wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

District CFA practice

Total questions: 201

Worksheet time: 3hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which object has the most elastic potential energy?

a)

a hanging leaf

b)

a burning coal

c)

a rolling ball

d)

a stretched bow

2.

Which number shows least amount of gravitational potential energy?

a)

three

b)

two

c)

four

d)

five

3.

When a pendulum swings, at which point is potential energy at its greatest?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1 and 5

4.

The roller coaster cart has the most kinetic energy at position-

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

5.

Where would this tossed baseball have the least amount of kinetic energy?

a)

Point W

b)

Point X

c)

Point Y

d)

Point Z

6.

As a pendulum swings from its highest to lowest position, what happens to its kinetic and potential energy?

a)

Both the potential energy and kinetic energy decrease

b)

The potential energy decreases while the kinetic energy increases

c)

The kinetic energy decreases while the potential energy increases

d)

Both the potential energy and kinetic energy increase

7.

If all objects are moving as the same speed, which would have the greatest kinetic energy?

a)

tennis ball

b)

football

c)

notebook

d)

Box of 20 textbooks

8.

A student creates a ramp by stacking four blocks and then leaning a meter stick against it. She releases four different balls from the same position on the ramp and calculates their speeds. Based on the information in the table below, which ball would you predict to have the LEAST kinetic energy when it reaches the end of the ramp?

a)

Golf

b)

Tennis

c)

Baseball

d)

Softball

9.

The image below shows four soccer balls at different locations on an uneven soccer field. Which ball has the greatest amount of KINETIC energy?

a)

Ball A

b)

Ball B

c)

Ball C

d)

Ball D

10.

A hot air balloon rising is an example of ...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

connection

11.

GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL ENERGY DEPENDS ON

a)

MASS AND VELOCITY

b)

MASS AND WEIGHT

c)

MASS AND HEIGHT

d)

HEIGHT AND DISTANCE

12.
WHEN AN ARCHER BENDS A BOW, WHAT TYPE OF ENERGY INCREASES IN THE BOW?
a)
GRAVITATIONAL
b)
ELASTIC
c)
KINETIC
d)
THERMAL
13.

What type of heat transfer takes place in liquids and gasses?

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Thermal Equilibrium

14.
what is conduction?
a)
direct touch
b)
air or liquids
c)
heat waves/ light waves
d)
drinking hot coffee
15.
what is radiation?
a)
direct touch
b)
air or liquids
c)
heat waves/ light waves
d)
touching the cookies out of the oven
16.
What is the definition of CONDUCTION?
a)
When heat is transferred from objects like rays of light or electromagnetically.
b)
a  hot liquid or air that  expands, becomes less dense, and rises or becomes more dense, and sinks.
c)
When heat transfers from objects that are touching.
d)
When heat transfers through the heater or AC in your house.
17.

What is the definition of CONVECTION

a)

When heat transfers through waves.

b)

When heat transfers from objects that are touching.

c)

warm fluid rises; cool fluid sinks

d)

Heat traveling from the sun

18.

What are a circular system of currents in the Earth's major oceans?

a)

ocean current

b)

gyre

c)

upwelling

d)

conveyor belt

19.
What are two things that drive the global conveyor belt?
a)
salinity and temperature
b)
temperature and tides
c)
the moon and salinity
d)
temperature and the moon
20.
As salinity  increases
a)
Density increases
b)
Density decreases
21.
When an object or substance is cooler, its particles move slower and are closer together True Or False
a)
True
b)
False
22.
When an object or substance is warmer, its particles move faster and get further apart (Tip for remembering: they are warmer and want to get cooler by moving away from one another)  True or False
a)
True
b)
False
23.

What does the blue line represent in the Thermohaline circulation?

a)

Warm salty water

b)

Warm water

c)

Cold water

d)

Cold salty water

24.
Constantly moving system of deep-ocean circulation driven by temperature and salinity. It moves water around the globe.
a)
California Current
b)
Global Conveyor Belt
c)
Surface Currents
d)
Gulf Stream
25.
A strong surface current that runs along the east coast of the United States and carries warm water to Europe.
a)
California Current
b)
Global Conveyor Belt
c)
Gulf Stream
d)
Surface Current
26.
A cool current in the Pacific Ocean near North America that brings cold water down from Canada.
a)
California Current
b)
Global Conveyor Belt
c)
Gulf Stream
d)
Surface Current
27.

The more scientific name of the Global Conveyor Belt is _____.

a)

halinethermal circulation

b)

thermohaline circulation

c)

thermodensity circulation

28.

Cold and salty water would sink faster than hot water because of the density.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What causes convection currents to occur on Earth?

a)

cool air rising, warm air sinking

b)

cool air rising, warm air rising

c)

warm air rising, cool air sinking

d)

warm air sinking, cool air sinking

30.

What causes differences in air movement?

a)

Equal heating of the Earth

b)

Equal cooling of the earth

c)

Uneuqal heating of the earth

31.

The Coriolis Effect is caused by what?

a)

The wind blowing

b)

Earth's gravity pulling things down

c)

The rotation of the Earth

d)

The pull of the Moon

32.
What is the Coriolis Effect and how does it effect global winds?
a)
Curving of winds due to rotation of earth curves wind counterclockwise in Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere
b)
Movement of ocean currents caused by earth rotation' counterclockwise in Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in Southern Hemisphere
c)
curve of global winds caused by global rotation clockwise in Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in Southern Hemisphere
33.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
34.

All locations on the planet do NOT heat evenly.

Where would we expect to find warmer areas on Earth?

a)

Near the equator

b)

Near the poles

35.

What surfaces on Earth heat more slowly?

a)

Areas over land heat more slowly

b)

Areas over water heat more slowly.

36.

What parts of the planet would be cooler?

a)

Near the equator

b)

Near the poles

37.

Air that cools becomes ___

a)

less dense and rises.

b)

less dense and sinks.

c)

more dense and sinks.

d)

more dense and rises.

38.

Air that is heated becomes ___

a)

less dense and rises.

b)

less dense and sinks.

c)

more dense and sinks.

d)

more dense and rises.

39.

The rotation of the Earth causes winds to bend due to the...

a)

coriolis effect

b)

doldrums

c)

trade winds

d)

westerlies

40.

Winds occur because hot air rises and cool air sinks in a process called...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

magnetism

41.

A student examines a map showing the flow of ocean currents throughout the world.

What would be the major consequence if global current circulation stops?

a)

The climates of the coastal equatorial regions would become colder and wetter, and the climates of the coastal polar regions would become warmer and dryer.

b)

The climates of the coastal equatorial regions would become hotter and and the climates of the coastal polar regions would become colder

c)

The climates of the coastal equatorial regions would become hotter and wetter, and the climates of the coastal polar regions would become colder and dryer.

d)

The climates of the coastal equatorial regions would become colder and drier, and the climates of the coastal polar regions would become warmer and wetter.

42.

The diagram shows the movement of air at the beach on a hot day.

Which statement about air movement in the diagram is true?

a)

Air movement over the land and water is caused by unequal heating of Earth's surface.

b)

Air over water cools more quickly than air over land, causing rising and falling air masses.

c)

The tides and currents in the ocean affect the movement of air masses above both land and water.

d)

Energy from organisms on land and water have an effect on the movement of air masses.

43.

Why does a convection current begin over the equatorial region?

a)

Equatorial latitudes receive more direct sunlight, and this energy is re-radiated from the land as it cools in the form of cooler air, which falls.

b)

Equatorial latitudes receive indirect sunlight, and this energy is re-radiated from the land as it cools in the form of cooler air, which rises.

c)

Equatorial latitudes receive more direct sunlight, and this energy is re-radiated from the land as it cools in the form of warmer air, which rises

d)

Equatorial latitudes receive indirect sunlight, and this energy is re-radiated from the land as it cools in the form of warmer air, which falls.

44.

A dam was created across a river to meet the power needs of an area. What is the most likely environmental impact of the construction?

a)

disturbances to plant and animal habitats

b)

decreased water levels behind the dam

c)

contamination of groundwater resources

d)

increased temperature due to exhaust gases

45.

Describe the air on the windward side of a mountain.

a)

dry

b)

hot

c)

moist

d)

cold

46.

Describe the air on the leeward side of a mountain.

a)

cold

b)

warm

c)

dry

d)

moist

47.

The air on the windward side of a mountain is moist because it is close to

a)

an ocean

b)

a puddle

c)

a desert

d)

a river

48.

The leeward side is _____________ a body of water.

a)

facing

b)

next to

c)

not near

d)

around

49.

Increased urbanization/industrialization will most likely

a)

increase environmental carrying capacity for native species

b)

decrease runoff in urban areas

c)

increase the stability of ecosystems

d)

decrease global warming

50.
The use of pesticides and fertilizers is carefully monitored 
because of the effect they can have on the environment. 
Which of the following is a possible negative effect of the use 
of these chemical on the environment?
a)
Runoff carries these chemicals into lakes and streams.
b)
Theses chemicals cannot be purchased in large bulk.
c)

These chemicals are expensive to produce.
d)
Storage space for these chemicals is limited.
51.

What type of pollution can stormwater carry?

a)

toxic chemicals

b)

E.coli bacteria

c)

sediment

d)

nutrients

e)

All are correct

52.

A car internal combustion engine's job is to

a)

convert fuel into heat

b)

convert petroleum/fuel into motion

c)

convert fuel into exhaust

53.
Corn, wheat, and soybeans can be made into a substance called ethanol. In some places, ethanol is part of a mixture used to power cars and trucks. What type of alternative energy resource is ethanol?
a)
Hydroelectric
b)
Geothermal
c)
Biofuels
d)
Solar
54.
Electric cars could reduce
a)
urban pollution
b)
greenhouse gas emissions
c)
both answers
d)
neither answer
55.
Internal combustion engines are run on
a)
gasoline
b)
batteries
c)
fuel cells
d)
none of the above
56.
What process occurs when coal (fossil fuel) is used for energy?
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Pressurization 
d)
Respiration 
57.

Radioactive waste can be hazardous to the environment if mishandled

a)

Advantage: NUCLEAR

b)

Disadvantage: NUCLEAR

c)

Advantage: NATURAL GAS

d)

Disadvantage: NATURAL GAS

58.

What is one con (bad thing) about nuclear energy?

a)

It creates radioactive waste

b)

It does NOT create carbon dioxide

c)

It takes just a small amount of uranium to create a lot of energy

59.

One problem with ____ fuels is that it produces nuclear waste. 

a)

nuclear

b)

solar

c)

tidal

d)

geothermal

60.

What type of energy is demonstrated at A and C?

a)

Potential and kinetic is the same

b)

Kinetic energy

c)

Potential energy

d)

No energy

61.

What type of weather is generally associated with a low pressure system?

a)

fair-weather, beautiful clear skies

b)

Cloudy skies, some moist air, possible precipitation, stormy weather

c)

cloudy skies, dry air

d)

cloudy with a chance of meatballs

62.
Which city is experiencing thunderstorms?
a)
Denver
b)
New York 
c)
Miami 
d)
Boise
63.
Which city is currently experiencing a snow storm?
a)
Seattle
b)
Los Angeles
c)
Chicago
d)
New York
64.
Which city has the highest the highest temperature?
a)
Dallas
b)
Chicago
c)
Los Angeles
d)
Miami
65.
A cold front is approaching Minneapolis. What will happen to the air temperature?
a)
stay the same
b)
increase
c)
decrease
66.
What direction is the cold front moving?
a)
Northwest
b)
Southeast
c)
Northeast
d)
Southwest
67.

Tim said that Chicago is most likely to experience rainy weather. Jennifer thinks that Dallas is most likely to experience rainy weather.

Which student is correct?

a)

Tim because Chicago is the closest to a low pressure system and they produce precipitation.

b)

Jennifer because high pressure systems produce precipitation

c)

Both students are correct because all systems produce precipitation

d)

Neither of the students are correct because the cities are not close enough to the system.

68.

Should the "?" be replaced with an "H" or an "L"?

a)

"L" because the fronts near this location do not create precipitation and low pressure systems bring precipitation.

b)

"L" because the fronts near the location produce precipitation and low pressure systems bring precipitation

c)

"H" because the fronts near this location create precipitation and high pressure systems bring precipitation.

d)

"H" because the fronts near this location create precipitation and high pressure systems do not bring precipitation.

69.
A cold, dry air mass would be called - 
a)
continental tropic
b)
continental polar
c)
maritime polar
d)
continental maritime
70.
When a warm air mass and a cold air mass meet, but they push at each other and neither one can move, it is called a/an - 
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
occluded front
d)
stationary front
71.
When a fast moving cold air mass moves into a slower moving warm air mass, we may experience severe storms and we will have cooler weather. What type of front is this?
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
occluded front
d)
stationary front
72.
When a warm air mass slides on top of a cold air mass, and you have drizzly rain and then warmer weather, what type of front is it?
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
occluded front
d)
stationary front
73.
A/An ____ is a large body of air that has the same properties as the Earth's surface over which it develops.
a)
front
b)
air mass
c)
cloud
d)
tornado 
74.
What type of weather would a continental tropical air mass bring?
a)
dry and cold weather
b)
wet and cold weather
c)
dry and warm weather
d)
wet and warm weather
75.
An air mass that formed over the ocean near the equator would probably be - 
a)
maritime polar
b)
maritime tropical
c)
continental polar
d)
continental tropical
76.
A wet, cold air mass would be - 
a)
maritime tropical 
b)
maritime polar
c)
continental tropical 
d)
continental polar
77.
What type of front is this? 
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
78.
What type of storm front is this?
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
79.
What type of weather would you expect to see after a warm front has passed through an area?
a)
cool and clear skies
b)
warm and humid
c)
thunderstorms
d)
foggy
80.
What type of weather would you expect to see after a cold front has passed through an area?
a)
cool and clear skies
b)
warm and humid
c)
thunderstorms
d)
foggy
81.

Warm Water Currents begin near the _____________and travel to the______________.

a)

Poles; Equator

b)

Equator; Equator

c)

Poles; Poles

d)

Equator; Poles

82.

Cold Water Currents begin near the _____________and travel to the______________.

a)

Poles; Equator

b)

Equator; Equator

c)

Poles; Poles

d)

Equator; Poles

83.
The warm, strong current off the coast of Florida is the 
a)
Gulf Stream
b)
California Current
c)
North Equatorial Current
d)
Brazil Current
84.
A cool current in the Pacific Ocean near North America that brings cold water down from Canada.
a)
California Current
b)
Global Conveyor Belt
c)
Gulf Stream
d)
Surface Current
85.
Which of the following organisms is a herbivore.
a)
butterfly
b)
snake
c)
fox
d)
ladybird
86.
Which of the following organisms is a carnivore.
a)
greenfly
b)
titmouse
c)
mouse
d)
buzzard
87.
The owl receives energy from which organisms?
a)
grasshopper and mouse
b)
mouse and rabbit
c)
rabbit and butterfly
d)
butterfly and frog
88.
How many predators does the squid have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
89.
Name the producers in this food web.
a)
seagull and fish
b)
penguin and crab
c)
phytoplankton and seaweed
d)
seaweed and zooplankton
90.
The krill is eaten by which consumer?
a)
blue whale
b)
phytoplankton
c)
leopard seal
d)
penguin
91.
Which one is NOT an example of a decomposer?
a)
mushroom
b)
leaves
c)
mold
d)
worm
92.
In the energy pyramid here, which organisms have the most energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Top Predator
93.
What is another name for producer?
a)
consumer
b)
herbivore
c)
autotroph
d)
lichen
94.

What does a primary consumer eat?

a)

tertiary consumers

b)

secondary consumers

c)

producers

d)

decomposers

95.

Which organisms needs to find it's own food?

a)

autotroph

b)

hetertroph

96.
In the energy pyramid below, which organism has the least amount of energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Top Predator
97.

How are primary consumers different from secondary consumers?

a)

Primary consumers eat only plants; secondary consumers eat other consumers.

b)

Primary consumers eat other consumers; secondary consumers eat only plants.

c)

Primary consumers eat plants and other consumers; secondary consumers eat plants and decompose matter.

d)

Primary consumers eat plants and decompose matter; secondary consumers eat plants and other consumers.

98.

The most important abiotic factors when studying biomes are...

a)

Soil and Freshwater

b)

Producers and Consumers

c)

Native Plants and Animals

d)

Precipitation and Temperature

99.
Multiple organisms of the same species describes a
a)
organism
b)
population
c)
community
d)
ecosystem
100.
A forest full of many kinds of trees and grasses is an example of a
a)
group
b)
organism
c)
population
d)
community
101.
Which is an example of a population?
a)
different kinds of bacteria
b)
A group of fish and sharks
c)
deer, bear, and rabbits
d)
A herd of cattle
102.
which is the correct order of the levels of organization from simple to complex?
a)
organism, population, community, ecosystem
b)
ecosystem, community, population, organism
103.

Which of the following is a tertiary consumer?

a)

hawk

b)

mouse

c)

moth

d)

spider

104.

What % of energy is passed from organism to organism?

a)

100%

b)

10%

c)

5%

d)

25%

105.

The number of organisms at the top of the energy pyramid are usually smaller because the hawk

a)

needs more energy

b)

has more predators

c)

have more offspring

d)

eat producers

106.

The arrows on a food web...

a)

...show who moving where

b)

...shows the direction the energy is moving to

c)

...shows who is wasting energy

d)

...shows who is friends with who

107.

If the MOUSE disappeared from this food chain, which animal would have less to eat?

a)

Grass

b)

Grasshopper

c)

Mouse

d)

Owl

108.

If the temperature rose and all of the FISH died, what would most likely happen to the number of SEALs?

a)

Seals would increase and then decrease.

b)

The number of seals would not change.

c)

The number of seals would increase.

d)

The number of seals would decrease.

109.
If the grasshopper were to be removed completely from the food web, what organism would be most effected?
a)
The squirrel
b)
The shrew
c)
The deer
d)
The rabbit
110.
The _________________ is maximum number of individuals of one species that the environment can support. 
a)
emigration
b)
limiting factor
c)
carrying capacity
d)
immigration
111.
A part of the environment that keeps a population's size at a level below its full potential is called a _________________ .
a)
cooperation
b)
limiting factor
c)
competition
d)
carrying capacity
112.
When two or more individuals or populations try to use the same limited resource (e.g. food, water, shelter, sunlight) it is called_________________
a)
cooperation
b)
symbiosis
c)
competition
d)
limiting factor
113.
___________________ occurs when individuals work together.
a)
immigration
b)
cooperation
c)
carrying capacity
d)
competition
114.
Individuals joining a population is an example of ______________
a)
emigration
b)
immigration
115.
A population increases when_________________
a)
individuals die
b)
individuals are born
c)
individuals emigrate
116.

What causes competition to occur in an environment?

a)

Good conditions make resources plentiful.

b)

Organisms struggle for a limited resource.

c)

Members of a population have different roles.

d)

A population falls below the environment’s carrying capacity.

117.

What is one way that cooperation helps lions to survive?

a)

They hunt in a group to increase their likelihood of catching prey.

b)

They all have a tan color that helps them blend into their environment.

c)

They eat a variety of prey, including zebras, buffaloes, and wildebeest.

d)

They live in prides of five to ten adult females and their young, and one or two adult males.

118.
When a population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?
a)
Continues to grow
b)
The population starts to die off to return to carrying capcity
c)
The population will go extinct due to lack of resources
d)
The population grows then finds a new carrying capacity
119.
When organisms leave a population and move away
a)
Emigration
b)
Immigration
c)
Birth Rate
d)
Death Rate
120.
From 1901-1981 how would you describe the Raven Population
a)
Below Carrying Capacity
b)
Above Carrying Capacity
c)
At Carrying Capacity
d)
Bird-Like
121.
In 1975 how would you describe the Wolf Population
a)
Above Carrying Capacity
b)
Below Carrying Capacity
c)
At carrying Capacity
d)
Mr. Samuelson's Mom
122.
A substance needed by an organism for survival
a)
Competition
b)
Carrying Capacity
c)
Cheetos
d)
Resource
123.
2 factors which decrease population size
a)
Birth Rate, Immigration
b)
Death Rate, Immigration
c)
Birth Rate, Emigration
d)
Death Rate, Emigration
124.
An animal population decreases from 800 individuals to 600 individuals. Which of the following could explain this change in population size? 
a)
 The population size of the animal’s predator increased. 
b)
 The emigration rate of the animals from the population decreased. 
c)
The number of breeding pairs in the animal’s population increased. 
d)
The number of species competing with the animal for food decreased.  
125.
 On remote islands, immigration and emigration usually do not have a large effect on population sizes. A bird population on a remote island remains at a relatively constant size year after year. Which of the following most likely describes the birthrate and the death rate for this population? 
a)
 Birthrate and death rate are both zero 
b)
 Birthrate and death rate are close to equal. 
c)
Birthrate is significantly less than death rate. 
d)
Birthrate is significantly greater than death rate. 
126.
Mullet are local estuarine fish that move in schools and feed on plankton and plant matter. Natural predators of the mullet include spotted sea trout, sharks, pelicans and dolphins. The graph below shows how the number of mullet in an area has changed over time. 
Based on the data, one student concludes that a new predator was introduced into the area during this time period. Which of the following is a likely alternate explanation for the change in the mullet population?
a)
mullet prey increased in the area
b)
 mullet parasites decreased in the area
c)
the temperature of the area increased
d)
the amount of aquatic plants in the area decreased
127.

The side of a mountain range that faces the oncoming wind and receives precipitation:

a)

Climate

b)

Windward

c)

Leeward

d)

Monsoon

128.

The side of a mountain range that faces away from the wind and receives little to no precipitation:

a)

Windward

b)

Leeward

c)

Monsoon

d)

Climate

129.

What is the difference between climate and weather?

a)

climate happens in that moment, weather happens over time

b)

weather happens in that moment, climate happens over time

c)

No difference, they mean the same thing.

130.

The higher the altitude of a city, the _______________ the temperatures are.

a)

hotter

b)

colder

c)

more consistent

d)

weirder

131.

What does "latitude" refer to?

a)

the distance away from the Equator

b)

how much rain a place gets

c)

how high up a mountain a place is

d)

the number of seasons a place gets

132.

Climate is affected by many factors including:

a)

latitude, elevation, and proximity to bodies of water

b)

tides and currents

c)

wind

d)

snow and sleet

133.

Which two factors determine the climate in a particular region?

a)

temperature and latitude

b)

precipitation and humidity

c)

temperature and precipitation

d)

humidity and air pressure

134.

Which location has a higher elevation?

a)

A

b)

B

135.

Which location has warmer temperatures?

a)

A

b)

B

136.

As elevation _________________, temperature ___________________.

a)

increases; increases

b)

increases; decreases

137.

Which location has would have a warmer climate?

a)

A

b)

B

138.

On which side of the mountian would you most likely find humid air and green plants?

a)

A

b)

B

139.

On which side of the mountian would you most likely find dry, desert conditions?

a)

A

b)

B

140.

Which city will have a cooler average temperature

a)

Chapel Hill

b)

Havana

141.

What factor is influencing the temperature of these two cities

a)

Latitude

b)

Altitude

c)

Distance from Large Body of Water

d)

Ocean Currents

142.

How does the windward side differ from the leeward side?

a)

A. The windward side receives more precipitation than leeward side.

b)

B. The leeward side has more vegetation than the windward side.

c)

C. The windward side receives more heat than the leeward side.

d)

D. The leeward side receives more precipitation than the windward side.

143.

The climographs above are for 2 cities that are located at similar latitudes and elevation. Which climograph BEST describes the average temperatures of a city located near a large body of water?

a)

climograph A since it has a narrower range in temperatures

b)

climograph B since it has abundant rainfall all year

c)

both climographs since the two cities are at the same latitude

d)

both climographs since the two cities are at similar elevation

144.
An organism that is killed and eaten by another organism
a)
Predator
b)
Prey
c)
Competition
d)
Adaptation
145.
Barn owls hunt shrews. In this example what is a barn owl?
a)
Herbivore/Predator
b)
Carnivore/Prey
c)
Carnivore/Predator
146.
How do consumers get their energy? 
a)
laying in the sun
b)
eating other organisms 
c)
providing food for other organisms
d)
surviving in an ecosystem 
147.
A consumer that hunts is called:
a)
a producer.
b)
an omnivore.
c)
a predator.
d)
a herbivore.
148.
Barnacles create home sites by attaching themselves to whales. This relationship neither harms nor benefits the whales. 
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
149.
Yucca flowers are pollinated by yucca moths. The moths lay their eggs in the flowers where the larvae hatch and eat some of the developing seeds. Both species benefit. 
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
150.
Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients from a spruce tree. The spruce tree is harmed. 
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
151.
 The stork uses it saw-like bill to cut up the dead animals it eats. As a result, the dead animal carcass is accessible to some bees for food and egg laying. The relationship neither harms nor benefits the stork.
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
152.

Which of the following shows the symbiotic relationship between the Rodent and the Bird?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Competition

153.
In a parasitic relationship, one organism is ___________ and one organism is benefiting. 
a)
helped
b)
harmed
c)
not effected
d)
happy
154.
In a mutual relationship, both organisms are ________________. 
a)
hurt
b)
not effected
c)
harmed
d)
benefiting 
155.
Commensalism is where one organism is benefiting and the other organism is _____________________. 
a)
not effected
b)
helped
c)
harmed
d)
hurt
156.
A tick is a parasite to a horse. Which statement best describes the relationship between the tick and the horse? 
a)
a.  The tick helps the horse get food. 
b)
a.  The tick harms the horse by feeding on its blood. 
c)
a.  The horse harms the tick by feeding on its blood. 
d)
The tick does not affect the horse. 
157.

All of the following are visual communication examples EXCEPT...

a)

sage grouse mating dance

b)

shaking of a rattlesnake tail

c)

howl of a wolf

d)

lightning bug glowing

158.

The purpose of visual communication is to...

a)

ward off predators

b)

attract a mate

c)

locate food

d)

all of the answers above

159.

A graph displaying the population of an organism and its predator's population over time looks like which of the following?

a)
b)
c)
d)
160.

When the population density of an ecosystem gets too high,

a)

organisms don't have enough food

b)

there is not enough space for all the inhabitants living there

c)

the water available becomes a limited resource

d)

all of the above

161.

When ants follow pheromones left by other ants, this is an example of __________________ communication.

a)

Visual

b)

Auditory

c)

Tactile

d)

Chemical

162.

Which answer choices are examples of tactile communication? (Choose 2 answers.)

a)

Wolves howling at the moon

b)

A bee uses to waggle dance to communicate that a source of pollen has been found

c)

Friends greet one another with a high-five

d)

A gorilla grooms another gorilla

163.

Which is an example of auditory communication?

a)

Dolphins use whistles to communicate with other dolphins

b)

A wolf rolls on his back to show submission

c)

A cat strokes his head on furniture to mark it as his territory

d)

Frogs hide in leaves of the same color

164.

When a mother cat comforts her kitten through touch, this is ____________________ communication.

a)

visual

b)

auditory

c)

pheromones

d)

tactile

165.

What is permafrost?

a)

soil that has thawed

b)

soils that is always frozen

c)

a plant in the tundra

d)

muddy soil

166.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a wetland?

a)

Animals cannot live there.

b)

They help control floods.

c)

They are good to build on.

d)

They have fast-moving water

167.

Which of the following describes marshes?

a)

an area with many trees

b)

an area with no animals

c)

found in shallow areas near shores

d)

an area with few grasses or reeds

168.

How do swamps differ from marshes?

a)

Swamps are near rivers.

b)

Swamps have many birds.

c)

Swamps are very wet.

d)

Swamps have trees.

169.

What biome has cold winters, cool summers, and 4 seasons?

a)

deciduous forest

b)

desert

c)

grassland

d)

coniferous forest

170.

What biome is home to bison and cheetahs?

a)

deciduous forest

b)

grassland

c)

tundra

d)

desert

171.

Where would you find permanently frozen ground (permafrost)?

a)

grassland

b)

desert

c)

tropical rain forest

d)

tundra

172.

In which biome do we live?

a)

tropical rain forest

b)

deciduous forest

c)

grassland

d)

desert

173.

Which biome is also known as savanna, plains, and steppes?

a)

grassland

b)

desert

c)

tundra

d)

coniferous forest

174.

Where would you find fleshy stemmed plants that have roots close to the ground surface to absorb water quickly?

a)

tropical rain forest

b)

deciduous forest

c)

coniferous forest

d)

desert

175.

Because of overplanting and overgrazing due to farms and ranches, this biome is in danger of desertification (creating desert conditions).

a)

desert

b)

tropical rain forest

c)

tundra

d)

grassland

176.

What biome has more variety of plant and animal life than any other land biome?

a)

desert

b)

tundra

c)

tropical rain forest

d)

deciduous forest

177.

Which biome contains large populations of grazing herbivores, few species of birds, and deep, rich soil?

a)

taiga

b)

tundra

c)

deciduous forest

d)

grassland

178.

The most important abiotic factors when studying biomes are...

a)

Soil and Freshwater

b)

Producers and Consumers

c)

Native Plants and Animals

d)

Precipitation and Temperature

179.

Which biome has deciduous trees (that lose their leaves in the fall)?

a)

Temperate Forest

b)

Rainforest

c)

Grasslands

d)

Taiga

180.

Which biome is home to cacti, scorpions, coyotes, kangaroo rats, and lizards?

a)

Desert

b)

Grasslands

c)

Temperate Forest

d)

Taiga

181.

lichens, mosses, grasses, and other low-growing plants are common vegetation in this biome due to the permafrost, low rainfall, and very cold temperatures.

a)

Desert

b)

Taiga

c)

Tundra

d)

Grasslands

182.

An organism has thick white fur, a bushy tail, and short ears. It often burrows holes and curls into a ball for warmth. To which biome is this organism most likely adapted?

a)

Grassland

b)

Tundra

c)

Taigia

d)

Desert

183.

This biome, also called a boreal forest, has dense forests of conifers (cone-bearing evergreen trees). Temperatures are cold, but soil is not completely frozen.

a)

Tundra

b)

Taiga

c)

Temperate Forest

d)

Grasslands

184.

Which adaptation would best assist some desert animals stay cool?

a)

Short, thick fur

b)

Long ears

c)

Short ears

d)

Long Tail

185.
How do jackrabbits adapt to the desert heat?
a)
They run quickly to the shade.
b)
They release heat through their long ears to stay cool.
c)
They have short fur.
186.
How do desert lizards adapt to not having very much water in the desert?
a)
They dig holes in the dry streambeds for water.
b)
They have tough scaly skin to keep the water in their body.
c)
They nibble wildflowers.
187.
What animals are active during the day in the desert?
a)
tortoises
b)
ants, grasshoppers, spiders, beetles
c)
kangaroo rats
d)
foxes
188.

Which biome has trees that lose their leaves in the fall?

a)

Deciduous or Temperate Forest

b)

Rainforest

c)

Grasslands

d)

Taiga

189.

This biome has dense forests of conifers (cone-bearing evergreen trees). Moose, black bears, and wolves live her Temperatures are cold, but soil is not completely frozen.

a)

Tundra

b)

Taiga

c)

Temperate Forest

d)

Grasslands

190.

This aquatic biome removes pollutants and reduces flooding

a)

wetlands

b)

ocean

c)

coral reefs

d)

ponds and lakes

e)

esturary

191.

This is the most diverse aquatic biome

a)

wetlands

b)

ocean

c)

coral reefs

d)

ponds and lakes

e)

esturary

192.

This biome has both fresh and salt water

a)

wetlands

b)

ocean

c)

coral reefs

d)

ponds and lakes

e)

estuary

193.

This is the largest aquatic biome

a)

wetlands

b)

ocean

c)

coral reefs

d)

ponds and lakes

e)

estuary

194.

These aquatic biomes are mainly still bodies of freshwater

a)

wetlands

b)

ocean

c)

coral reefs

d)

ponds and lakes

e)

estuary

195.

A desert is very hot during the day and receives very little rain.

Which plants have an adaptation that would help them survive?

a)

plants with waxy coatings

b)

plants with deep roots

c)

plants with large leaves

d)

plants with soft stems

196.
How many zones are there in the marine ecosystem?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
197.
The marine zone closest to shore is called
a)
intertidal
b)
neritic
c)
surface
d)
deep
198.
The marine zone that covers the continental shelf is called
a)
intertidal
b)
neritic
c)
surface
d)
deep
199.
The marine zone that is lit by sun and lies on the open ocean is called
a)
intertidal
b)
neritic
c)
surface
d)
deep
200.
Aquatic food webs begin with what?
a)
krill
b)
zooplankton
c)
phytoplankton
d)
plankton
201.
An area of shallow water with emergent plants and is dominated by moss is called a:
a)
bog
b)
swamp
c)
marsh
d)
wetland

Similar Resources on Wayground

Bagian & Fungsi Mikroskop

200 questions

Bagian & Fungsi Mikroskop

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

8th Grade Science Category 3

204 questions

8th Grade Science Category 3

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

Mid Year Review

197 questions

Mid Year Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

Uji Pengetahuan RPUL untuk Siswa SD

200 questions

Uji Pengetahuan RPUL untuk Siswa SD

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade

Fall 2024 November

205 questions

Fall 2024 November

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

First Quarter Remediation

200 questions

First Quarter Remediation

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

Earth & Space Revision

203 questions

Earth & Space Revision

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

PAS IPA

199 questions

PAS IPA

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade