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smst2pcAPP22

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Test transmission is readable but with difficulty:

a)
reading you four
b)

reading you three

c)
reading you one
d)
reading you two
2.

Frecuency of VOR PNK is ...

a)
123,0 MHz
b)
111,3 MHz
c)

113,2 MHz

d)
245 KHz
3.
Requirement for extending rating .....
a)
control hours more than 40 hours in 6 months
b)
control hours more than 40 hours in 3 months
c)
control hours more than 40 hours in 1 months
d)
control hours more than 180 hours in 6 months
4.
Based on "PR no 15 tahun 2022" , Maximum number of working hours in one weeks for ATC is ...
a)
40 hours
b)
48 hours
c)
2 hours
d)
11 hours
5.
Glide path angle for ILS procedures in Pontianak Is
a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
Controller states a pilots distance of 49 NM as :
a)
Fower Niner Nautical miles
b)
Fower NIN-er miles
c)
Fourty Niner Nautical miles
d)
Fourty Niner miles
7.
These significant points are located in route designator "W38" except
a)
masri
b)
dendy
c)
lawib
d)
amboy
8.
Secondary Frequency for Supadio Tower is
a)
125,4 MHz
b)
123,0 MHz
c)
122,35 MHz
d)
119,0 MHz
9.
If two aircraft are flying on tracks diverging by at least 45 degrees immediately after take off, the separation provided is :
a)
one minute separation
b)
3 minutes separation
c)
5 minutes separation
d)
10 minutes separation
10.

Traffic advisory are normally generated 20-48 seconds prior to the predicted Closest Points of Approach which would be 10-13 seconds earlier than any RA. ( TRUE-FALSE)

a)
True
b)
FALSE
11.
Non radar service applied, when PKAPS WAOO-WIOO first contact your instruction is ...
a)
proceed to PNK VOR
b)

turn right heading 350

c)
hold over PNK VOR
d)

intercept W35 for spacing

12.

When passing through the transition level into the transition layer aircraft change from standard pressure to

a)
QNH
b)
QFE
c)
PRESSURE DATUM
d)
FLIGHT LEVEL
13.
This is TAFOR for Nov. BECMG 1123/1201 3000 BR
a)
at 11 Nov, time 2300 UTC until 12 Nov, time 0100 UTC, the Wx change to mist and visibility 3000 m
b)

at 11 Nov, time 2300 UTC until 12 Nov, time 0000 UTC, the Wx change to fog and visibility 3000 m

c)
wx mist until 2300 UTC, 11 Nov
d)
Wx mist and vis 2000 m until 1202 UTC
14.

The letters Z in ICAO FPL item 8 is to denote the category of flight rules .....

a)
IFR first, then VFR
b)
VFR first, then IFR
c)
VFR
d)
IFR
15.

Vertical separation between known aircraft below from the aircraft dumping fuel is ...

(a)  

16.

The length of the outbound heading for the VOR X approach is

a)
10 DME
b)
5 DME
c)
1 MINUTE
d)
2 MINUTES
17.

Minimum OCA for straight in VOR Y RWY 15

a)
500 feet
b)
600 feet
c)
330 FEET
d)
200 FEET
18.
If there is a Non ADSB aircraft which has the status as medevac and SAR in the area with ADS-B Coverage only, the service that must be provided is ...
a)
surveillance
b)
PROCEDURAL
c)
ADSB service
d)
depend on another traffic
19.
The probability of wind shear is medium when we observe the presence of weather phenomenas, except ...
a)
cumulus clouds
b)
rain shower
c)
virga
d)

lightning

20.
The indicator in AFTN to order 1st transmission message priority is ...
a)
SS
b)
DD
c)
KK
d)
GG
21.
QAM > Weather FBL RA means ...
a)
Drizzle
b)
Variable rain
c)
heavy rain
d)
moderate rain
22.
If succeeding a/c may be descent to 3000ft after preceeding a/c has passed 2000 feet for starting VOR approach. This approach sequence is...
a)
consecutive approach
b)
non consecutive approach
c)
one consecutive
d)
unconsecutive
23.

Frequency radio for Singapore Radar is :

a)
8942 KHz
b)
8943 KHz
c)
6556 KHz
d)

134,4 MHz

24.
Increased separation when the situation belows, except ...
a)
Requested by pilot or considered necessary by the controller
b)
The navigational accuracy of an aircraft may be impaired
c)
An aircraft is experiencing communication failure
d)
aircraft’s performance is normal
25.
If read-back by the pilot is wrong, the controller will acknowledge with the phrase "...." followed by repeating the clearance/instructions as appropriate.
a)
NEGATIVE
b)
CORRECT
c)
ROGER
d)
WRONG READBACK
26.

ATC shall give priority for scramble start up, scramble taxy and scramble take off in a real operation. (TRUE/FALSE)

a)
True
b)
FALSE
27.
STAR : Arrival from W35 on RDL121 PNK, proceed to VOR/DME PNK
a)
TEPEV 1C ARR
b)
TEPEV 1A ARR
c)
OLVES 1C ARR
d)
UNTEP 1C ARR
28.
Published TCP between Pontianak TMA and KUCHING is :
a)
PAPSA
b)
SURGA
c)
KIKOR
d)
TEPEV
29.
In the event Jakarta ACC Radar System and/or Pontianak APP radar failed, both units shall release dep aircraft not same level with interval not less than 3 minutes (T-F)
a)
True
b)
FALSE
30.
When Radar and ADS-B Failure, controller shall do the following actions, except
a)
all inbound traffic proceed to PNK VOR
b)
request DME and Level all inbound traffic
c)
vertical separation 20 Nm
d)
make coordination with TWR to decide the sequence
31.
If there is an aircraft departure from Runway 33, minimum holding altitude is :
a)
4000 feet
b)
3000 feet
c)
2000 feet
d)
5000 feet
32.

Minimum sector altitude for VOR approach RWY 15, sector “ B“:

a)
3100 feet
b)
3400 feet
c)
2700 feet
d)
2500 feet
33.

TT0221 request FL350 to make FCF exercise. Pontianak Radar shall make coordination with Jakarta Control to ensure no conflict traffict and the intended level is approved by Jakarta. (T/F)

a)
True
b)
FALSE
34.

For flights from Pontianak Airport to Natuna Airport, aircraft shall contact Kuching ACC at least ....

a)
10 minutes prior to crossing ATS routes G580
b)
10 minutes prior to crossing ATS routes G334
c)
Abeam PAPSA
d)
15 Nm prior to crossing ATS routes G580
35.

Altimeter settings provided to aircraft shall be rounded up to the nearest lower whole hectopascal. (T/F)

a)
True
b)
FALSE
36.
A distress or urgency call normally be made on the frequency
a)
121,5 MHz
b)
123,0 MHz
c)
122,5 MHz
d)
122,35 MHz
37.
Aircraft flying different routes at the same altitude are separated
a)
Longitudinally
b)
vertically
c)
laterally
d)
all answers are correct
38.
Vertical separation :
a)
All answers are correct
b)
2000 ft all aircraft with VVIP aircraft
c)
2000 ft all aircraft which operated above FL 410
d)
1000 ft below FL 290
39.
If the other aircraft is Mode A only, TCAS II will track range bearing and altitude of the traffic and provide TA and RA. (T/F)
a)
True
b)
FALSE
40.
Average Time Interval (ATI) in Pontianak CTR ..
a)
9 minutes
b)
7 minutes
c)
5 minutes
d)
3 minutes
41.
administratif requirement for extending rating are followings, except ..
a)
ATC personal Logbook
b)
Copy Of IELP Sertificate min level 4
c)
Copy of medical sertificate level 3
d)
copy of licence
42.

The following aircraft are still allowed to fly at the RVSM level band area, even though unequipped with RVSM requirements, except :

a)

state aircraft

b)

ferry flight

c)

maintenance flight

d)

cargo flight

43.

Visibility minima for ILS RWY 15 with ALS

a)
900 m
b)
1900 m
c)
800 m
d)
3400 m
44.

The military UAV will return to base automatically when it experiences a communication lost with pilot Skadron 51 Wing 7 (T/F)

a)
True
b)
FALSE
45.

won1349 dep from WIOO to WIOS A110, Pontianak APP shall transfer to ...

(a)  

46.
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for the aircraft at the same cruising speed, level and track with nav aid :
a)
15 minutes
b)
20 minutes
c)
10 minutes
d)
depend on ATC performance
47.

Visibility minima for VOR Z RWY15 with ALS is (a)   meters

48.
When comm failure in IMC, the aircraft will make the following procedures, except..
a)
proceed to PNK VOR and hold over this aid until commencement descent
b)
commence descent as close as possible to ETA
c)
land if possible 30 minutes after ETA
d)
fly full circuit over the aerodrome
49.
Low level in military exercise is level between ground until 8000 feet ( T- F )
a)
True
b)
FALSE
50.

Vertical limit Pontianak CTR

a)

ground-FL120

b)

FL120/fl150-FL245

c)

FL150-FL245

d)

Ground - FL150