wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

MCN LEC

Total questions: 184

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement/s is/are correct?

Statement 1: The nurse must always wait, depend and follow the doctor's order in every step.

Statement 2: The nurse should always prevent disease and promote health for the patient and for the next generation.

a)

Statement 1 is correct

b)

Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

c)

Statement 2 is correct

d)

Statement 1 and 2 are correct

2.

The nurse continuously researches on the alternative and more effective way of delivering the baby. This is an example of which of the following philosophy?

a)

Family-centered

b)

Community centered

c)

Evidence-based practice

d)

None of the above

3.

Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following?

a)

Diagnostic signs

b)

Presumptive signs

c)

Probable signs

d)

Positive signs

4.

The nurse is counseling a couple who has sought information about conceiving. The couple asks the nurse to explain when ovulation usually occurs. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

a)

Two weeks before menstruation.

b)

Immediately after menstruation.

c)

Immediately before menstruation.

d)

Three weeks before menstruation.

5.

The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated blow breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take?

a)

Administer oxygen by face mask.

b)

Notify the health care provider of the client's symptoms.

c)

Have the client breathe into her cupped hands.

d)

Check the client's blood pressure and fetal heart rate.

6.

When assessing a client at 12 weeks of gestation, the nurse recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the couple to attend these classes?

a)

At 16 weeks of gestation.

b)

At 20 weeks of gestation.

c)

At 24 weeks of gestation.

d)

At 30 weeks of gestation.

7.

Which statement made by the client indicates that the mother understands the limitations of breastfeeding her newborn?

a)

"Breastfeeding my infant consistently every 3 to 4 hours stops ovulation and my period."

b)

"Breastfeeding my baby immediately after drinking alcohol is safer than waiting for the alcohol to clear my breast milk."

c)

"I can start smoking cigarettes while breastfeeding because it will not affect my breast milk."

d)

"When I take a warm shower after I breastfeed, it relieves the pain from being engorged between breastfeedings."

8.

When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?

a)

Sperm count

b)

Sperm motility

c)

Sperm maturity

d)

Semen volume

9.

A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during the last 2 years has undergone many diagnostic procedures. When discussing the situation with the nurse, one partner states, “We know several friends in our age group, and all of them have their own child already, Why can’t we have one?”. Which of the following would be the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this couple?

a)

Fear related to the unknown.

b)

Pain related to numerous procedures.

c)

Ineffective family coping related to infertility.

d)

Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.

10.

Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester?

a)

Dysuria

b)

Frequency

c)

Incontinence

d)

Burning

11.

Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following?

a)

Increased plasma HCG levels

b)

Decreased intestinal motility

c)

Decreased gastric acidity

d)

Elevated estrogen levels

12.

In which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?

a)

Breast, areola, and nipples

b)

Chest, neck, arms, and legs

c)

Abdomen, breast, and thighs

d)

Cheeks, forehead, and nose

13.

A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following is the cause?

a)

The large size of the newborn.

b)

Pressure on the pelvic muscles.

c)

Relaxation of the pelvic joints.

d)

Excessive weight gain.

14.

Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy?

a)

12 to 22 lb

b)

15 to 25 lb

c)

24 to 30 lb

d)

25 to 40 lb

15.

Softening of the lower uterine segment; Piskacek sign, which is an enlargement and softening of the uterus; serum laboratory tests; changes in skin pigmentation; and ultrasonic evidence of a gestational sac.

a)

Hegar sign

b)

Goodell sign

16.

Cervical softening and uterine soufflé are two probable signs of pregnancy. Probable signs are objective findings that strongly suggest pregnancy.

a)

Goodell sign

b)

Hegar sign

17.

Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

a)

Hegar sign

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Skin pigmentation changes

d)

Positive serum pregnancy test

18.

signs of pregnancy that are subjective signs.

a)

Presumptive signs

b)

Probable sign

19.

Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first trimester?

a)

Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism.

b)

Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness.

c)

Anxiety, passivity, extroversion.

d)

Ambivalence, fear, fantasies.

20.

Common emotional reactions during this trimester include narcissism, passivity, or introversion. At times the woman may seem egocentric and self-centered.

a)

second trimester

b)

third trimester

21.

the woman typically feels awkward, clumsy, and unattractive, often becoming more introverted or reflective of her own childhood.

a)

first trimester

b)

second trimester

c)

third trimester

22.

During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?

a)

Prepregnant period

b)

First trimester

c)

Second trimester

d)

Third trimester

23.

focus on things the woman can do before and between pregnancies to increase the chances of having a healthy baby. For some women, getting their body ready for pregnancy takes a few months. For other women, it might take longer. Before getting pregnant, the woman should talk to her physician about preconception health care. The physician will want to discuss health history and any medical conditions the woman currently has that could affect a pregnancy. He or she also will discuss any previous pregnancy problems, medicines that the woman is currently taking, vaccinations that she might need, and steps she can take before pregnancy to prevent certain birth defects.

a)

Prepregnant period

b)

First trimester

c)

Second trimester

d)

Third trimester

24.

A good time to start a regular, pregnancy-friendly workout. It is a wonderful way to bond with and get support from other moms-to-be. This is also the time when screening tests or amniocentesis will be offered, as well as other chromosomal abnormalities, genetic disorders, and neural tube defects.

a)

Prepregnant period

b)

First trimester

c)

Second trimester

d)

Third trimester

25.

Focus on preparation for birth, parenting, and newborn care.

a)

Prepregnant period

b)

First trimester

c)

Second trimester

d)

Third trimester

26.

Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test?

a)

The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion.

b)

The test was performed too early or too late in the pregnancy.

c)

The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature.

d)

A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending.

27.

FHR/Fetal heart rate can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?

a)

5 weeks gestation

b)

10 weeks gestation

c)

15 weeks gestation

d)

20 weeks gestation

28.

A client LMP began July 5, 2020. Her estimated date of delivery (EDD) should be which of the following?

a)

January 2, 2021

b)

March 28, 2021

c)

April 12, 2021

d)

October 12, 2020

29.

Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?

a)

Uterus in the pelvis

b)

Uterus at the xiphoid

c)

Uterus in the abdomen

d)

Uterus at the umbilicus

30.

When the fundal height is at the level of the xiphoid, the woman is already at ____ weeks gestation.

a)

40

b)

16

c)

12

31.

When the fundal height is at the level of the umbilicus, the woman is approximately ____weeks gestation.

a)

40

b)

20

c)

16

d)

12

32.

Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly during the antepartum period?

a)

Constipation

b)

Breast tenderness

c)

Nasal stuffiness

d)

Leaking amniotic fluid

33.

With symptoms such as pain or discomfort, straining, and hard stool, is a common condition affecting mothers. Hemorrhoids, pain at the episiotomy site, effects of pregnancy hormones, and haematinics used in pregnancy can increase the risk of postpartum constipation. Eating a high-fiber diet and increasing fluid intake is usually encouraged, although laxatives are commonly used in relieving constipation.

a)

Postpartum constipation

b)

Pregnancy rhinitis

34.

an inflammation of the mucous membranes lining the nose. This causes nasal congestion. Increased blood flow to the nasal passages and enlargement of the nasal veins also play a role.

a)

Postpartum constipation

b)

Pregnancy rhinitis

35.

Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor?

a)

Occurring at irregular intervals.

b)

Starting mainly in the abdomen.

c)

Gradually increasing intervals.

d)

Increasing intensity with walking.

36.

During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning” or when the newborn’s head or presenting part appears at the vaginal opening?

a)

First stage

b)

Second stage

c)

Third stage

d)

Fourth stage

37.

Cervical dilation and effacement occur. Effacement means that the cervix stretches and gets thinner. Dilatation means that the cervix opens. As labor nears, the cervix may start to thin or stretch (efface) and open (dilate). This prepares the cervix for the baby to pass through the birth canal (vagina).

a)

First stage of labor

b)

Second stage of labor

c)

Third stage of labor

d)

Fourth stage of labor

38.

The newborn and placenta are delivered. This stage is often called delivery of the “afterbirth” and is the shortest stage of labor. It may last from a few minutes to 20 minutes.

a)

First stage of labor

b)

Second stage of labor

c)

Third stage of labor

d)

Fourth stage of labor

39.

Lasts from 1 to 4 hours after birth, during which time the mother and newborn recover from the physical process of birth and the mother’s organs undergo the initial readjustment to the nonpregnant state.

a)

First stage of labor

b)

Second stage of labor

c)

Third stage of labor

d)

Fourth stage of labor

40.

Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform during the third stage of labor?

a)

Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests.

b)

Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.

c)

Coach for effective client pushing.

d)

Promote parent-newborn interaction.

41.

Collecting a urine specimen and other laboratory tests is done on admission

a)

first stage of labor

b)

second stage of labor

c)

third stage of labor

d)

fourth stage of labor

42.

Assessing uterine contractions every 30 minutes is performed during the latent phase of?

a)

first stage of labor

b)

second stage of labor

c)

third stage of labor

d)

fourth stage of labor

43.

Coaching the client to push effectively is appropriate during the?

a)

first stage of labor

b)

second stage of labor

c)

third stage of labor

d)

fourth stage of labor

44.

When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the following ranges would be considered normal if the newborn were sleeping?

a)

80 beats per minute

b)

100 beats per minute

c)

120 beats per minute

d)

140 beats per minute

45.

If the newborn was awake, the normal heart rate would range from?

a)

120 to 160 beats per minute

b)

60 to 100 beats per minute

c)

12 to 20 beats per minute

d)

80 to 100 beats per minute

46.

Newborns 0 to 1 month old has a normal range of?

a)

70 to 190 beats per minute

b)

120 to 160 beats per minute.

c)

60 to 100 beats per minute

47.

For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse informs the client about the need to take the pill at the same time each day to accomplish which of the following?

a)

Decrease the incidence of nausea.

b)

Maintain hormonal levels.

c)

Reduce side effects.

d)

Prevent drug interactions.

48.

When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the following would the nurse include as the most effective method for preventing sexually transmitted infections?

a)

Spermicides

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Condoms

d)

Vasectomy

49.

When preparing a woman who is 2 days postpartum for discharge, recommendations for which of the following contraceptive methods would be avoided?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Female condom

c)

Oral contraceptives

d)

Rhythm method

50.

May be started within the first postpartum week to ensure suppression of ovulation.

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Female condom

c)

Oral contraceptives

d)

Rhythm method

51.

Protects the reproductive system from the introduction of semen or spermicides into the vagina and may be used after childbirth.

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Female condom

c)

Oral contraceptives

d)

Rhythm method

52.

It must be fitted individually to ensure effectiveness. Because of the changes to the reproductive structures during pregnancy and following delivery, the diaphragm must be refitted, usually at the 6 weeks’ examination following childbirth or after a weight loss of 15 lbs or more. In addition, for maximum effectiveness, the spermicidal jelly should be placed in the dome and around the rim. However, the spermicidal jelly should not be inserted into the vagina until involution is completed at approximately 6 weeks.

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Female condom

c)

Oral contraceptives

d)

Rhythm method

53.

For which of the following clients would the nurse expect that an intrauterine device would not be recommended?

a)

Woman over age 35

b)

Nulliparous woman

c)

Promiscuous young adult

d)

Postpartum client

54.

May increase the risk of pelvic inflammatory disease, especially in women with more than one sexual partner, because of the increased risk of sexually transmitted infections. It should not be used if the woman has an active or chronic pelvic infection, postpartum infection, endometrial hyperplasia or carcinoma, or uterine abnormalities.

a)

intrauterine device

b)

oral contraceptives

55.

A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, “I’m constipated all the time!” Which of the following should the nurse recommend?

a)

Daily enemas

b)

Laxatives

c)

Increased fiber intake

d)

Decreased fluid intake

56.

During this trimester, the enlarging uterus places pressure on the intestines. This coupled with the effect of hormones on smooth muscle relaxation causes decreased intestinal motility (peristalsis). Increasing fiber in the diet will help fecal matter pass more quickly through the intestinal tract, thus decreasing the amount of water that is absorbed. As a result, the stool is softer and easier to pass.

a)

first trimester

b)

second trimester

c)

third trimester

d)

fourth trimester

57.

Which of the following would the nurse use as the basis for the teaching plan when caring for a pregnant teenager concerned about gaining too much weight during pregnancy?

a)

10 pounds per trimester

b)

1 pound per week for 40 weeks

c)

½ pound per week for 40 weeks

d)

A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds

58.

The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on January 14 and ended on January 20. Using Nagele’s rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of the following?

a)

September 27

b)

October 21

c)

November 7

d)

December 27

59.

When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, “I had a son born at 38 weeks gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks,” the nurse should record her obstetrical history as which of the following?

a)

G2 T2 P0 A0 L2

b)

G3 T1 P1 A0 L2

c)

G3 T2 P0 A0 L2

d)

G4 T1 P1 A1 L2

60.

When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks’ gestation, the nurse would use which of the following?

a)

Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus.

b)

Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region.

c)

Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process.

d)

External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus.

61.

Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that she has sore nipples?

a)

Tell her to breastfeed more frequently.

b)

Administer a narcotic before breastfeeding.

c)

Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere.

d)

Use soap and water to clean the nipples.

62.

Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current early postpartum discharge?

a)

Promoting comfort and restoration of health.

b)

Exploring the emotional status of the family.

c)

Facilitating safe and effective self and newborn care.

d)

Teaching about the importance of family planning.

63.

A client at 36 weeks gestation is scheduled for a routine ultrasound prior to amniocentesis. After teaching the client about the purpose of the ultrasound, which of the following client statements would indicate to the nurse in charge that the client needs further instruction?

a)

The ultrasound will help to locate the placenta.

b)

The ultrasound identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord.

c)

The test will determine where to insert the needle.

d)

The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic fluid.

64.

The ultrasound identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord.

Before amniocentesis, a routine ultrasound is valuable in locating the placenta, locating a pool of amniotic fluid, and showing the physician where to insert the needle. Color Doppler imaging ultrasonography identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord. A routine ultrasound does not accomplish this.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

65.

As early as ____ weeks, the placenta can be detected by an ultrasound. The normal placenta is discoid with uniform echogenicity and rounded margins. It is usually located along the anterior or posterior uterine walls, extending into the lateral walls.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

66.

During a prenatal visit at 4 months gestation, a pregnant client asks whether tests can be done to identify fetal abnormalities. Between 18 and 40 weeks gestation, which procedure is used to detect fetal anomalies?

a)

Amniocentesis

b)

Chorionic villi sampling

c)

Fetoscopy

d)

Ultrasound

67.

It is used between 18 and 40 weeks’ gestation to identify normal fetal growth and detect fetal anomalies and other problems.

a)

Amniocentesis

b)

Chorionic villi sampling

c)

Fetoscopy

d)

Ultrasound

68.

It is done during the third trimester to determine fetal lung maturity.

a)

Amniocentesis

b)

Chorionic villi sampling

c)

Chorionic villi sampling

d)

Ultrasound

69.

It is performed at 8 to 12 weeks’ gestation to detect genetic disease.

a)

Amniocentesis

b)

Chorionic villi sampling

c)

Fetoscopy

d)

Ultrasound

70.

It is done at approximately 18 weeks’ gestation to observe the fetus directly and obtain a skin or blood sample.

a)

Amniocentesis

b)

Chorionic villi sampling

c)

Fetoscopy

d)

Ultrasound

71.

An adult female patient is using the rhythm (calendar-basal body temperature) method of family planning. In this method, the unsafe period for sexual intercourse is indicated by:

a)

Return preovulatory basal body temperature.

b)

Basal body temperature increase of 0.1 degrees to 0.2 degrees on the 2nd or 3rd day of cycle.

c)

3 full days of elevated basal body temperature and clear, thin cervical mucus.

d)

Breast tenderness and mittelschmerz.

72.

Ovulation (the period when pregnancy can occur) is accompanied by a basal body temperature increase of 0.7 degrees F to 0.8 degrees F and clear, thin cervical mucus.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

73.

A patient is in her last trimester of pregnancy. Nurse Vickie should instruct her to notify her primary health care provider immediately if she notices:

a)

Blurred vision

b)

Hemorrhoids

c)

Increased vaginal mucus

d)

Shortness of breath on exertion

74.

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant. The nurse should tell the patient that she can expect to feel the fetus move at which time?

a)

Between 10 and 12 weeks’ gestation

b)

Between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation.

c)

Between 21 and 23 weeks’ gestation.

d)

Between 24 and 26 weeks’ gestation.

75.

the fetus continues to gain weight steadily, the lungs start to produce surfactant, the brain is grossly formed, and myelination of the spinal cord begins.

a)

Before 16 weeks

b)

After 20 weeks

c)

After 24 weeks

76.

the fetus might be able to respond to familiar sounds such as its mother’s voice, with movement. It is spending most of its sleep time in rapid eye movement (REM).

a)

Before 16 weeks

b)

After 20 weeks

c)

After 24 weeks

77.

The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the telephone about umbilical cord care. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching?

a)

“Daily soap and water cleansing is best.”

b)

“Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs.”

c)

“An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents infection.”

d)

“He can have a tub bath each day.”

78.

When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the correct method of measurement used by the nurse?

a)

From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus.

b)

From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process.

c)

From the symphysis pubis to the fundus.

d)

From the fundus to the umbilicus.

79.

The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s prenatal record. The nurse understands that this indicates which of the following?

a)

Palpable contractions on the abdomen.

b)

Passive movement of the unengaged fetus.

c)

Fetal kicking felt by the client.

d)

Enlargement and softening of the uterus.

80.

Fetal kicking felt by the client represents quickening. Usually, quickening occurs naturally at about the middle of a pregnancy. A woman pregnant for the first time (i.e., a primigravida woman) typically feels fetal movements at about 18–20 weeks, whereas a woman who has given birth at least once (i.e., a para woman) will typically feel movements around 15–17 weeks.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

81.

A woman pregnant for the first time (i.e., a primigravida woman) typically feels fetal movements at about?

a)

18–20 weeks

b)

12–20 weeks

c)

18–24 weeks

82.

A woman who has given birth at least once (i.e., a para woman) will typically feel movements around?

a)

15–17 weeks

b)

18–20 weeks

c)

12–20 weeks

83.

During a pelvic exam, the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of the cervix. The nurse documents this as which of the following?

a)

Braxton-Hicks sign

b)

Chadwick’s sign

c)

Goodell’s sign

d)

McDonald’s sign

84.

A bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia resulting from increased blood flow. It can be observed as early as 6 to 8 weeks after conception, and its presence is an early sign of pregnancy.

a)

Braxton-Hicks sign

b)

Chadwick’s sign

c)

Goodell’s sign

d)

McDonald’s sign

85.

Painless contractions beginning around the 4th month. Contractions are sporadic contractions and relaxation of the uterine muscle. Sometimes, they are referred to as prodromal or “false labor” pains. It is believed they start around 6 weeks gestation but usually are not felt until the second or third trimester of the pregnancy. It is the body’s way of preparing for true labor, but they do not indicate that labor has begun or is going to start.

a)

Braxton-Hicks sign

b)

Chadwick’s sign

c)

Goodell’s sign

d)

McDonald’s sign

86.

It is an indication of pregnancy. It is a significant softening of the vaginal portion of the cervix from increased vascularization. This vascularization is a result of hypertrophy and engorgement of the vessels below the growing uterus. This sign occurs at approximately four weeks’ gestation.

a)

Braxton-Hicks sign

b)

Chadwick’s sign

c)

Goodell’s sign

d)

McDonald’s sign

87.

Flexibility of the uterus against the cervix is known as?

a)

Braxton-Hicks sign

b)

Chadwick’s sign

c)

Goodell’s sign

d)

McDonald’s sign

88.

The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the following positions with a face presentation?

a)

Completely flexed

b)

Completely extended

c)

Partially extended

d)

Partially flexed

89.

With a vertex presentation, the head is?

a)

Completely flexed

b)

Completely extended

c)

Partially extended

d)

Partially flexed

90.

With a brow (forehead) presentation, the head would be?

a)

Completely flexed

b)

Completely extended

c)

Partially extended

d)

Partially flexed

91.

Head is categorized as a sinciput presentation.

a)

Completely flexed

b)

Completely extended

c)

Partially extended

d)

Partially flexed

92.

With a fetus in the left anterior breech presentation, the nurse would expect the fetal heart rate would be most audible in which of the following areas?

a)

Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of midline.

b)

In the lower-left maternal abdominal quadrant.

c)

In the lower-right maternal abdominal quadrant.

d)

Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of the midline.

93.

The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the result of which of the following?

a)

Lanugo

b)

Hydramnios

c)

Meconium

d)

Vernix

94.

It is the soft, downy hair on the shoulders and back of the fetus. This downy, unpigmented hair is the first type of hair that grows from hair follicles. It can be found everywhere on a baby’s body, except on the palms, lips, and soles of the feet. Most fetuses develop it around the fourth or fifth month of pregnancy.

a)

Lanugo

b)

Hydramnios

c)

Meconium

d)

Vernix

95.

Represents excessive amniotic fluid.

a)

Lanugo

b)

Hydramnios

c)

Meconium

d)

Vernix

96.

The white, cheesy substance covering the fetus. It is produced by dedicated cells and is thought to have some protective roles during fetal development and for a few hours after birth.

a)

Lanugo

b)

Hydramnios

c)

Meconium

d)

Vernix

97.

Which of the following refers to the single cell that reproduces itself after conception?

a)

Chromosome

b)

Blastocyst

c)

Zygote

d)

Trophoblast

98.

When teaching a group of adolescents about variations in the length of the menstrual cycle, the nurse understands that the underlying mechanism is due to variations in which of the following phases?

a)

Menstrual phase

b)

Proliferative phase

c)

Secretory phase

d)

Ischemic phase

99.

Always occurs from day 14 to day 28 of the cycle. Progesterone stimulated by LH is the dominant hormone during this phase to prepare the corpus luteum and the endometrium for possible fertilized ovum implantation

a)

Menstrual phase

b)

Proliferative phase

c)

Secretory phase

d)

Ischemic phase

100.

The final part of the secretory phase. The endometrium becomes pale and arteries constrict due to lower hormone release by the disintegrating corpus luteum.

a)

Menstrual phase

b)

Proliferative phase

c)

Secretory phase

d)

Ischemic phase

101.

When teaching a group of adolescents about male hormone production, which of the following would the nurse include as being produced by the Leydig cells?

a)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

b)

Testosterone

c)

Luteinizing hormone

d)

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

102.

It is made by the pituitary gland, a small gland located underneath the brain. It also plays an important role in sexual development and functioning. In women, it helps control the menstrual cycle and stimulates the growth of eggs in the ovaries.

a)

Follicle-stimulating hormone/FSH

b)

Testosterone

c)

Luteinizing hormone

d)

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

103.

It is produced and released in the anterior pituitary gland. This hormone is considered a gonadotropic hormone because of its role in controlling the function of ovaries in females and testes in males, which are known as the gonads.

a)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

b)

Testosterone

c)

Luteinizing hormone/LH

d)

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

104.

What are the important considerations that the nurse must remember after the placenta is delivered? Select all that apply.

a)

Check if the placenta is complete including the membranes

b)

Check if the cord is long enough for the baby

c)

Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood vessels

d)

Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a shiny portion

105.

The normal umbilical cord is composed of:

a)

2 arteries and 1 vein

b)

2 veins and 1 artery

c)

2 arteries and 2 veins

d)

None of the above

106.

The following are signs that the placenta has detached, except?

a)

Lengthening of the cord

b)

Uterus becomes more globular

c)

Sudden gush of blood

d)

Mother feels like bearing down

107.

When the shiny portion of the placenta comes out first is called which of the following mechanisms?

a)

Marmets

b)

Ritgens

c)

Duncan

d)

Schultze

108.

When the baby’s head is out, the immediate action of the nurse is

a)

Cut the umbilical cord

b)

Wipe the baby’s face and suction mouth first

c)

Check if there is a cord coiled around the neck

d)

Deliver the anterior shoulder

109.

The basic delivery set for normal vaginal delivery includes the following instruments/articles, except?

a)

2 clamps

b)

Pair of scissors

c)

Kidney Basin

d)

Retractor

110.

As soon as the placenta is delivered, the nurse must do which of the following actions?

a)

Inspect the placenta for completeness including the membranes.

b)

Place the placenta in a receptacle for disposal.

c)

Label the placenta properly.

d)

Leave the placenta in the kidney basin for the nursing aide to dispose properly.

111.

The placenta should be delivered normally within how many minutes after the delivery of the baby?

a)

5 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

60 minutes

112.

In a woman who is not breastfeeding, menstruation usually occurs after how many weeks?

a)

2-4 weeks

b)

6-8 weeks

c)

6 months

d)

12 months

113.

The normal respiration of a newborn immediately after birth is characterized as:

a)

Shallow and irregular with short periods of apnea lasting not longer than 15 seconds, 30-60 breaths per minute.

b)

20-40 breaths per minute, abdominal breathing with active use of intercostals muscles.

c)

30-60 breaths per minute with apnea lasting more than 15 seconds, abdominal breathing.

d)

30-50 breaths per minute, active use of abdominal and intercostal muscles.

114.

The minimum birth weight for full-term babies to be considered normal is:

a)

2,000 gms

b)

1,500 gms

c)

2,500 gms

d)

3,000 gms

115.

In basal body temperature (BBT) technique, the sign that ovulation has occurred is an elevation of body temperature by

a)

1.0-1.4 degrees centigrade

b)

0.2-0.4 degrees centigrade

c)

2.0-4.0 degrees centigrade

d)

1.0-4.0 degrees centigrade

116.

Lactation Amenorrhea Method(LAM) can be an effective method of natural birth control if

a)

The mother breastfeeds mainly at night time when ovulation could possibly occur.

b)

The mother breastfeeds exclusively and regularly during the first 6 months without giving supplemental feedings.

c)

The mother uses mixed feeding faithfully.

d)

The mother breastfeeds regularly until 1 year with no supplemental feedings.

117.

The intrauterine device prevents pregnancy by the ffg mechanism, except:

a)

Endometrium inflames.

b)

Fundus contracts to expel uterine contents.

c)

Copper embedded in the IUD can kill the sperms.

d)

Sperms will be barred from entering the fallopian tubes.

118.

Oral contraceptive pills are of different types. Which type is most appropriate for mothers who are breastfeeding?

a)

Estrogen-only

b)

Progesterone only

c)

Mixed type- estrogen and progesterone

d)

21-day pills mixed type

119.

The natural family planning method called Standard Days (SDM), is the latest type and easy to use method. However, it is a method applicable only to women with regular menstrual cycles between how many days?

a)

21-26 days

b)

26-32 days

c)

28-30 days

d)

24- 36 days

120.

Nurse Lesley is conducting health teachings to a group of first-time mothers. Which of the following are signs of ovulation? Select all that apply.

a)

Mittelschmerz

b)

Spinnbarkeit

c)

Thin watery cervical mucus

d)

Elevated body temperature of 4.0 degrees centigrade

121.

The following methods of artificial birth control works as a barrier device, except:

a)

Condom

b)

Cervical cap

c)

Cervical Diaphragm

d)

Intrauterine device (IUD)

122.

It prevents pregnancy by not allowing the fertilized ovum from implanting on the endometrium. Some of this have copper added to it which is spermicidal. It is not a barrier since the sperms can readily pass through and fertilize an ovum at the fallopian tube.

a)

Condom

b)

Cervical cap

c)

Cervical Diaphragm

d)

Intrauterine device (IUD)

123.

The only type of contraception that can both prevent pregnancy and protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). It is a “barrier” method of contraception. They are made of very thin latex (rubber), polyurethane or polyisoprene and are designed to prevent pregnancy by stopping sperm from meeting an egg.

a)

Condom

b)

Cervical cap

c)

Cervical Diaphragm

d)

Intrauterine device (IUD)

124.

It is a birth control (contraceptive) device that prevents sperm from entering the uterus. A reusable, deep silicone cup that is inserted into the vagina and fits tightly over the cervix. It is held in place by suction and has a strap to help with removal. It is effective at preventing pregnancy only when used with spermicide.

a)

Condom

b)

Cervical cap

c)

Cervical Diaphragm

d)

Intrauterine device (IUD)

125.

It is a birth control (contraceptive) device that prevents sperm from entering the uterus. A small, reusable rubber or silicone cup with a flexible rim that covers the cervix. Before sex, it is inserted deep into the vagina so that part of the rim fits snugly behind the pubic bone. It is effective at preventing pregnancy only when used with spermicide.

a)

Condom

b)

Cervical cap

c)

Cervical Diaphragm

d)

Intrauterine device (IUD)

126.

Which of the following is a true statement about normal ovulation?

a)

It occurs on the 14th day of every cycle.

b)

It may occur between 14-16 days before next menstruation.

c)

Every menstrual period is always preceded by ovulation.

d)

The most fertile period of a woman is 2 days after ovulation.

127.

If a couple would like to enhance their fertility, the following means can be done. Select all that apply.

a)

Monitor the basal body temperature of the woman every day to determine peak period of fertility.

b)

Have adequate rest and nutrition

c)

Have sexual contact only during the dry period of the woman

d)

Undergo a complete medical check-up to rule out any debilitating disease

128.

In the sympto-thermal method, the parameters being monitored to determine if the woman is fertile or infertile are:

a)

Temperature, cervical mucus, cervical consistency

b)

Release of ovum, temperature, and vagina

c)

Temperature and wetness

d)

Temperature, endometrial secretion, mucus

129.

The following are important considerations to teach the woman who is on a low dose (mini-pill) oral contraceptive except:

a)

The pill must be taken every day at the same time.

b)

If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she must take 2 pills for added protection.

c)

If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she needs to take another temporary method until she has consumed the whole pack.

d)

If she is breastfeeding, she should discontinue using mini-pill and use the progestin-only type.

130.

Infertility can be attributed to male causes such as the following except:

a)

Cryptorchidism

b)

Orchitis

c)

Sperm count of about 20 million per milliliter

d)

Premature ejaculation

131.

Spinnbarkeit is an indicator of ovulation which is characterized as:

a)

Thin watery mucus which can be stretched into a long strand about 10 cm.

b)

Thick mucus that is detached from the cervix during ovulation.

c)

Thin mucus that is yellowish in color with fishy odor.

d)

Thick mucus vaginal discharge is influenced by high levels of estrogen.

132.

Vasectomy is a procedure done on a male for sterilization. The organ involved in this procedure is

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Seminal vesicle

c)

Testes

d)

Vas deferens

133.

It is a gland about the size of a chestnut and weighs about 30 grams (about 1 ounce). It is part of the male reproductive system and is located inside the body. Its most important function is the production of a fluid that, together with sperm cells from the testicles and fluids from other glands, makes up semen. The muscles of it also ensure that the semen is forcefully pressed into the urethra and then expelled outwards during ejaculation.

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Seminal vesicle

c)

Testes

d)

Vas deferens

134.

A pair of glands that also include the prostate gland and the bulbourethral glands. It is located in the pelvis superior to the rectum, inferior to the fundus of the bladder and posterior to the prostate. It contribute around 70% of the fluid that will eventually become semen. The fluid that they secrete has a number of properties and components that are important for semen function and sperm survival.

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Seminal vesicle

c)

Testes

d)

Vas deferens

135.

Male sex glands that have both an endocrine and exocrine function. Oval-shaped reproductive structures that are found in the scrotum and separated by the scrotal septum. The male reproductive gland that is responsible for producing sperm and making androgens, primarily.

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Seminal vesicle

c)

Testes

d)

Vas deferens

136.

Breast self-examination is best done by the woman on herself every month during

a)

The middle of her cycle to ensure that she is ovulating.

b)

During the menstrual period.

c)

Right after the menstrual period so that the breast is not being affected by the increase in hormones particularly estrogen.

d)

Just before the menstrual period to determine if ovulation has occurred.

137.

A woman is considered to be menopause if she has experienced cessation of her menses for a period of

a)

6 months

b)

12 months

c)

18 months

d)

24 months

138.

A nursing instructor is conducting a lecture and is reviewing the functions of the female reproductive system. She asks the student nurse to describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH). The student nurse accurately responds by stating that:

a)

FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.

b)

FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary

c)

FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands

d)

FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy.

139.

A nurse is describing the process of fetal circulation to a client during a prenatal visit. The nurse accurately tells the client that fetal circulation consists of:

a)

Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery.

b)

Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein.

c)

Arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus.

d)

Veins carrying deoxygenated blood to the fetus.

140.

During a prenatal visit at 38 weeks, a nurse assesses the fetal heart rate. The nurse determines that the fetal heart rate is normal if which of the following is noted?

a)

80 BPM

b)

100 BPM

c)

150 BPM

d)

180 BPM

141.

A client arrives at a prenatal clinic for the first prenatal assessment. The client tells a nurse that the first day of her last menstrual period was September 19th, 2013. Using Naegele’s rule, the nurse determines the estimated date of confinement as:

a)

July 26, 2013

b)

June 12, 2014

c)

June 26, 2014

d)

July 12, 2014

142.

A nurse is collecting data during an admission assessment of a client who is pregnant with twins. The client has a healthy 5-year-old child that was delivered at 37 weeks and tells the nurse that she doesn’t have any history of abortion or fetal demise. The nurse would document the GTPAL for this client as:

a)

G = 3, T = 2, P = 0, A = 0, L =1

b)

G = 2, T = 0, P = 1, A = 0, L =1

c)

G = 1, T = 1. P = 1, A = 0, L = 1

d)

G = 2, T = 0, P = 0, A = 0, L = 1

143.

A nurse is performing an assessment of a primipara who is being evaluated in a clinic during her second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following indicates an abnormal physical finding necessitating further testing?

a)

Consistent increase in fundal height

b)

Fetal heart rate of 180 BPM

c)

Braxton Hicks contractions

d)

Quickening

144.

A nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive. The physician has documented the presence of a Goodell’s sign. The nurse determines this sign indicates:

a)

A softening of the cervix.

b)

A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse during auscultation of the uterus.

c)

The presence of hCG in the urine.

d)

The presence of fetal movement.

145.

A nursing instructor asks a nursing student who is preparing to assist with the assessment of a pregnant client to describe the process of quickening. Which of the following statements if made by the student indicates an understanding of this term?

a)

“It is the irregular, painless contractions that occur throughout pregnancy.”

b)

“It is the soft blowing sound that can be heard when the uterus is auscultated.”

c)

“It is the fetal movement that is felt by the mother.”

d)

“It is the thinning of the lower uterine segment.”

146.

A nurse-midwife is performing an assessment of a pregnant client and is assessing the client for the presence of ballottement. Which of the following would the nurse implement to test for the presence of ballottement?

a)

Auscultating for fetal heart sounds.

b)

Palpating the abdomen for fetal movement.

c)

Assessing the cervix for thinning.

d)

Initiating a gentle upward tap on the cervix.

147.

A nurse is assisting in performing an assessment on a client who suspects that she is pregnant and is checking the client for probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates a probable sign of pregnancy? Select all that apply.

a)

Uterine enlargement and Ballottement

b)

Fetal heart rate detected by nonelectric device

c)

Outline of the fetus via radiography or ultrasound

d)

Chadwick’s sign

e)

Braxton Hicks contractions

148.

Fetal Heart Rate detected by electronic device (Doppler) at 10-12 weeks, While

Fetal Heart rate detected by nonelectronic device (fetoscope) at 20 weeks AOG

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

149.

A pregnant client calls the clinic and tells a nurse that she is experiencing leg cramps and is awakened by the cramps at night. To provide relief from the leg cramps, the nurse tells the client to:

a)

Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur.

b)

Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur.

c)

Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur.

d)

Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur.

150.

A nurse is providing instructions to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy regarding measures to assist in reducing breast tenderness. The nurse tells the client to:

a)

Avoid wearing a bra.

b)

Wash the nipples and areola area daily with soap and massage the breasts with lotion.

c)

Wear tight-fitting blouses or dresses to provide support.

d)

Wash the breasts with warm water and keep them dry.

151.

A pregnant client in the last trimester has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia. A nurse monitors for complications associated with the diagnosis and assesses the client for:

a)

Any bleeding, such as in the gums, petechiae, and purpura.

b)

Enlargement of the breasts.

c)

Periods of fetal movement followed by quiet periods.

d)

Complaints of feeling hot when the room is cool.

152.

A client in the first trimester of pregnancy arrives at a health care clinic and reports that she has been experiencing vaginal bleeding. A threatened abortion is suspected, and the nurse instructs the client regarding management of care. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates a need for further education?

a)

“I will maintain strict bedrest throughout the remainder of the pregnancy.”

b)

“I will avoid sexual intercourse until the bleeding has stopped, and for 2 weeks following the last evidence of bleeding.”

c)

“I will count the number of perineal pads used on a daily basis and note the amount and color of blood on the pad.”

d)

“I will watch for the evidence of the passage of tissue.”

153.

In a lecture on sexual functioning, the nurse plans to include the fact that ovulation occurs when the:

a)

Oxytocin is too high.

b)

Blood level of LH is too high.

c)

Progesterone level is high.

d)

Endometrial wall is sloughed off.

154.

The chief function of progesterone is the:

a)

Development of the female reproductive system.

b)

Stimulation of the follicles for ovulation to occur.

c)

Preparation of the uterus to receive a fertilized egg.

d)

Establishment of secondary male sex characteristics.

155.

The developing cells are called a fetus from the:

a)

Time the fetal heart is heard

b)

Eighth week to the time of birth.

c)

Implantation of the fertilized ovum.

d)

End of the send week to the onset of labor.

156.

After the first four months of pregnancy, the chief source of estrogen and progesterone is the:

a)

Placenta

b)

Adrenal cortex

c)

Corpus luteum

d)

Anterior hypophysis

157.

The nurse recognizes that an expected change in the hematologic system that occurs during the 2nd trimester of pregnancy is:

a)

A decrease in WBC’s

b)

Increase in hematocrit.

c)

An increase in blood volume.

d)

A decrease in sedimentation rate.

158.

The nurse is aware that an adaptation of pregnancy is an increased blood supply to the pelvic region that results in a purplish discoloration of the vaginal mucosa, which is known as:

a)

Ladin’s sign

b)

Hegar’s sign

c)

Goodell’s sign

d)

Chadwick’s sign

159.

A pregnant client is making her first antepartum visit. She has a 2-year-old son born at 40 weeks, a 5-year-old daughter born at 38 weeks, and 7-year-old twin daughters born at 35 weeks. She had a spontaneous abortion 3 years ago at 10 weeks. Using the GTPAL format, the nurse should identify that the client is:

a)

G4 T3 P2 A1 L4

b)

G5 T2 P2 A1 L4

c)

G5 T2 P1 A1 L4

d)

G4 T3 P1 A1 L4

160.

Which of the following terms applies to the tiny, blanched, slightly raised end arterioles found on the face, neck, arms, and chest during pregnancy?

a)

Epulis

b)

Linea nigra

c)

Striae gravidarum

d)

Telangiectasias

161.

Which of the following conditions is common in pregnant women in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy?

a)

Mastitis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Physiologic anemia

d)

Respiratory acidosis

162.

A 21-year old client, 6 weeks pregnant is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This excessive vomiting during pregnancy will often result in which of the following conditions?

a)

Bowel perforation

b)

Electrolyte imbalance

c)

Miscarriage

d)

Pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)

163.

Which of the following answers best describes the stage of pregnancy in which maternal and fetal blood are exchanged?

a)

Conception

b)

9 weeks’ gestation, when the fetal heart is well developed.

c)

32-34 weeks gestation

d)

Maternal and fetal blood are never exchanged.

164.

Gravida refers to which of the following descriptions?

a)

A serious pregnancy.

b)

Number of times a female has been pregnant.

c)

Number of children a female has delivered.

d)

Number of term pregnancies a female has had.

165.

A pregnant woman at 32 weeks’ gestation complains of feeling dizzy and lightheaded while her fundal height is being measured. Her skin is pale and moist. The nurse’s initial response would be to:

a)

Assess the woman’s blood pressure and pulse.

b)

Have the woman breathe into a paper bag.

c)

Raise the woman’s legs.

d)

Turn the woman on her left side.

166.

A pregnant woman’s last menstrual period began on April 8, 2020, and ended on April 13. Using Naegele’s rule her estimated date of birth would be:

a)

January 15, 2021

b)

January 20, 2021

c)

July 1, 2021

d)

November 5, 2020

167.

A nurse is caring for a client in labor. The nurse determines that the client is beginning in the second stage of labor when which of the following assessments is noted?

a)

The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid.

b)

The contractions are regular.

c)

The membranes have ruptured

d)

The cervix is dilated completely.

168.

A nurse is performing an assessment of a client who is scheduled for cesarean delivery. Which assessment finding would indicate a need to contact the physician?

a)

Fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute.

b)

White blood cell count of 12,000.

c)

Maternal pulse rate of 85 beats per minute.

d)

Hemoglobin of 11.0 g/dL.

169.

A nurse is caring for a client in labor and prepares to auscultate the fetal heart rate by using a Doppler ultrasound device. The nurse most accurately determines that the fetal heart sounds are heard by:

a)

Noting if the heart rate is greater than 140 BPM.

b)

Placing the diaphragm of the Doppler on the mother's abdomen.

c)

Performing Leopold’s maneuvers first to determine the location of the fetal heart.

d)

Palpating the maternal radial pulse while listening to the fetal heart rate.

170.

The nurse asks the baby's sister her feelings and perception now that she have a baby sister. This is an example of following which of the following philosophy?

a)

Community centered

b)

Evidence-based practice

c)

None of the above

d)

Family-centered

171.

The following are the top 3 reasons for infant mortality, EXCEPT:

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Respiratory distress

c)

Hydrocephalus

d)

Bacterial sepsis

172.

Knowing the anatomy and physiology of the female reproductive system, the student nurse know that the this part is where fertilization takes place.

a)

Uterus

b)

Fallopian tube

c)

Vagina

d)

Ovaries

e)

Clitoris

173.

During counseling, the nurse includes which of the following statement/s?

Statement 1: Implantation takes place in the uterus.

Statement 2: The fusion of egg and sperm cells takes place in the vagina

a)

Statement 1 only

b)

Statements 1 and 2

c)

None of the above

d)

Statement 2 only

174.

During the student nurse school visit, one of the female students says "I am sexuality attracted to my female classmate". This is best described as which of the following sexual orientation?

a)

Transsexual

b)

Heterosexual

c)

Bisexual

d)

Homosexual

175.

Which of the following issues related to sexuality would probably address by the use of health education related to barrier as a form of contraception?

a)

Sexual harassment

b)

Premarital sex

c)

Teenage sex

d)

Sexually transmitted infection

176.

Which of the following hormones hold the embryo after implantation by making sure that the uterus will not contract?

a)

Follicle stimulating hormone

b)

Progesterone

c)

Luteinizing hormone

d)

Estrogen

177.

Which of the following patient response would suggest further need for health teaching?

Patient 1: "I can use lactation amenorrhea method for as long as am breastfeeding."

Patient 2: "I can use LAM if my child is exclusively breastfeeding."

a)

Patient 1

b)

Patient 1 and 2

c)

Patient 2

178.

Which of the following patient response would suggest further need for health teaching?

Patient 1: "While using IUD, should check the string before any sexual intercourse

Patient 2: "I might experience spotting and uterine cramps for the next 2-3 weeks after the insertion of my IUD

a)

Patient 1 and 2

b)

Patient 1

c)

Patient 2

d)

No one requires further teaching

179.

Which of the following patient response would suggest further need for health teaching?

Patient 1: "1 can have coitus with my wife soon after vasectomy and she will not get pregnant"

Patient 2: "Tubal ligation is when they cut or tie my fallopian tubes."

a)

Patient 1

b)

Patient 2

c)

Patient 1 and 2

d)

No one requires further teaching

180.

 

Which of the following patient response would suggest further need for health teaching?

Patient 1: "I was injected January 1 my next dose of DMPA is April"

Patient 2: "I should still use condoms even injected with DMPA if I would want to prevent acquiring sexually transmitted disease"

a)

Patient 1 and 2

b)

Patient 1

c)

Patient 2

d)

No one requires further teaching

181.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding OB scoring?

Patient 1: "A gestation age of 25 should be counted as 1 Parity"

Patient 2: "A still born child delivered at 39 weeks of AOG has an OB score of

G1 P1 T1 P0 A0 L0 M0"

a)

Statement 1 only

b)

None of the above

c)

Statement 2 only

d)

Statements 1 and 2

182.

Which of the following signs may indicate fetal distress and make the fetus risk for infection?

a)

A fetal heart rate of 150 beats per minute

b)

Oligohydramnios

c)

Meconium-stained amniotic fluid

d)

Polyhydramnios

183.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding FETAL DEVELOPMENT

Statement 1: The sperm changes its plasma membrane after ejaculation

Statement 2: When an egg cell and sperm cell fused, this is called zygote

a)

Statement 1 only

b)

Statement 1 and 2

c)

None of the above

d)

Statement 2 only

184.

The layer in the pre-embryonic phase that is responsible for the development of lungs, gastrointestinal tract, liver and pancreas

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Bioderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Endoderm