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Worksheetsstage 2 review
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 30mins
That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
A. landing.
B. taxiing and takeoff.
C.taxiing and landing.
What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
A.“A” may be used for taxi and takeoff; “E” may be used only as an overrun.
B.“A” may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; “E” may be used only as an overrun.
C.“A” may be used only for taxiing; “E” may be used for all operations except landings.
Enhanced taxiway centerline markings are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to the runway holding position markings?
A.50
B.100
C.150
(Refer to F.) This sign confirms your position on
A.runway 22.
B.routing to runway 22.
C.taxiway 22.
From the flight deck, this marking confirms the aircraft to be
A. on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone.
B.on a runway, about to clear.
C.near an instrument approach clearance zone.
What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?
A.Provides general taxiing direction to named runway.
B.Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
C.Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
A.white and green alternating flashes.
B.two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
C.green, yellow, and white flashes.
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it
A.one time within 4 seconds.
B.three times within 3 seconds.
C.five times within 5 seconds.
he arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
A.may be used only for taxiing.
B.is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
C.cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.
A.Left-hand traffic and Runway 18.
B.Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.
C.Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
A.45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.
B.to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
C.to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
A.rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path.
B.rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.
C.sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
A.Inward, upward, and around each tip.
B.Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.
C.Outward, upward, and around each tip.
he greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
A.light, dirty, and fast.
B.heavy, dirty, and fast.
C.heavy, clean, and slow.
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
A.check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
B.visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
C.announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
Most midair collision accidents occur during
A.hazy days.
B.clear days.
C.cloudy nights.
ADS-B equipment offers many benefits to pilots; however, the range of coverage for air traffic controllers is
A.limited, and often worse than radar.
B.restricted in remote areas such as mountainous terrain.
C.often better than radar, even in remote areas.
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed
A.via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9.
B.to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
C.via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
A.pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction.
B.nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion.
C.noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally
A.10 NM.
B.20 NM.
C.30 NM.
RSA Service in the terminal radar program provides
A.IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft.
B.warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
C.sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
A.Clearance delivery.
B.Tower, just before takeoff.
C.Ground control, on initial contact.
What is the appropriate transponder code in response to lost communications?
A.7400
B.7500
C.7600
At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which transponder code should be selected?
A.Mode A/3, Code 1200.
B.Mode F, Code 1200.
C.Mode C, Code 4096.
Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in Class E airspace?
A.1200, Mode A/3.
B.1200, Mode F.
C.4600, Mode S.
When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester FSS is
A.“MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.”
B.“MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.”
C.“MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.”
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
A.“FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.”
B.“FOUR POINT FIVE.”
C.“FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL.”
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°:
“TRAFFIC 3 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...”
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A.East.
B.South.
C.West.
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:
“TRAFFIC 9 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...”
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A.South.
B.North.
C.West.
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
A.taxi at a faster speed.
B.taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.
C.return to the starting point on the airport.
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be
A.flashing red.
B.steady red.
C.alternating red and green.
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
A.118.0 MHz.
B.406 MHz.
C.123.0 MHz.
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
A.500 feet.
B.1,000 feet.
C.1,500 feet.
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
A.The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
B.The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
C.The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
(Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport.
A.47°02'N – 116°11'W.
B.47°33'N – 116°11'W.
C.47°32'N – 116°41'W.
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
A. Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.
B.Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.
C.The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.
(Refer to Area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude?
A.Underwood.
B.Pietsch.
C.Washburn.
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
A.1,000 feet AGL.
B.2,000 feet AGL.
C.3,000 feet AGL.
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
A. filed a IFR flight plan.
B. received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
C.received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
A.Commerce (Area 6) and Rockwall (Area 1).
B.Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5).
C.Commerce (Area 6) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5).
Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?
A.Minot Int’l (Area 1).
B.Garrison (Area 2).
C.Mercer County Regional Airport (Area 3).
s standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
A.25 miles.
B.20 miles.
C. 10 miles.
Refer to Area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
A.122.95 MHz.
B.126.0 MHz.
C.133.4 MHz.
(Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport?
A. Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure.
B.Contact Elizabeth City tower on 120.5.
C.Radio need not be used.
FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by
A. distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
B.downloading them from the FAA website.
C.subscribing to the Federal Register.
Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
A.Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation.
B.Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation.
C.Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). Is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport?
A.Yes, whenever the airport is attended by airport personnel.
B.No, as there is no “star” symbol near the airport on the chart, there is no fuel available at this airport.
C.Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only.
What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL?
Answers
A.A dashed blue circle around an airport.
B.A solid magenta circle around an airport.
C.A magenta vignette that goes around an airport.
When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in
A.FDC NOTAMs.
B.NOTAM (D) distribution.
C.Pointer NOTAMs.
Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?
A. Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical charts, and (D) NOTAMs.
B.Chart Supplement and FDC NOTAMs.
C.Chart Supplement and (D) NOTAMs.
Where can locations for VOR test facilities be found?
A.Aeronautical Information Manual.
B.Sectional charts.
C.Chart Supplement.
What should the airborne accuracy of a VOR be?
A.±4°
B.±5°
C.±6°
The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR/DME (area 3 in Figure 20), and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro, a small town 3 NM west of Currituck County Regional (ONX). Which VOR indication is correct?
A.5
B.2
C.8
(Refer to illustration 5.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?
A.030°.
B.210°.
C.300°.
The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3 in Figure 24) and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5 in Figure 24). Which VOR indication is correct?
A.1
B.8
C.7
How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?
A.5
B.6
C.4
Which of the following is a true statement concerning the Global Positioning System?
A. Advances in technology make it possible to rely completely on GPS units.
B.GPS databases and paper navigational charts are updated at the same time.
C.Navigating by GPS must be integrated with other forms of navigation.
What procedure could a pilot use to navigate under VFR from one point to another when ground references are not visible?
A. Dead reckoning.
B.Pilotage.
C.VFR is not allowed in these circumstances.
(Refer to Area 2.) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)?
A.A private airport with a grass runway.
B.A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface.
C.An abandoned paved airport having landmark value.
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
A.60
B.70
C.90
