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EKG EXAM #2 11/14/22 REMEDIATION

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Premature Atrial Complexes (PACs) have what kind of rhythm?

a)

Irregular with premature beats

b)

Regular with premature beats

c)

Irregular with delayed beats

d)

Regular with delayed

2.

A Wandering Atrial Pacemaker are usually what kind of rate?

a)

60-100

b)

101-180

c)

0-60

d)

varying range

3.

Atrial Tachycardia are what kind of rate?

a)

60-100

b)

101-180

c)

150-250

d)

varying range

4.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
5.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
6.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
7.

Using the 6 second strip method, what is the HR of this EKG?

a)

50

b)

52

c)

55

d)

58

8.

Interpret this Rhythm:

a)

Normal sinus rhythm

b)

Ventricular fibrillation

c)

Sinus Brady with PAC's

d)

Sinus Bradycardia

9.

Name this rhythm

a)

Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia

b)

Wandering Atrial Pacemaker

c)

Atrial Flutter

d)

Atrial Fibrillation

10.

Name this rhythm

a)

Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia

b)

Wandering Atrial Pacemaker

c)

Trigeminy

d)

Bigeminy

11.

An EKG tech is performing a standard 12 lead EKG for a patient who is experiencing an accelerated junctional rhythm. Which of the following speed settings should the technician use?

a)

5 mm/second

b)

10 mm/second

c)

25 mm/second

d)

50 mm/second

12.

Which of the following EKG machine functions should an EKG tech use to control and regulate the height of EKG waveforms on the tracing?

a)

Speed

b)

Output display

c)

Artifact filter

d)

Gain

13.

In a healthy patient, which of the following is the expected shape and direction of the P wave in lead II?

a)

Peaked and upright

b)

Peaked and inverted

c)

Rounded and inverted

d)

Rounded and upright

14.

An EKG Tech should run a strip for at least how long to identify the apprpriate rate and rhythm?

a)

2 seconds

b)

4 seconds

c)

6 seconds

d)

8 seconds

15.

How should an EKG tech resolve a wandering baseline on an EKG?

a)

Relieve tension from the lead wires.

b)

Clean the lead wires after each use.

c)

The technician should provide the patient with a blanket to help resolve somatic tremor on the EKG tracing, which is caused by involuntary muscle movements or shivering.

d)

Electronic devices in the vicinity of the EKG equipment and leads can result in AC interference on the EKG tracing.

16.

The smallest box on an EKG strip represents which of the following lengths of time?

a)

0.02 seconds

b)

0.04 seconds

c)

0.10 seconds

d)

0.40 seconds

17.

How should an EKG tech resolve an interrupted baseline on an EKG?

a)

Relieve tension from the lead wires.

b)

Clean the lead wires after each use.

c)

The technician should provide the patient with a blanket to help resolve somatic tremor on the EKG tracing, which is caused by involuntary muscle movements or shivering.

d)

Electronic devices in the vicinity of the EKG equipment and leads can result in AC interference on the EKG tracing.

18.

How should an EKG tech resolve a somatic tremor on an EKG?

a)

Relieve tension from the lead wires.

b)

Clean the lead wires after each use.

c)

The technician should provide the patient with a blanket to help resolve somatic tremor on the EKG tracing, which is caused by involuntary muscle movements or shivering.

d)

Electronic devices in the vicinity of the EKG equipment and leads can result in AC interference on the EKG tracing.

19.

How should an EKG tech resolve an AC interference on an EKG?

a)

Relieve tension from the lead wires.

b)

Clean the lead wires after each use.

c)

The technician should provide the patient with a blanket to help resolve somatic tremor on the EKG tracing, which is caused by involuntary muscle movements or shivering.

d)

Electronic devices in the vicinity of the EKG equipment and leads can result in AC interference on the EKG tracing.

20.

If an EKG Tech is performing a standard 12 lead EKG and they notice that none of the leads are giving a reading, which lead should be checked first?

a)

Right arm

b)

Left arm

c)

Right leg

d)

Left leg

21.

Which limb reads leads I and III and the augmented limb leads

a)

Right arm

b)

Left arm

c)

Right leg

d)

Left leg

22.

Which limb reads leads I and II and the augmented limb leads

a)

Right arm

b)

Left arm

c)

Right leg

d)

Left leg

23.

Which limb reads leads II and III and the augmented limb leads.

a)

Right arm

b)

Left arm

c)

Right leg

d)

Left leg

24.

Which lead is placed to the right of the patient's sternum in the 4th intercostal space?

a)

Lead V1

b)

Lead I

c)

Lead aVR

d)

Lead II

25.

Using the 6 second method, calculate the ventricular rate

a)

30/min

b)

40/min

c)

50/min

d)

60/min

26.

An EKG tech notes that a patient is experiencing a variation in respirations that correlates with the EKG tracing. Which of the following irregularities does this indicate?

a)

Sinus arrest

b)

Sinus dysrhythmia

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Bradycardia

27.

For which of the following patients would you receive a somatic tremor artifact?

a)

A 60-year-old patient who is sweating profusely

b)

A 20-year-old patient who is experiencing a seizure

c)

A 10-year-old patient who is watching TV

d)

A 30-year-old patient who is using a cell phone

28.

What is the correct placement for lead V4?

a)

The fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

b)

The fourth intercostal space at the midaxillary line

c)

The fifth intercostal space at the midaxillary line

d)

The fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

29.

Which of the following electrodes is used to create leads I, II and aVr?

a)

Left arm

b)

Right arm

c)

Left leg

d)

Right leg

30.

Which of the following electrodes is used to create leads I and III?

a)

Left arm

b)

Right arm

c)

Left leg

d)

Right leg

31.

Which of the following electrodes is used to create leads II and III.?

a)

Left arm

b)

Right arm

c)

Left leg

d)

Right leg

32.

Which of the following electrodes involves the ground lead and has no polarity?

a)

Left arm

b)

Right arm

c)

Left leg

d)

Right leg

33.

Which of the following methods can be used to calculate a regular or irregular rhythm?

a)

6-second method

b)

P-P method

c)

1500 method

d)

300 method

34.

Which of the following is the most accurate for measuring regular rhythms.?

a)

6-second method

b)

P-P method

c)

1500 method

d)

300 method

35.

In which location should the technician place the V6 electrode?

a)

Right midclavicular space

b)

Left midclavicular space

c)

Right midaxillary line

d)

Left midaxillary line

36.

In which location should the technician place the V6 electrode on the right midaxillary line for a patient who has dextrocardia.?

a)

Right midclavicular space

b)

Left midclavicular space

c)

Right midaxillary line

d)

Left midaxillary line

37.

In which location should the technician place the V4 electrode on the left midclavicular space?

a)

Right midclavicular space

b)

Left midclavicular space

c)

Right midaxillary line

d)

Left midaxillary line

38.

Which of the following intervals should be used to determine the regularity of ventricular depolarization?

a)

P-P wave interval

b)

R-R wave interval

c)

QT interval

d)

PR interval

39.

Which of the following methods should an EKG tech use to calculate a person's heart rate from an EKG tracing?

a)

Calculate the mean rate and divide 1,500 by that rate.

b)

Count the number of small boxes in two cardiac cycles.

c)

Divide 300 by the number of large boxes between two R waves.

d)

Count the number of large boxes between P and T waves.

40.

If a person has below the knee amputation on the left leg, where should the technician place the right leg electrode?

a)

On the lower right foot

b)

On the lower right abdomen

c)

On the lower left torso

d)

On the lower right leg

41.

An EKG tech is preparing to perform a 12 lead EKG tracing on a patient who has a heart rate of 150/min. Which of the following speed controls should the technician select?

a)

5 mm/second

b)

10 mm/second

c)

25 mm/second

d)

50 mm/second

42.

What is the most commonly used paper speed for an EKG?

a)

5 mm/second

b)

10 mm/second

c)

25 mm/second

d)

50 mm/second

43.

Calculate the heart rate using the 1500 method

a)

40/min

b)

53/min

c)

68/min

d)

75/min

44.

Which of the following groups creates Einthoven's Triangle?

a)

Leads V4, V5, and V6

b)

Leads V1, V2, and V3

c)

Leads aVR, aVL, and aVF

d)

​Leads I, II, and III

45.

Which of the following is the result of an atrial depolarization?

a)

T wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

P wave

d)

U wave

46.

If a PR interval spans across 4 small boxes. An EKG Tech should recognize that this represents which of the following durations?

a)

0.08 seconds

b)

0.12 seconds

c)

0.16 seconds

d)

0.2 seconds

47.

Atrial Fibrillation have which of the following characterictics on an EKG tracing?

a)

R-R interval is irregularly irregular

b)

Clearly defined T waves

c)

P-P interval occurs regularly

d)

Prolonged QRS duration

48.

An EKG Technician receives this initial reading on an EKG. What actions should the technician take?

a)

Ensure that the ground wire is attached to the patient properly.

b)

Examine the cables for damage.

c)

Instruct the patient to breathe slowly and deeply.

d)

Mark the tracing as the patient's baseline in the medical record.

49.

Identify the following rhythm

a)

Electrical interference

b)

Somatic tremor

c)

Wandering baseline

d)

Interrupted baseline

50.

Which of the following describes a complete cardiac cycle in a healthy heart?

a)

​P wave, Q wave, and ST segment

b)

P wave, QRS complex, and T wave

c)

​P wave, QRS complex, and QT interval

d)

​P wave, QRS complex, and P wave

51.

Which type of interference is represented by the photo?

a)

Broken Recording

b)

60second interference

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Somatic Tremor

52.

Which type of interference is represented by the photo?

a)

Broken Recording

b)

60second interference

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Somatic Tremor

53.

How many small square are in each large square of EKG paper?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

20

d)

25

54.

Every large square on EKG paper represents

a)

0.04 sec

b)

0.20 sec

c)

5 mm

d)

0,5 mv

55.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient who has shortness of breath for at EKG. In which of the following positions should be assistant place the patient?

a)

Prone

b)

Semi- Fowler's

c)

Supine

d)

Sims'

56.

Leads AVL,AVR and AVF are

a)

bipolar

b)

unipolar

c)

augmented

d)

tracing

57.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Supra-ventricular tachycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Sinus tachycardia

d)

Atrial flutter

58.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Supraventricular tachycardia

b)

Sinus tachycardia

c)

Atrial fibrillation

d)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

59.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus Tachycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Atrial flutter

d)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

60.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Supraventricular Tachycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

61.

EKG Strip?

a)

Sinus Arrest

b)

Sinus Arrhythmia

c)

Uni-focal pvcs

d)

Multi focal pvcs

62.

EKG Strip?

a)

Sinus Arrest

b)

Sinus Arrhythmia

c)

Uni-focal pvcs

d)

Multi focal pvcs

63.

What typically happens to the rhythm after a pause in sinus arrest?

a)

Cardiac Arrest

b)

Usurpation

c)

Escape

d)

Ventricular Fibrillation

64.

When the atrium takes over as the pacemaker of the heart, what is this action called?

a)

Arrest

b)

Usurpation

c)

Escape

d)

Fibrillation

65.

Which characteristic of cardiac cells gives them the ability to send electrical impulses through the heart?

a)

Contractility

b)

Conductivity

c)

Automaticity

d)

Excitability

66.

Which characteristic of cardiac cells gives them the ability to create impulses without any outside stimulation.?

a)

Contractility

b)

Conductivity

c)

Automaticity

d)

Excitability

67.

Which characteristic of cardiac cells gives them the ability to contract the cardiac muscle?

a)

Contractility

b)

Conductivity

c)

Automaticity

d)

Excitability

68.

Which characteristic of cardiac cells gives them the ability to respond to electrical impulses through depolarization?

a)

Contractility

b)

Conductivity

c)

Automaticity

d)

Excitability

69.

What dominant pacemaker cells act as the conduction system in the heart?

a)

Sinoatrial Node

b)

Atrial Ventricular Node

c)

Ventricles

d)

Left Atrium

70.

If the SA node fails, what will take its place?

a)

Sinoatrial Node

b)

Atrial Ventricular Node

c)

Ventricles

d)

Left Atrium

71.

If the Atrial Ventricular node fails, what will take its place?

a)

Sinoatrial Node

b)

Atrial Ventricular Node

c)

Ventricles

d)

Left Atrium

72.

A medical assistant is performing an EKG on a patient whose heart rate is 105 BPM. The assistant should identify this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Sinus Rhythm

d)

Atrial Fibrillation

73.

A medical assistant is performing an EKG on a patient whose heart rate is 55 BPM. The assistant should identify this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Sinus Rhythm

d)

Atrial Fibrillation

74.
The p-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
75.
The t-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
76.
The QRS-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
77.

A patient is experiencing electrocardiogram changes. Which wave should the nurse recognize as representing ventricular repolarization?

a)

Q wave

b)

R wave

c)

S wave

d)

T wave

78.

A patient is admitted for diagnosis of an electrocardiogram abnormality. Which wave should the nurse plan care based upon changes in the patient’s ventricular depolarization?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

U wave

d)

T wave

79.

The nurse is analyzing a client’s electrocardiogram tracing. Which of the following complexes is not normally seen on an electrocardiogram tracing?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

T wave

d)

U wave

80.

Leads AVL,AVR and AVF are

a)

bipolar

b)

unipolar

c)

augmented

d)

tracing

81.

A provider requests a rhythm strip in addition to a regular EKG tracing for a patient. The medical assistant should identify that which of the following leads provides the clearest recording of the heart rhythm?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

V2

82.

which of the following is the normal PR interval

a)

0.12-0.20 MM of voltage

b)

0.12 -0.20 per second

c)

0.16 -0.20 MM of voltage

d)

0.02- 0.08 per second

83.

Times where the conduction cells are “resistant” to stimuli.

a)

Refractory Periods

b)

Absolute Periods

c)

Relative Periods

d)

Supernormal Periods

84.

Times where the cell cannot accept another impulse, still dealing with the last one.

a)

Refractory Periods

b)

Absolute Periods

c)

Relative Periods

d)

Supernormal Periods

85.

Times where the cells strong stimulus will result in depolarization, but not as strong.

a)

Refractory Periods

b)

Absolute Periods

c)

Relative Periods

d)

Supernormal Periods

86.

The Line from which waves and complexes take off.

a)

Isoelectric Line

b)

Usurpation

c)

Escape

d)

Fibrillation

87.

The measurement of time between waves and complexes.  (flat line)

a)

Isoelectric Line

b)

Segment

c)

Interval

d)

Fibrillation

88.

The measurement of time that includes waves and complexes.

a)

Isoelectric Line

b)

Segment

c)

Interval

d)

Fibrillation

89.

What should the default gain on an EKG machine be set to?

a)

5 mm

b)

10 mm

c)

20 mm

d)

25 mm

90.

_________is unwanted interference.

a)

Artifact

b)

Somatic Tremors

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

60 Second interference

91.

This artifact is caused by a patient shivering and can be corrected by giving them a blanket

a)

Somatic Tremor

b)

Baseline Sway or wandering baseline

c)

Broken Recording

d)

60 second interference

92.

This artifact can be removed by unplugging other machines close by, turning off phones,

a)

Somatic Tremor

b)

Baseline Sway or wandering baseline

c)

Broken Recording

d)

60 second interference

93.

This artifact is caused by lotion or sweat on the skin.

a)

Somatic Tremor

b)

Baseline Sway or wandering baseline

c)

Broken Recording

d)

60 second interference

94.

This artifact is due to bad wires, loose electrodes or cable.

a)

Broken Recording

b)

60second interference

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Somatic Tremor

95.

When should a medical professional be concerned with sinus arrest?

a)

When it lasts less than 6 seconds

b)

When it lasts more than 6 seconds

c)

When it lasts more than 10 seconds

d)

When it lasts less than 10 seconds

96.

After performing an ECG on an adult client, the nurse reports that the PR interval reflects normal sinus rhythm. What is the PR interval for a normal sinus rhythm?

a)

0.05 and 0.1 seconds.

b)

0.12 and 0.2 seconds.

c)

0.15 and 0.3 seconds.

d)

0.25 and 0.4 seconds.

97.

A nurse is caring for a client who's experiencing sinus bradycardia with a pulse rate of 40 beats/minute. The client's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and the client reports dizziness. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering to treat bradycardia?

a)

Atropine

b)

Dobutamine

c)

Amiodarone

d)

Lidocaine

98.

The QRS duration must be ___ seconds or less

a)

0.11

b)

0.12

c)

0.13

d)

0.20

e)

0.25

99.

What is the hear rate of this ECG rhytm?

a)

40

b)

70

c)

100

d)

130

100.

What is the difference between sinus arrest and sinus block?

a)

The rate

b)

The width of the P waves

c)

The number of pauses in the rhythm

d)

The number of skipped P waves

101.

What is this rhythm?

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Junctional Escape Rhythm

c)

Bigeminy

d)

Multiform PACs

102.

Occurs when the natural pacemaker site shifts between SA node, the atria, and/or the AV node.

a)

1st Degree AV Block

b)

SA Block

c)

Sinus Pause

d)

Wandering Atrial Pacemaker

103.

For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm? 

a)

Sinus Tachycardia 

b)

Supraventricular Tachycardia 

c)

Junctional Tachycardia 

d)

Premature Atrial Contraction 

104.

For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm? 

a)

Asystole 

b)

Sinus Tachycardia 

c)

Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia 

d)

Junctional Tachycardia 

105.

For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm? 

a)

Normal Sinus Rhythm with PVC 

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm with PAC 

c)

Normal Sinus Rhythm 

d)

Normal Sinus Rhythm with AVB 

106.

Name this Rhythm

a)

Atrial Fibriallation

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Supraventricular Tachycardia

d)

Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia

107.

Name this Rhythm

a)

Sinus Block

b)

Sinus Arrest

c)

Normal Sinus Rhythm w/ PAC's

d)

Wandering Atrial Pacemaker

108.

Name this Rhythm

a)

Sinus Block

b)

Sinus Arrest

c)

Normal Sinus Rhythm w/ PAC's

d)

Wandering Atrial Pacemaker

109.

A normal sinus rhythm may be characterized by which of the following characteristics?

a)

P wave duration more than 110 milliseconds

b)

P wave that is rounded and downright

c)

P wave with an amplitude of more than 2.5 mm

d)

A narrow QRS Complex

110.

A patient with hypothyroidism or a sedentary lifestyle might have an EKG reading of

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

111.

A patient with hyperthyroidism or exercising normally may experience

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

112.

This is a slight irregularity in the EKG rhythm associated with normal breathing patterns?

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

113.

This is a normal EKG rating but the heart rate is greater than 100 BPM?

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

114.

This is a normal EKG rating but the heart rate is less than 60 BPM?

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

115.

This is considered a break in the normal EKG pattern where the SA node failed to fire

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Dysrhythmia

d)

Sinus Arrest

116.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the sinoatrial (SA) Node?

a)

It can spontaneously generate an electrical impulse.

b)

It has an intrinsic rate of 40 to 60/min.

c)

It is located at the atrioventricular (AV) junction.

d)

It allows time for the ventricles to fill.

117.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Supraventricular Tachycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

118.

Which applies to Sinus Rhythm?

a)

Regular rhythm

b)

60 bpm to 100 bpm

c)

Irregular rhythm

d)

less than 60 bpm

e)

101 bpm - 180 bpm

119.

Name this rhythm...

a)

Normal SInus Rhythm

b)

Sinus Bradycardia

c)

Sinus Tachycardia

d)

Atrial Flutter

120.

Name this rhythm...

a)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

b)

2nd degree heart block

c)

Sinus Bradycardia

121.

Normal PR Interval

Normal QRS Interval

P wave is upright and uniform.

There is one p wave before each QRS complex.

Rhythm is regular.

Rate is 72.

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

sinus arrhythmia

122.

Normal PR Interval

Normal QRS Interval

P wave is upright and uniform.

There is one p wave before each QRS complex.

Rhythm is regular.

Rate is 122.

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

sinus arrhythmia

123.

Normal PR Interval

Normal QRS Interval

P wave is upright and uniform.

There is one p wave before each QRS complex.

Rhythm is irregular.

Rate is 65.

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

sinus arrhythmia

124.

Normal PR Interval

Normal QRS Interval

P wave is upright and uniform.

There is one p wave before each QRS complex.

Rhythm is regular.

Rate is 48.

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

sinus arrythmia

125.

What is the hear rate of this ECG rhytm?

a)

40

b)

70

c)

100

d)

130

126.

This rhythm would be interpreted as

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

sinus arrhythmia

127.

I am a rhythm with a rate of 104. I am irregular and my p waves are missing. Who am I?

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

sinus arrhythmia

e)

none of the above

128.

I am a rhythm with a rate of 94. I am irregular. My PR interval is normal. There is a QRS after each P wave. Who am I?

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

sinus arrhythmia

e)

none of the above

129.

I am a rhythm with a rate of 113. I am regular. My PR interval is 0.12 seconds. There is a QRS is 0.08 and there is a QRS complex after each P wave. Who am I?

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

sinus arrhythmia

e)

none of the above

130.

I am a rhythm with a rate of 53. I am regular. My PR interval is 0.14 seconds. There is a QRS is 0.10 seconds and there is a QRS complex after each P wave. Who am I?

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

sinus arrhythmia

e)

none of the above

131.

I am a rhythm with a rate of 73. I am regular. My PR interval is 0.18 seconds. There is a QRS is 0.10 seconds and there is a QRS complex after each P wave. Who am I?

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

sinus bradycardia

d)

sinus arrhythmia

e)

none of the above

132.

An ECG rhythm strip shows a ventricular rate of 46, a regular rhythm, a PR interval of 0.14 second, a QRS duration of 0.06, and one upright P wave before each QRS. This rhythm is:

a)

Sinus rhythm

b)

Sinus bradycardia

c)

Sinus arrest

d)

Sinoatrial block

133.

An ECG rhythm strip shows a ventricular rate of 128, a regular rhythm, a PR interval of 0.16 second, a QRS duration of 0.08, and one upright P wave before each QRS. This rhythm is:

a)

Sinus arrhythmia

b)

Sinus bradycardia

c)

Sinus rhythm

d)

Sinus tachycardia

134.
a)

Sinus Rhythm

b)

Sinus Brady

c)

Junctional

d)

WPW

135.

The following strip is a 6 second strip. What EKG rhythm is displayed here?

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Asystole

c)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

d)

Sinus Tachycardia

136.

Represents the delay or interruption, intermittent or permanent, of the electrical impulse from SA node to the atria.

a)

1st Degree AV Block

b)

Sinus Pause

c)

Sino-Atrial Block

d)

Sinus Arrest

137.

Medical condition where SA node ceases to generate the electrical impulses that normally stimulate the tissues for heart conduction.

a)

Sinus Arrhythmia

b)

1st Degree AV Block

c)

Sinus Arrest

d)

Sino-Atrial Block

138.

What is the purpose of the valves in the heart?

a)

To keep the blood flowing in only one direction

b)

To prevent pathogens from entering the heart

c)

To separate the heart into two sides

d)

To control how fast the heart beats

139.

Which chamber of the heart contracts to send blood to the pulmonary artery and lungs?

a)

Left Atrium

b)

Right Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

140.

Which chamber of the heart contracts to send oxygenated blood through the aortic valve and out to the body's cells?

a)

Left Atrium

b)

Right Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

141.

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

a)

Left Atrium

b)

Right Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

142.

What is the relaxation phase of a heartbeat?

a)

systole

b)

diastole

c)

fibrillation

d)

flutter

143.

What is the contraction phase of a heartbeat?

a)

systole

b)

diastole

c)

fibrillation

d)

flutter

144.

What part of the myocardium is the thickest?

a)

RIght Atrium

b)

Left Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

145.

Where are the dominant pacemaker cells located in the heart?

a)

RIght Atrium

b)

Left Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

146.

What layer is the innermost layer of the heart?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Endocardium

147.

What layer is the outermost layer of the heart?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Endocardium

148.

What layer is the thickest layer of the heart, and it is responsible for the contraction of the muscle.?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Endocardium

149.

What layer serves as a support system for the heart and contains a small amount of fluid to prevent friction between the layers of the heart?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Endocardium

150.

What term refers to heart rate and essentially means anything that can change it?

a)

Chronotrophy

b)

Inotrophy

c)

Repolarization

d)

Dromotrophy