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EKG Continuous Review

Total questions: 194

Worksheet time: 2hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What cells are considered the electrical power source of the heart? 

a)

Pacemaker Cells

b)

Power-making Cells

c)

Myocardial Cells

d)

Electrical Conducting Cells

2.

What is considered normal blood pressure?

a)

Systolic >40 and diastolic >80

b)

Systolic <120 and Diastolic <80

c)

Systolic between 120-129 and Diastolic <80

d)

Systolic Between 130 and 139 and Diastolic between 80 and 89

3.

What structure keeps the heart in a fixed space, surrounds the heart, and is attached to the diaphragm, great vessels, and sternum overlying the heart?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Endocardium

4.

When the atrium takes over as the pacemaker of the heart, what is this action called?

a)

Arrest

b)

Usurpation

c)

Escape

d)

Fibrillation

5.

Electrical waves are sent from the SA node to the AV node, where conduction slows. What is the reason for this pause in conduction?

a)

To send the conduction to the bundle of his more quickly

b)

to begin ventricular contraction before the atria finish contracting

c)

to allow time for the atria to contract before the ventricles contract

d)

To increase the heart rate

6.

Which neurotransmitter causes increases in heart rate and blood pressure?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Acetylcholine

7.

During diastole, the atria slightly contract to squeeze the remaining amount of blood into the ventricles. What is this phase called?

a)

Atrial Kick

b)

Systole

c)

Diastole

d)

Ventricular Kick

8.

Which cells are referred to as the hardwiring of the heart?

a)

Myocardial Cells

b)

Pacemaker Cells

c)

Power-Making Cells

d)

Electrical Conducting Cells

9.

Which cells are referred to as the contractile machinary of the heart?

a)

Myocardial Cells

b)

Pacemaker Cells

c)

Power-Making Cells

d)

Electrical Conducting Cells

10.

Which characteristic of cardiac cells gives them the ability to send electrical impulses through the heart?

a)

Contractility

b)

Conductivity

c)

Automaticity

d)

Excitability

11.

Which characteristic of cardiac cells gives them the ability to create impulses without any outside stimulation.?

a)

Contractility

b)

Conductivity

c)

Automaticity

d)

Excitability

12.

Which characteristic of cardiac cells gives them the ability to contract the cardiac muscle?

a)

Contractility

b)

Conductivity

c)

Automaticity

d)

Excitability

13.

Which characteristic of cardiac cells gives them the ability to respond to electrical impulses through depolarization?

a)

Contractility

b)

Conductivity

c)

Automaticity

d)

Excitability

14.

Which structures in the right ventricle contain some of the most important electrical conduction pathways of the heart?

a)

trabeculae carnae

b)

pillars

c)

papillary muscles

d)

bridges

15.

Which structures are muscles attached to the tricuspid valve?

a)

trabeculae carnae

b)

pillars

c)

papillary muscles

d)

bridges

16.

Which structures form an irregular web or sponge-like structure in the inner right and left ventricle of the heart?

a)

trabeculae carnae

b)

pillars

c)

papillary muscles

d)

bridges

17.

How much does an average female heart weigh?

a)

9 to 10 oz (250 to 300 g)

b)

7 to 9 oz (200 to 250 g)

c)

10 to 12 oz (300 to 350 g)

d)

6 to 8 oz (150 to 200 g)

18.

What is the average cardiac output of blood per minute?

a)

5.25 liters

b)

10 liters

c)

7.25 liters

d)

3 liters

19.

Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?

a)

Right Ventricle

b)

Left Ventricle

c)

Right Atrium

d)

Left Atrium

20.

Which of the following does not have an affect on a person's pulse rate?

a)

emotions

b)

exercise

c)

gender

d)

height

21.

Select the correct path of blood flow through the human body.

a)

Aorta → Arteries → Arterioles → Capillary bed → Venules → Veins → Vena cava

b)

Aorta → Arteries → Capillary bed → Veins → Vena cava

c)

Left Main Coronary Artery →Aorta → Arterioles → Capillary bed → Venules → Veins → Vena cava

d)

Vena Cava → Venules → Veins → Capillary bed → Arterioles → Arteries→ Aorta

22.

What is the average size of the heart from top to bottom?

a)

5 inches

b)

4 inches

c)

6 inches

d)

7 inches

23.

What term refers to heart rate and essentially means anything that can change it?

a)

Chronotrophy

b)

Inotrophy

c)

Repolarization

d)

Dromotrophy

24.

What refers to the pressure inside the artery when the heart contracts and pumps blood through the body?

a)

Systolic

b)

Diastolic

c)

Hypertension

d)

Osmotic Pressure

25.

What refers to the pressure inside the artery when the heart is at rest and filling with blood?

a)

Systolic

b)

Diastolic

c)

Hypertension

d)

Osmotic Pressure

26.

What refers to the High Blood Pressure?

a)

Systolic

b)

Diastolic

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hyotension

27.

What is the definition of blood pressure?

a)

The amount of blood pumped out of the heart in a minute

b)

The heart rate

c)

The force of blood pushing against the venous walls

d)

The force of blood pushing against the arterial walls

28.

What is the definition of cardiac output?

a)

The measurement of the amount of blood pumped out of the heart per minute is called

b)

The heart rate

c)

The force of blood pushing against the venous walls

d)

The force of blood pushing against the arterial walls

29.

What dominant pacemaker cells act as the conduction system in the heart?

a)

Sinoatrial Node

b)

Atrial Ventricular Node

c)

Ventricles

d)

Left Atrium

30.

If the SA node fails, what will take its place?

a)

Sinoatrial Node

b)

Atrial Ventricular Node

c)

Ventricles

d)

Left Atrium

31.

If the Atrial Ventricular node fails, what will take its place?

a)

Sinoatrial Node

b)

Atrial Ventricular Node

c)

Ventricles

d)

Left Atrium

32.

What layer serves as a support system for the heart and contains a small amount of fluid to prevent friction between the layers of the heart?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Endocardium

33.

What layer is the thickest layer of the heart, and it is responsible for the contraction of the muscle.?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Endocardium

34.

What layer is the outermost layer of the heart?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Endocardium

35.

What layer is the innermost layer of the heart?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Endocardium

36.

What are the ventricular conducting fibers?

a)

SA Node

b)

AV Node

c)

Bachmann's Bundle

d)

Purkinje System

37.

How much does an average male heart weigh?

a)

9 to 10 oz (250 to 300 g)

b)

7 to 9 oz (200 to 250 g)

c)

10 to 12 oz (300 to 350 g)

d)

6 to 8 oz (150 to 200 g)

38.

Where are the dominant pacemaker cells located in the heart?

a)

RIght Atrium

b)

Left Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

39.

What part of the myocardium is the thickest?

a)

RIght Atrium

b)

Left Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

40.

The heart is located between the lungs in what space?

a)

mediastinal

b)

endocarium

c)

epicardium

d)

myocardium

41.

How many milliliters of blood are ejected each time the heart contracts?

a)

30 ml

b)

100 ml

c)

70 ml

d)

150 ml

42.

What is the pressure range of the left ventricle?

a)

10 - 120 mm hg

b)

10 - 25 mm hg

c)

5 - 25 mm hg

d)

4 - 5 mm hg

43.

What refers to the dilatation of a particular chamber?

a)

dilation

b)

enlargement

c)

hypertrophy

d)

pressure overload

44.

What refers to an increase in muscle mass.?

a)

dilation

b)

enlargement

c)

hypertrophy

d)

pressure overload

45.

What occurs because of enlargement of a particular chamber?

a)

dilation

b)

enlargement

c)

hypertrophy

d)

pressure overload

46.

What happens when the heart is forced to pump blood against increased resistance?

a)

dilation

b)

enlargement

c)

hypertrophy

d)

pressure overload

47.

How many times a day does the heart beat on average?

a)

108000

b)

200000

c)

400000

d)

25000

48.

A medical assistant is performing an EKG on a patient whose heart rate is 105 BPM. The assistant should identify this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Sinus Rhythm

d)

Atrial Fibrillation

49.

A medical assistant is performing an EKG on a patient whose heart rate is 55 BPM. The assistant should identify this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Sinus Rhythm

d)

Atrial Fibrillation

50.

What is the contraction phase of a heartbeat?

a)

systole

b)

diastole

c)

fibrillation

d)

flutter

51.

What is the relaxation phase of a heartbeat?

a)

systole

b)

diastole

c)

fibrillation

d)

flutter

52.

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

a)

Left Atrium

b)

Right Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

53.

Which chamber of the heart contracts to send oxygenated blood through the aortic valve and out to the body's cells?

a)

Left Atrium

b)

Right Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

54.

Which chamber of the heart contracts to send blood to the pulmonary artery and lungs?

a)

Left Atrium

b)

Right Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

55.

What is the purpose of the valves in the heart?

a)

To keep the blood flowing in only one direction

b)

To prevent pathogens from entering the heart

c)

To separate the heart into two sides

d)

To control how fast the heart beats

56.

How many chambers does the heart have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

57.

What does an electrocardiogram measure?

a)

Heart function

b)

Brain activity

c)

Lung capacity

d)

Blood flow

58.

What is a heart attack?

a)

Nose bleed

b)

Altered mental status

c)

Angina

d)

Shortness of breath

59.

P Wave:

a)

SA Nodes contracts

Both atria contracts

b)

Impulses reach the av node 0.10 delay allows

c)

Repolarization or recovery of the ventricles

d)

Impulses hit av bundle branch off into two bundles down front of heart into purkinje fibers

60.

QRS

a)

Repolarization or recovery of the ventricles

b)

Impulses hit av bundle branch off into two bundles down front of heart into purkinje fibers

c)

SA Nodes contracts

Both atria contracts

d)

Impulses reach the av node 0.10 delay allows atria

61.
What do the letters EKG stand for?
a)
Electrocardiograph
b)
Electromagneticgraph
c)
Electrocardiogram 
d)
Electrolytes
62.
An electrocardiogram measures what?
a)
The amount of pressure exerted on blood vessels.
b)
The electrical activity of the heart.
c)
How many times the heart contracts over time.
d)
The body's temperature caused by friction of blood in vessel.
63.
What letters are used to label the parts of an EKG?
a)
PQRST 
b)
ABCDE
c)
ACDC
d)
DNAI
64.
The p-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
65.
The t-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
66.
The AV node is located at...
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
67.
The Purkinje fibers are located at...
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
I
68.
The QRS-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
69.

The nurse is reviewing a patient’s electrocardiogram. Which wave should the nurse recognize as being the first positive wave in a normal cardiac cycle?

a)

P wave

b)

Q wave

c)

R wave

d)

S wave

70.

A patient is experiencing electrocardiogram changes. Which wave should the nurse recognize as representing ventricular repolarization?

a)

Q wave

b)

R wave

c)

S wave

d)

T wave

71.

A patient is admitted for diagnosis of an electrocardiogram abnormality. Which wave should the nurse plan care based upon changes in the patient’s ventricular depolarization?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

U wave

d)

T wave

72.

The nurse is analyzing a client’s electrocardiogram tracing. Which of the following complexes is not normally seen on an electrocardiogram tracing?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

T wave

d)

U wave

73.

The nurse is determining the functioning of a patient’s sinoatrial node. How many times per minute should the nurse expect the node to normally fire?

a)

20 to 40

b)

25 to 55

c)

40 to 85

d)

60 to 100

74.

After reviewing an electrocardiogram the nurse determines that an electrical impulse originated in a patient’s the sinoatrial node. What did the nurse see on this tracing?

a)

An upright T wave

b)

An inverted T wave

c)

A positive P wave before a QRS complex

d)

A negative P wave before a QRS complex

75.

The nurse is assessing the client’s electrocardiography (ECG). What does the P wave on the ECG tracing represent?

a)

Contraction of the atria

b)

Contraction of the ventricles

c)

Depolarization of the atria

d)

Depolarization of the ventricles

76.
The p-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
77.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Supraventricular Tachycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

78.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus bradycardia

b)

1 degree heart block

c)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

d)

2nd Degree Type I heart block

79.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Supraventricular Tachycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

80.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus bradycardia

b)

1 degree heart block

c)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

d)

2nd Degree Type I heart block

81.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus Tachycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Atrial flutter

d)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

82.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Supraventricular tachycardia

b)

Sinus tachycardia

c)

Atrial fibrillation

d)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

83.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

2nd Degree Heart Block-Type I

c)

2nd Degree Heart Block-Type II

d)

1st degree Heart Block

84.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Atrial flutter

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Sinus Tachycardia

d)

Sinus arrhythmia

85.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Supra-ventricular tachycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Sinus tachycardia

d)

Atrial flutter

86.

Identify this rhythm

a)

3rd degree Heart Block

b)

2nd degree Heart Block-Type I

c)

2nd Degree Heart Block-Type II

d)

Normal sinus with PVCs

87.

A client admitted to the telemetry floor is in the following rhythm. Vitals are: BP 111/72, RR 16, O2 Sat 95%. Skin warm/dry. What action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

a)

Continue to monitor

b)

Administer 0.5 mg Atropine

c)

Administer 1 mg Atropine

d)

Prepare for transcutenous pacing

88.

A client is admitted with the following rhythm. BP is 82/55, O2 Sat 88%. Pt is disoriented. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Administer 0.5 mg Atropine

b)

Administer 1 mg Atropine

c)

Prepare for transcutaneous pacing

d)

Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.

e)

Consult cardiology

89.

A client is admitted in the following rhythm. Vitals are BP 100/67, RR 18, O2 Sat 94%. Pt AAOx3. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Ask the patient to bare down like they are having a bowel movement.

b)

Administer Adenosine 6 mg IV push

c)

Administer Adenosine 12 mg IV push

d)

Prepare for defibrillation

e)

Prepare for synchronized cardioversion

90.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Ventricular Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Tachycardia

c)

Pulseless Electrical Activity

d)

Atrial fibrillation

91.

The nurse notes this rhythm on the monitor. What action should she take first?

a)

Perform CPR

b)

Prepare for Synchronized Cardioversion

c)

Prepare for Defibrillation

d)

Check for a pulse

92.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has no pulse but this rhythm is shown on the monitor. What action should she take next?

a)

Continue to monitor

b)

Begin CPR

c)

Prepare for defibrillation

d)

Prepare for external pacing

93.

Identify this rhythm

a)

1st degree heart block

b)

2nd Degree Heart Block-Type II

c)

3rd Degree Heart Block

d)

2nd Degree Heart Block-Type I

94.

Which performing an EKG, a medical assistant notes a pause in the EKG pattern. The medical assistant ensures that all of the leads are properly connected, and the regularity resumes. The short pause is an indication of which of the following?

a)

Myocardial Infarction

b)

Polarization

c)

Dysrhythmia

d)

Somatic Tremor

95.

In order to calculate the heart rate, what of the following is required?

a)

Measure R - R interval

b)

Calculate QTc

c)

Measure ST segment

d)

Measure P-R interval

e)

Measure QRS complex

96.

What electric event is represented by the T wave?

a)

Ventricular depolarizaton

b)

Atrial repolarization

c)

Atrial depolarization

d)

Ventricular repolarization

97.

What mechanical event (clinical response) is happening during the ST segment?

a)

Ventricular relaxation

b)

Atrial relaxation

c)

Atrial contraction

d)

Ventricular contraction

98.

What wave represents the depolarization of the Left Ventricle myocardium?

a)

Q wave

b)

R wave

c)

S wave

d)

R' wave

99.

Bottom point of the heart:

a)

Apex

b)

Serum

c)

Pericardium

d)

Inferior Vena Cava

100.

What is the role of a medical assistant in cardiovascular testing?

a)

Medical Assistant provides the baseline information for the patient

b)

Medical Assistant conducts the procedure

c)

Preparing the patient

d)

Patient preparation for the procedure and post procedure assistant

101.

Leads I,II and III are

a)

travel from a negative

b)

bipolar

c)

negative leads

d)

positive leads

102.

Leads AVL,AVR and AVF are

a)

bipolar

b)

unipolar

c)

augmented

d)

tracing

103.

V1

a)

LEFT side of the sternum, directly across from V1 at the FOURTH intercostal space

b)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midclavicular line

c)

RIGHT side of the sternum at the FOURTH intercostal space

d)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midaxillary line

104.

V2

a)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midclavicular line

b)

LEFT side of the sternum, directly across from V1 at the FOURTH intercostal space

c)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midclavicular line

d)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, anterior axillary line

105.

V3

a)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midaxillary line

b)

RIGHT side of the sternum at the FOURTH intercostal space

c)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, anterior axillary line

d)

LEFT side of the chest, midway between V2 and V4

106.

V4

a)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midclavicular line

b)

LEFT side of the chest, midway between V2 and V4

c)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midaxillary line

d)

LEFT side of the sternum, directly across from V1 at the FOURTH intercostal space

107.

V5

a)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, anterior axillary line

b)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midaxillary line

c)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midclavicular line

d)

LEFT side of the sternum, directly across from V1 at the FOURTH intercostal space

108.

V6

a)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midclavicular line

b)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, anterior axillary line

c)

LEFT side of the chest, FIFTH intercostal space, midaxillary line

d)

LEFT side of the sternum, directly across from V1 at the FOURTH intercostal space

109.
An electrocardiogram measures what?
a)
The amount of pressure exerted on blood vessels.
b)
The electrical activity of the heart.
c)
How many times the heart contracts over time.
d)
The body's temperature caused by friction of blood in vessel.
110.
An EKG is actually
a)
A ratio
b)
An equation
c)
A time frame
d)
A graph 
111.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient who has shortness of breath for at EKG. In which of the following positions should be assistant place the patient?

a)

Prone

b)

Semi- Fowler's

c)

Supine

d)

Sims'

112.

A medical assistant is calibrating an EKG machine. Which of the following should the assistant identify as the standard speed of the recording?

a)

25 mm/second

b)

50 mm/second

c)

10 mm/second

d)

5 mm/second

113.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient for an EKG. In which of the following locations should the assistant place the V4 lead?

a)

5th intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

b)

5th intercostal space at the midaxillary line

c)

Midway between V3 and V5

d)

5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line

114.

A medical assistant notes a wandering baseline throughout an EKG tracing. Which of the following electrocardiograph issues could have resulted in this occurrence?

a)

The electrode pads were defective or poorly attached

b)

The machine was missing the grounding prong for the outlet

c)

The machine did not have the proper standardization settings set

d)

The cable tips were loose or had become separated

115.

A medical assistant notices rhythmic sharp spikes throughout and EKG tracing. Which of the following artifacts is occurring?

a)

wandering baseline

b)

interrupted baseline

c)

interference

d)

somatic tremor

116.

A provider requests a rhythm strip in addition to a regular EKG tracing for a patient. The medical assistant should identify that which of the following leads provides the clearest recording of the heart rhythm?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

V2

117.

A medical assistant is performing an EKG on a patient who has a heart rate of 105/min. The medical assistant should identify this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?

a)

Sinus Rhythm

b)

Atrial Fibrillation

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Tachycardia

118.

What electrocardiogram elements compose the QT interval?

a)

P wave + QRS complex + ST segment

b)

QRS complex + ST segment

c)

ST segment + T wave

d)

QRS complex + ST segment + T wave

119.

What electrical event is represented by the PR interval?

a)

Atrial repolarization

b)

Ventricular repolarization

c)

Atrial depolarization + conduction through the AV node + His-Purkinje system

d)

Electrocardiographic silence

e)

Atrial repolarization + ventricular repolarization

120.

how many leads are recorded strictly from the 4 extremities electodes?

a)

6

b)

4

c)

12

d)

10

121.

how many leads are recorded from the 6 chest electrodes

a)

6

b)

4

c)

12

d)

10

122.

which of the following leads are recorded from the 6 chest electrodes

a)

lead 1, lead 2, lead 3

b)

AVR, AVL, AVF

c)

Leads V1-V6

d)

Both A&B

123.

which of the following is the normal PR interval

a)

0.12-0.20 MM of voltage

b)

0.12 -0.20 per second

c)

0.16 -0.20 MM of voltage

d)

0.02- 0.08 per second

124.

after the T wave or U wave and before the P wave in NSR is when which of the following is happening in the heart

a)

heart rest

b)

upper chambers are contracting

c)

lower chambers are contracting

d)

SA node is firing

125.

AVR is considered the

a)

bipolar limb lead

b)

augmented or unipolar limb lead

c)

chest or precordial lead

d)

none of the choices

126.

V4 is considered the

a)

bipolar limb lead

b)

augmented or unipolar lead

c)

chest or precordial lead

d)

none of the choices

127.

Lead II is considered the

a)

bipolar limb lead

b)

augmented or unipolar limb lead

c)

chest of precordial lead

d)

none of the choices

128.

The U wave can be defined as

a)

is sometimes seen, but not often

b)

it can mean electrolyte problem (K decrease)

c)

it may be normal for the patient

d)

all of the choices are true of the U wave

129.

The amount of blood pumped by heart every minute. 

a)

Cardiac Cycle

b)

Automaticity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Excitability

130.

The ability of cells to create inpulses

a)

Contractility

b)

Automaticity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Excitability

131.

The ability of cells to pass impulses

a)

Contractility

b)

Automaticity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Excitability

132.

The ability of cells to to respond to the impulse by depolarizing

a)

Contractility

b)

Automaticity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Excitability

133.

The ability of cells to contract

a)

Contractility

b)

Automaticity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Excitability

134.

The Autonomic Nervous System is part of the___________.

a)

Somatic Nervous System

b)

Peripheral Nervous System

c)

Central Nervous System

d)

Sensory Nervous System

135.

The autonomic nervous system is divided into

a)

Motor and Sensory

b)

Peripheral and Central

c)

The Brain and Spinal cord

d)

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

136.

controls the "fight or flight" response

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

137.

This is made up of the brain and spinal cord

a)

Central Nervous System (CNS)

b)

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

138.

All the parts of the nervous system except the brain and spinal cord.

a)

Central Nervous System (CNS)

b)

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

139.

The "fight or flight" response during threatening situations in the role of the:

a)

somatic nervous system

b)

sympathetic nervous system

c)

parasympathetic system

d)

cerebellum

140.
The _____part of the autonomic nervous system is active during resting.
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
c)
somatic
d)
peripheral
141.

The autonomic nervous system is divided into

a)

Motor and Sensory

b)

Peripheral and Central

c)

The Brain and Spinal cord

d)

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

142.

This is a state of readiness - cardiac cell is ready for electrical action.

a)

Polarized

b)

Depolarized

c)

Repolarized

d)

Cardiac Cell

143.

This is when cardiac cell is stimulated by an electrical impulse that causes it to contract

a)

Polarized

b)

Depolarized

c)

Repolarized

d)

Cardiac Cell

144.

This is when cardiac cell is relaxed

a)

Polarized

b)

Depolarized

c)

Repolarized

d)

Cardiac Cell

145.

Times where the conduction cells are “resistant” to stimuli.

a)

Refractory Periods

b)

Absolute Periods

c)

Relative Periods

d)

Supernormal Periods

146.

Times where the cell cannot accept another impulse, still dealing with the last one.

a)

Refractory Periods

b)

Absolute Periods

c)

Relative Periods

d)

Supernormal Periods

147.

Times where the cells strong stimulus will result in depolarization, but not as strong.

a)

Refractory Periods

b)

Absolute Periods

c)

Relative Periods

d)

Supernormal Periods

148.

Times where the cardiac cell is “hyper” and stimulation at this time can result in a very fast and dangerous rhythms.

a)

Refractory Periods

b)

Absolute Periods

c)

Relative Periods

d)

Supernormal Periods

149.

The nurse is determining the functioning of a patient’s AV node. How many times per minute should the nurse expect the node to normally fire?

a)

20 to 40

b)

25 to 55

c)

40 to 60

d)

60 to 100

150.

The nurse is determining the functioning of a patient’s Purkinje Fibers/Ventricles. How many times per minute should the nurse expect the node to normally fire?

a)

20 to 40

b)

25 to 55

c)

40 to 60

d)

60 to 100

151.

When the predominant pacemaker slows or fails and a lower pacemaker takes over.

a)

Arrest

b)

Usurpation

c)

Escape

d)

Fibrillation

152.

The Line from which waves and complexes take off.

a)

Isoelectric Line

b)

Usurpation

c)

Escape

d)

Fibrillation

153.

The measurement of time between waves and complexes.  (flat line)

a)

Isoelectric Line

b)

Segment

c)

Interval

d)

Fibrillation

154.

The measurement of time that includes waves and complexes.

a)

Isoelectric Line

b)

Segment

c)

Interval

d)

Fibrillation

155.

which of the following is the normal QRS interval

a)

0.12-0.20 MM of voltage

b)

0.12 -0.20 per second

c)

0.16 -0.20 MM of voltage

d)

0.06- 0.10 per second

156.

A person's heartrate is calculated between

a)

R-R Interval

b)

PR Interval

c)

QRS Interval

d)

ST Interval

157.

Every small square on EKG paper represents

a)

0.04 sec

b)

0.20 sec

c)

5 mm

d)

0,5 mv

158.

Every large square on EKG paper represents

a)

0.04 sec

b)

0.20 sec

c)

5 mm

d)

0,5 mv

159.

How many small square are in each large square of EKG paper?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

20

d)

25

160.

A medical assistant is calibrating an EKG machine. Which of the following should the assistant identify as the standard speed of the recording for an infant, pediatric patient or patient with an accelerated heart rate?

a)

25 mm/second

b)

50 mm/second

c)

10 mm/second

d)

5 mm/second

161.

What is the term that regulates the height of the complexes on the ekg paper

a)

Gain

b)

Lost

c)

Positive

d)

Negative

162.

What should the default gain on an EKG machine be set to?

a)

5 mm

b)

10 mm

c)

20 mm

d)

25 mm

163.

High voltage shock due to inadequate grounding of electrical equipment.

a)

Macroshock

b)

Microshock

c)

Major Shock

d)

Minor SHock

164.

small leakage of current produced around pacemaker and carried away by ground wire attaching the pt’s bed to the electrical socket in the room.

a)

Macroshock

b)

Microshock

c)

Major Shock

d)

Minor SHock

165.

_________is unwanted interference.

a)

Artifact

b)

Somatic Tremors

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

60 Second interference

166.

This artifact is caused by a patient shivering and can be corrected by giving them a blanket

a)

Somatic Tremor

b)

Baseline Sway or wandering baseline

c)

Broken Recording

d)

60 second interference

167.

This artifact can be removed by unplugging other machines close by, turning off phones,

a)

Somatic Tremor

b)

Baseline Sway or wandering baseline

c)

Broken Recording

d)

60 second interference

168.

This artifact is caused by lotion or sweat on the skin.

a)

Somatic Tremor

b)

Baseline Sway or wandering baseline

c)

Broken Recording

d)

60 second interference

169.

This artifact is due to bad wires, loose electrodes or cable.

a)

Broken Recording

b)

60second interference

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Somatic Tremor

170.

Which type of interference is represented by the photo?

a)

Broken Recording

b)

60second interference

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Somatic Tremor

171.

Which type of interference is represented by the photo?

a)

Broken Recording

b)

60second interference

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Somatic Tremor

172.

Which type of interference is represented by the photo?

a)

Broken Recording

b)

60second interference

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Somatic Tremor

173.

Which type of interference is represented by the photo?

a)

Broken Recording

b)

60second interference

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Somatic Tremor

174.

Which of the following should an EKG technician evaluate first when determining EKG rhythm and regularity?

a)

P-P interval

b)

PR interval

c)

QRS complex

d)

QT interval

175.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the sinoatrial (SA) Node?

a)

It can spontaneously generate an electrical impulse.

b)

It has an intrinsic rate of 40 to 60/min.

c)

It is located at the atrioventricular (AV) junction.

d)

It allows time for the ventricles to fill.

176.

This is considered a break in the normal EKG pattern where the SA node failed to fire

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

177.

This is a normal EKG rating but the heart rate is less than 60 BPM?

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

178.

This is a normal EKG rating but the heart rate is greater than 100 BPM?

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

179.

This is a slight irregularity in the EKG rhythm associated with normal breathing patterns?

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

180.

A patient with hypothyroidism or a sedentary lifestyle might have an EKG reading of

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

181.

A patient with hyperthyroidism or exercising normally may experience

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

182.

When should a medical professional be concerned with sinus arrest?

a)

When it lasts less than 6 seconds

b)

When it lasts more than 6 seconds

c)

When it lasts more than 10 seconds

d)

When it lasts less than 10 seconds

183.

A normal sinus rhythm may be characterized by which of the following characteristics?

a)

P wave that is rounded and upright

b)

P wave that is rounded and downright

c)

P wave with an amplitude of more than 2.5 mm

d)

A wide QRS Complex

184.

A normal sinus rhythm may be characterized by which of the following characteristics?

a)

P wave duration more than 110 milliseconds

b)

P wave that is rounded and downright

c)

P wave with an amplitude of more than 2.5 mm

d)

A narrow QRS Complex

185.

A normal sinus rhythm may be characterized by which of the following characteristics?

a)

P wave duration less than 110 milliseconds

b)

P wave that is rounded and downright

c)

P wave with an amplitude of more than 2.5 mm

d)

A wide QRS Complex

186.

A normal sinus rhythm may be characterized by which of the following characteristics?

a)

P wave duration more than 110 milliseconds

b)

P wave that is rounded and downright

c)

P wave with an amplitude of less than 2.5 mm

d)

A wide QRS Complex

187.

Which of the following leads is created between the right arm and left arm

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

188.

Which of the following leads is created between the right arm and left leg

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

189.

Which of the following leads is created between the left arm and left leg

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

190.

Which of the following is the correct polarity for a lead III tracing

a)

left arm negative, left leg positive

b)

left arm positive, left leg negative

c)

right arm negative, left leg positive

d)

left arm negative, right leg positive

191.

Which of the following is the correct polarity for a lead I tracing

a)

left arm negative, right arm positive

b)

left arm positive, left leg negative

c)

right arm negative, left arm positive

d)

left arm negative, right leg positive

192.

Which of the following is the correct polarity for a lead II tracing

a)

left arm negative, right arm positive

b)

left arm positive, left leg negative

c)

right arm negative, left leg positive

d)

left arm negative, right leg positive

193.

What is the difference between sinus arrest and sinus block?

a)

The rate

b)

The width of the P waves

c)

The number of pauses in the rhythm

d)

The number of skipped P waves

194.

What typically happens to the rhythm after a pause in sinus arrest?

a)

Cardiac Arrest

b)

Usurpation

c)

Escape

d)

Ventricular Fibrillation

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