notifications from a specific FYI notification.

d)

Create a Vacation Rule to automatically close all FYI notifications for all Workflow Item Types.

e)

Create a Vacation rule to reassign all notifications for all Workflow Item Types to your assistant using the "Delegate your response" option.

41.

Identify two features of Oracle Workflow In Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose two.)

a)

Enhances data security

b)

Helps you focus on managing individual business transactions

c)

Has each activity in a workflow as a PL/SQL function or a notification or a subprocess

d)

Can integrate business functions only between business processes within a single company

e)

Can integrate business processes within an enterprise, as well as between different organizations and different systems

42.

ABC Corp. is in the business of manufacturing laptops. They run marketing, campaigns to attract and secure orders, and then produce a forecast based on the safes order history. Identify the two business flows hi Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that meet their requirements. (Choose two.)

a)

Order to Cash

b)

Forecast to Plan

c)

Demand to Build

d)

Campaign to Order

e)

Contract to Renewal

43.

You receive a request to create a new responsibility for US Payables Manager. The request states that the new responsibility should have access to all menu items except Invoice Payments. Identify two options that you would use to restrict the Invoice Payments option on the new US Payables Manager responsibility. (Choose two.)

a)

Remove the request group from the new US Payables Manager responsibility

b)

Create a Menu Exclusion for Invoice Payments on the US Payables Manager responsibility

c)

Create an Item Exclusion for Invoice Payments on the US Payables Manager responsibility.

d)

Create a Security Attribute for Invoice Payments on the US Payables Manager responsibility.

e)

Create a new menu excluding the Invoice Payments option and attach the new menu to the responsibility.

44.

In the Descriptive Flexfield (DFF. implementation, the purpose of the "Synchronize check box is to synchronize      .

a)

The DFF Values with the Reference field

b)

The DFF Contexts with the Reference field

c)

The DFF Attributes with the Reference field

d)

The DFF Segments with the Reference field

e)

The DFF Value Sets with the Reference field

45.

Oracle Daily Business Intelligence functions are secured using standard Oracle Applications function security. Choose three dashboards that are secured by the Inventory Organization. (Choose three.)

a)

Inventory Management

b)

Warehouse Management

c)

Procurement Management

d)

Commodity Supplier Management

e)

Customer Fulfillment Management

46.

You are the Human Resources load for the ERP implementation of ABC Corporation. You have defined the employees In Oracle Human Resources. Select three activities that utilize the employee record. (Choose three.)

a)

Approvals

b)

Asset assignment

c)

Organization creation

d)

Journal Entry creation

e)

AutoCreate Purchase Orders

47.

Event Types in Subledger Accounting is a grouping of              .

a)

Events

b)

Accounts

c)

Event Models

d)

Event Entities

e)

Event Classes

48.

The technical architecture In Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 supports the business needs of the application. Select three technical features Included In the technical architecture in Oracle E-Business Suite Release I2. (Choose three)

a)

Global

b)

Mobile interface

c)

Rapid Implementation

d)

Business Intelligence

e)

Self-service (HTML/JSPs)

49.

Identify three features of Key Flexfields. (Choose three.)

a)

Key Flexfields are used identifiers for entitles.

b)

The Key Flexfield structure comprises Segments.

c)

A Key Flexfield structure consists of multiple code combinations.

d)

Key Flexfields appear as a single-space field enclosed in brackets.

e)

Each segment of a Key Flexfield usually contains meaningful information

50.

BC Inc. added a new Operating Unit to its existing Multi-Org Access-enabled responsibility. When users logged in using their existing responsibility, they could not see the new Operating Unit in the list of values. What could be the cause?

a)

Security List Maintenance was not run.

b)

The Set MO: Operating Unit profile was not defined.

c)

The Set Multi-Org Preferences profile was not defined.

d)

The Set MO: Default Operating Unit profile was not defined.

e)

The Set MO: Security profile was not defined for the responsibility.

51.

Identify two correct statements related to Key Performance Indicators and the KPI region in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)

a)

Can be of table format only

b)

Can be configured for each dashboard

c)

Organizes data into reporting hierarchies

d)

Is a strategic business factor that is used for reporting

e)

Contains a unique set of graphical information on a dashboard

52.

ABC Corp. has set up the Asset Category Key Flexfield. It has also set up a Descriptive Flexfield to store vehicle Information associated with the asset category "Vehicle." Identify two correct statements (Choose two.)

a)

The setting up of the Descriptive Flexfield is mandatory.

b)

The Asset Category Flexfield is owned by the Oracle Assets module.

c)

The Descriptive Flexfield attributes are associated with tables in the Oracle Assets module.

d)

Only the Asset Category Key Flexfield is associated with tables in the Oracle Assets module.

53.

Identify four tasks that you can perform using Oracle Workflow in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose four.)

a)

Automate business processes.

b)

Generate account code combinations.

c)

Approve standard business documents

d)

Generate inventory item numbers using item generator workflow.

e)

Integrate with third party business systems that are not on a company network.

54.

Which four options are determined by a responsibility in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12? (Choose four.)

a)

Inherited roles

b)

Accessible reports

c)

Applicable Ledgers

d)

Accessible Applications

e)

Accessible menus and forms

55.

Identify three modules that can be secured using the Operating Unit in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose three)

a)

Oracle Assets

b)

Oracle Payables

c)

Oracle Receivable

d)

Oracle General Ledger

e)

Oracle Cash Management

56.

A user has been assigned with five Operating Units in his or her security profile. The user transacts in three of those Operating Units, the remaining two are used occasionally. The user can limit the list of values available to the three Operating Units by

a)

Setting the preferred Operating Units in user preferences

b)

Setting the values for the MO: Operating Unit at the user level profile option

c)

Setting the values for the MO: Default Operating Units at the user level profile option

d)

Requesting the system administrator to update the Operating Units in the security profile

e)

Requesting the system administrator to set up MO: Default Operating Unit for the responsibility

57.

ABC Corp. uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 and wants to design an Order Status Web inquiry screen to make order statuses visible to its customers online. How can ABC Corp. ensure that customers view only their individual order statuses?

a)

By securing attributes for each customer

b)

By excluding attributes for individual customers

c)

By assigning a separate attribute value for INTERNAL_CONTACT_ID

d)

By assigning the same attribute value for CUSTOMER_CONTACT_ID

58.

Daily Business Intelligence pages provide summarized content for a particular functional area. Identify three features that the pages contain. (Choose three.)

a)

Regions

b)

Reports

c)

Parameters

d)

Responsibilities

e)

Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

59.

The SLA: SRS Trace Mode profile option indicates where the debug information provided by the concurrent programs is printed. The values for this profile option are -lip and                . (Choose two.)

a)

AF File

b)

LogFile

c)

OutFile

d)

User Defined file name

60.

Which three statements are true about modifying Flexfield values? (Choose three.)

a)

The values cannot be disabled.

b)

The value description can be changed.

c)

The effective dates for a value can be limited.

d)

The values can be deleted after they are defined.

e)

The values cannot be modified after they are defined.

61.

Which three values are applicable for the transaction profile option Miscellaneous Issue and Receipt? (Choose three.)

a)

Online Processing

b)

Concurrent Processing

c)

Form-Level Processing

d)

Background Processing

e)

Record-Level Processing

62.

Due to excessive customer returns, the client needs to prevent the reservation and subsequent shipping to customers of a specific lot number for an item, pending a quality review. Identify two conditions that will satisfy this requirement. (Choose two.)

a)

Assign the lot a material status that does not permit reservations.

b)

Assign the lot a material status that only permits subinventory transfers and issues to scrap.

c)

Assign the lot a material status that does not permit reservations, but only permits subinventory transfers and issues to scrap.

d)

Transfer the quantity on hand of the item to a subinventory that does not permit reservations, but only permits subinventory transfers and issues to scrap.

63.

Identify the correct sequence of steps in the purchase order period close business flow.

a)

1. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 2. Process period-end accruals. > 3.Close the purchasing period. > 4. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting period. > 5. Run the Accrual Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 6. Write off accrued transactions as necessary. > 7. Create a manual journal entry for write-offs.

b)

1. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 2. Process period-end accruals. > 3.Close the purchasing period. > 4. Run the Accrual Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 5. Write off accrued transactions as necessary. > 6. Create a manual journal entry for write-offs. > 7. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting period.

c)

1. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting period. > 2. Run the Accrual Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 3. Write-off accrued transactions as necessary. > 4. Create a manual journal entry for write-offs. > 5. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 6. Process period-end accruals. > 7. Close the purchasing period.

d)

1. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting period. > 2. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 3. Process period-end accruals. > 4. Close the purchasing period. > 5. Run the Accrual Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 6. Write-off accrued transactions as necessary. > 7. Create a manual journal entry for write-offs.

64.

What are the prerequisites for performing an accurate ABC Compile for inventory items using the Current on-hand value as the compile criterion?

a)

Items costed only

b)

Items with on-hand quantity only

c)

Either items with on-hand quantity or items costed

d)

Both items with on-hand quantity and items costed

65.

You are creating an interorganization transfer. The standard shipping lead time defined for the transfer is 14 days. You want to move the inventory from the source and put it in Intransit. You made a mistake and did not choose the option to have Intransit Inventory. When you initiate the process for interorganization transfer, what is the result of the transaction?

a)

You would get an error for the transaction, because it violates referential integrity.

b)

The inventory would not be moved from the source organization, because there is a lead time of 14 days defined.

c)

The inventory would be moved from the source organization, but it would be moved directly to the destination organization.

d)

The inventory would be moved from the source organization, but it would be moved to Intransit Inventory, because there is a lead time of 14 days defined.

66.

The warehouse has received new stock from an internal distribution warehouse. Which two receiving transactions can be used to put stock into the warehouse's inventory using the Intransit Inventory? (Choose two.)

a)

Direct Receipt

b)

Standard Receipt and Delivery

c)

Inter organization Direct Receipt

d)

Inter organization Receipt and Delivery

e)

Inter organization Miscellaneous Receipt

67.

ACME is implementing Inventory in a Process Manufacturing environment. The default profile for the Min-Max Planning Report is deployed. What will be the result?

a)

Requisitions will be preapproved.

b)

Users must approve requisitions for items that have a limited shelf life.

c)

Users must approve requisitions for items with a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).

d)

Users must approve requisitions that are inside the items Past Due Supply time fence.

e)

Users must approve requisitions when the quantity exceeds the item's Economic Order Quantity (EOQ).

68.

Company XYZ manufactures three different types of PC monitors. Type 1 is a unique requirement for the local college called Northern College. Shipments of Type 1 to other customers are not allowed. This item is stored only in a subinventory called MODEL 1. Other models are also stored in this same subinventory. The other two types (Type 2 and Type 3) can be shipped to any other customer, including Northern College. Which conditions are mandatory for the Picking rule (rule) to meet these requirements?

a)

Transaction type of Sales Order. Rule assigned to Northern College.

b)

Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to customer Northern College.

c)

Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to Type 1, and customer as Northern College.

d)

Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to Type 1, and transaction type as Sales Order.

e)

Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to Type 1, transaction type as Sales Order, and customer Northern College.

69.

Your customer has two manufacturing plants. The manufacturing process for both the plants is identical, but there are differences in specific areas.

 

1.     Plant 1 uses min-max planning and Plant 2 uses re-order point planning.

2.     Plant 1 and Plant 2's Variable Lead Times are different.

3.     Plant 1 and Plant 2 use two different WIP (Work In Process) supply subinventories.

 

Which two attribute control settings meet the requirement? (Choose two.)

a)

Organization Level: WIP Supply Subinventory

b)

Master Level: Stockable, Transactable, Build in WIPOrganization Level: Inventory Planning Method

c)

Organization Level: Variable Lead Time, WIP Supply Subinventory

d)

Master Level: Stockable, Variable Lead Time, Inventory Planning Method Organization Level: Transactable

e)

Master Level: WIP Supply Subinventory, Variable Lead Time, Stockable, Transactable, Build in WIP

70.

Company ABC has a factory that is set up as an inventory organization with several subinventories. Each of the subinventories has locators. The factory purchases material using a purchase order. The person who receives the purchase order does not know which subinventory and locator the material needs to go to. ABC wants the subinventory and locator to be automatically populated for that item. Which option would solve the problem?

a)

Populate the completion subinventory and locator on the routing for that item.

b)

Use the restrict subinventory and restrict locator flag on the Item Master record of that item.

c)

Populate the supply subinventory and locator fields on the Item Master record for the purchased item.

d)

Use the Item Transactions Default form to create default subinventory and locators for the purchased item.

71.

Which two statements are true about setting up an Approved Supplier List? (Choose two.)

a)

An Approved Supplier List is used only for items and not for services.

b)

A Global Agreement cannot be set up as a source document for a requisition.

c)

A blanket purchase agreement cannot be set up as a source for an item in a purchase order line.

d)

You can get the price breaks to default to a requisition from a quotation or a blanket purchase agreement.

e)

You do not need to set the profile option PO: Automatic Document Sourcing to Yes, in order to get the source document information for a service (as opposed to an inventory item).

72.

You are working on an implementation of Oracle Purchasing at a financial institution. The client has strategically sourced a firm for all its desktop needs. Volume discounts apply. The client has standardized pricing requirements for specific brands of equipment and peripherals. Which two types of procurement documents would you suggest? (Choose two.)

a)

Global Agreement

b)

Contract Agreement

c)

Planned Purchase Order

d)

Standard Purchase Order

e)

Blanket Purchase Agreement

73.

Identify the purpose of using Material Status controls.

a)

To permit updates to the Item Master record

b)

To prevent unnecessary cycle counting in an inventory organization

c)

To define the transactions that are permitted for an inventory organization

d)

To select the transactions that are permitted to use the inventory on-hand quantity

74.

Your client wants to ensure that backflush operations can continue even if the inventory level is driven below zero. At the same time, they want typical inventory transactions to be prevented from driving inventory levels below zero. Which configuration meets this requirement?

a)

Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV:Override Neg for Backflush = No.

b)

Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV:Override Neg for Backflush = Yes.

c)

Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV:Override Neg for Backflush = No.

d)

Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV:Override Neg for Backflush = Yes.

75.

Identify three valid processes or steps in implementing approved supplier lists and sourcing rules. (Choose three.)

a)

Review the timeliness of supplier deliveries.

b)

Map business requirements for reports using standard Oracle reports.

c)

Define the item attribute "Use Approved Supplier" for relevant items in the item master.

d)

Establish sourcing rules while converting source documents from legacy systems into Oracle.

e)

Match the supplier site information for every item on an approved supplier list to the supplier header information on a sourcing rule.

76.

Which two statements are true regarding lot-based unit of measure (UOM) conversions? (Choose two.)

a)

You cannot update existing on-hand balances for lot-based UOM conversions.

b)

You can create lot-specific UOM conversions for on-hand lots or lots with a zero balance.

c)

You cannot create lot-specific UOM conversions for on-hand lots or lots with a zero balance.

d)

During a PO receipt, the lot-based conversion cannot be updated if the lot does not match existing conversion rates.

e)

Updating the on-hand balance on a lot-based UOM conversion requires a cycle count transaction with the lot number provided in the count record.

77.

How can you create reservations for the material based on scheduled demand for a Complex Maintenance Repair and Overhaul (CMRO) work order when the material does not exist in the on-hand inventory?

a)

CMRO work orders are not eligible for reservations.

b)

CMRO requires inventory on hand to support reservation.

c)

CMRO creates reservation against a purchase order or any other supply source.

d)

CMRO creates a WIP job to make the material before you can create the reservation.

78.

Identify two statements that are true regarding the defining of your purchasing document approval and routing process. (Choose two.)

a)

Pre-Approved documents do not need to be approved by the next approver.

b)

Oracle Approvals Management is used to configure Purchase Order approval workflows.

c)

When a requisition is approved, the corresponding purchase order does not need to be approved.

d)

It is possible to have different approval routing processes for Purchase Requisitions and Internal Requisitions.

e)

A planned purchase order and its corresponding planned (scheduled) release can have separate approval limits.

79.

A supplier is not required on a                  .

a)

Invoice

b)

Receipt

c)

Quotation

d)

Requisition

e)

Purchase Order

80.

ACME requires cycle counting variance approval tolerances and the Approval Required option is set to: If out of tolerance. When the actual count falls within tolerance, Inventory                   .

a)

Automatically approves and posts the cycle count adjustment

b)

Automatically approves, but does not post the cycle count adjustment

c)

Holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and posts it after approval

d)

Holds the cycle count adjustment for a recount and does not post the adjustment

81.

Identify two situations in which item information on a requisition CANNOT be sourced from the Approved Supplier List. (Choose two).

a)

The supplier status is New.

b)

The Approved Supplier List is disabled at the line level.

c)

The Use Approved Supplier flag is unchecked for the item.

d)

The supplier is active but the supplier site is made temporarily inactive.

e)

The supplier status is set to Debarred, but the business rule Sourcing is set to Allow.

82.

A multinational company operates in three countries, with one operating unit (OU) in each. Each OU is linked to one inventory organization. One of the inventory organizations is a manufacturing plant. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two).

a)

A location is a legal address, it cannot be a Ship-To site for more than one country.

b)

A location is unique to a specific OU responsibility when the Global check box is selected.

c)

When a location is flagged as local, you must assign the local inventory organization to it.

d)

The Ship-To location and Ship-To site for the same inventory location can be in different countries.

e)

You cannot set a default receiving location in the Receiving Options for each inventory organization.

83.

Which three statements are true regarding Inventory replenishment methods? (Choose three.)

a)

Min-max planning considers order cost.

b)

Min-max planning considers carrying cost.

c)

Reorder point planning considers order cost.

d)

Reorder point planning considers replenishment lead time.

e)

Min-max planning can be performed at the subinventory level.

84.

The on-hand quantity balance for item A is 100 and item B is 200. A shipment of 50 for item A and 50 for item B arrived today. The receiving clerk created a receipt for the shipment. After the receipt, the on-hand quantity of items A and B are 150 and 200 respectively. Which one of the possible receipt routing options for items A and B is correct?

a)

Item A = Direct Delivery; Item B = Standard Receipt

b)

Item A = Standard Receipt; Item B = Direct Delivery

c)

Item A = Inspection Required; Item B = Direct Delivery

d)

Item A = Inspection Required; Item B = Standard Receipt

e)

Item A = Standard Receipt; Item B = Inspection Required

85.

A parts distributor has a facility that includes several buildings that are used as warehouses. All the warehouses together represent one subinventory in an inventory organization. Each building is multistoried, and each floor (story) has several rooms within each building that are unique to that building. All rooms are used to store material, and the distributor needs the ability to store material and pick material from these rooms. What is the optimum number of segments that you would recommend for the Stock Locator flexfield?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

86.

Which three statements are true about the Move Order process? (Choose three.)

a)

Requisition and pick release orders are preapproved.

b)

Replenishment and pick wave move orders are preapproved.

c)

Requisition and pick release orders are preapproved and require inspection.

d)

If no planner is specified for the item, the requisition line is automatically approved.

e)

If no approvals are required in your organization, set the inventory organization parameters Timeout Period to 0 and the Timeout Action to Approve Automatically.

87.

You want Oracle Inventory to automatically create move orders while performing min-max planning. To enable that functionality, you would need to define the    .

a)

Subinventory supply source type at the pull level

b)

Move Order Timeout Action to a value greater than zero

c)

Move Order Timeout Period to a value greater than zero

d)

Subinventory supply source type at the subinventory or item level

88.

Your customer is planning to close the accounting period in Inventory. Before closing the period, the customer would like to view the total number of pending transactions in one form. Which form would provide this information? Pending Status

a)

View Material Transactions

b)

Find Pending Transactions

c)

Transaction Open Interface

d)

Inventory Accounting Period

89.

Which profile option controls whether a flexfield window automatically opens when you navigate to a customized descriptive flexfield?

a)

Flexfields: Shorthand Entry

b)

Flexfields: Open Key Window

c)

Flexfields: Open List of Values

d)

Flexfields: Open Descr Window

e)

Flexfields: Open Description Field

90.

The Purchasing Document Open Interface is used to import purchasing documents from sources outside of Oracle Purchasing. Select the answer that contains all the correct document types or functions that can be interfaced into Oracle through the Purchasing Document Open Interface.

a)

Requisitions, Receipts, Custom Pricing, Contract Agreements, Standard Purchase Orders.

b)

Standard Purchase Orders, Purchase Order Changes, Cancel Purchase Order, Requisitions, Receipts.

c)

Contract Agreements, Standard Purchase Orders, Price sales catalog information,Purchase Order Changes.

d)

Standard Purchase Orders, Purchase Order Changes, Contract Agreements, Blanket Purchase Agreements, Planned Purchase Orders.

e)

Price sales catalog information, Responses to requests for quotations (RFQs) in the form of blanket purchase agreement lines, or catalog quotations, Standard Purchase Orders, Planned Purchase Orders.

91.

Revision control is set at the organization level. Both Colorado and New York sites have item A under revision control. Item A was shipped from the Colorado site to the New York site on Internal Order using Revision B. Since that time, revision control at the Colorado site has been changed to a numeric value and the current revision is 3. Now, New York is returning item A on an Internal Order with Revision B. What would happen when Colorado attempts to receive this unit?

a)

Colorado would have to temporarily change revision control to allow receipt.

b)

The transaction can be processed as normal. Old revisions that were issued are still valid.

c)

Receipt can be transacted, but the new revision number would have to be assigned upon receipt.

d)

New York would have to change revision control to match Colorado for transaction to be successful.

e)

The receipt cannot be transacted without DBA intervention. After the revision is changed, you cannot use a previous version.

92.

Consider the following scenario:

 

1) Receipt Days Early = 5; Receipt Days Late = 10; Receipt Days Exceed-Action = Reject

2) Over Receipt Tolerance (%) = 5; Over Receipt Action = Reject

3) Receipt Close Point = Received; Receipt Close Percent = 5%

 

A shipment of 100 for item A was scheduled to be delivered on Oct-15-2007. Which receipt transaction(s) can occur?

a)

A receipt of 95 for item A is created on Oct-09-2007.

b)

A receipt of 90 for item A is created on Oct-27-2007.

c)

A receipt of 108 for item A is created on Oct-16-2007.

d)

A receipt of 60 for item A is created on Oct-12-2007. Another receipt of 65 for itemA is created on Oct-17-2007.

e)

A receipt of 70 for item A is created on Oct-12-2007. Another receipt of 28 for itemA is created on Oct-17-2007.

93.

If you have Purchasing as the only installed application, in which two tabs in the Financial Options window are you required to enter information? (Choose two.)

a)

Tax

b)

Accounting

c)

Encumbrance

d)

Human Resources

e)

Supplier-Purchasing

94.

Two Customer Service Representatives each book a sales order for an item that is revision and lot controlled. There are no other open, active sales orders for this item. Each Customer Service Representative pick releases their order to the same warehouse independently. The Pick Release Rule used by both includes Auto Allocation. On the resulting Move Orders, Inventory has allocated all the requested quantity for one of the sales orders, but only half the requested quantity on the second sales order was available to be allocated. Using the Transact Move Orders form, which action sequence can the warehouse person use to reduce the allocation on the first Move Order so that both customer orders can be equally satisfied?

a)

1. View/Update Allocations;2. Change the allocated Revision and Quantity values, as appropriate.

b)

1. View/Update Allocations;2. Change the allocated Revision and Quantity values;3. Change the allocated Lot and Quantity values, as appropriate.

c)

1. View/Update Allocations;2. Change the allocated Lot and Quantity values, as appropriate;3. Select the appropriate Missing Quantity Action.

d)

1. View/Update Allocations;2. Change the allocated Revision and Quantity values, as appropriate;3. Change the Destination Subinventory.

95.

At BBC Inc., you are implementing Oracle Work in Process, Oracle Advanced Supply Chain Planning, Oracle Bill Of Materials, Oracle Inventory, and Oracle Engineering. When creating requisitions, which two modules do NOT feed data into Oracle Purchasing? (Choose two.)

a)

Oracle Inventory

b)

Oracle Engineering

c)

Oracle Bill Of Materials

d)

Oracle Work in Process

e)

Oracle Advanced Supply Chain Planning

96.

Your client requires Org A to supply Org B with inventory on a need basis. The Internal Order flag is checked. An internal requisition has been created and approved. What type of receipt would Org B have to perform to receive the goods?

a)

RMA receipt

b)

Inter-Org Transfer

c)

Account Alias receipt

d)

Purchase Order receipt

e)

Receipt by Shipment Number

97.

Your customer completes four production orders on a daily basis. One of the production orders has quality problems on some finished-good items. The requirements for this situation are:

 

i) Isolate the defective material from the regular production order output.

ii) The system should prevent this material from being included in external customer order shipments.

 

What setup or process can achieve these objectives?

a)

Enable lot control for the item. Store the lot in an isolated subinventory.

b)

Define the lot number as a rejected lot. Store this lot in an isolated subinventory.

c)

Create a reject locator. Move the items to this locator that prevents customer shipment.

d)

Enable lot control for the item. Assign material status that disallows shipping transactions.

e)

Enable serial control for the item. Store the serial control item in a separate subinventory that prevents customer shipment.

98.

The materials manager has noticed that several items were created and assigned to various inventory organizations, but the analyst skipped the Copy from Template step. The manager would like to know how to correct the items. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

a)

Apply the template in the organization item. It would automatically update the Master Item window.

b)

You can use the Item Attribute Copy form to update the value of an item attribute across multiple organizations in a given organization hierarchy.

c)

You can change an organization-level attribute with the Master Item window. If you do this, it will update the organization-level attribute across all organizations.

d)

You can use the Organization Item window to update organization-level itemattributes. This would update organization-level attributes in your current organization only.

e)

To update master-level attributes, use the Master Item window. If an attribute is controlled at the master level, the value of the attribute applies for all organizations to which the item is assigned.

99.

The client has decided that Quality and Discrete Manufacturing will be implemented at a future stage, so new supply from current manufacturing will be added to current inventory on hand by the Open Transactions Interface. The immediate requirement is to go-live with Inventory and Order Management. Which three seeded transaction types can be omitted for material status control? (Choose three.)

a)

average cost update

b)

backflush subinventory transfer

c)

miscellaneous issues and receipts

d)

all transaction types related to Work in Process

e)

all transaction types related to Project Manufacturing

100.

Which four are true about the Future Periods field in the Financials Options window? (Choose four.)

a)

You can change this number to the maximum number of future periods you want to allow in Payables.

b)

You can import/enter invoices in future periods but you cannot pay or create accounting entries for them.

c)

The first time you enter this field, Payables defaults the number of future periods you use in your Ledger as a default.

d)

Payables uses this value to limit the number of future periods you can maintain in the Control Payables Periods window.

e)

After you change the status of a future period to Open, you can change it back to Future only if you did not create any transactions in that period.