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Private Pilot Exam #3

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

(Refer to Figure 21.) What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?

a)

001

b)

359

c)

179

2.

(Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VOR/DME (area 2)?

a)

101

b)

108

c)

281

3.

How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

4

4.

(Refer to Figure 25, area 5.) The VOR is tuned to the VOR-DME at the Dallas-Fort Worth airport. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the aircraft's position from the VOR-DME?

a)

East-Northeast

b)

North-Northeast

c)

West-Southeast

5.

(Refer to Figure 23.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 320° radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)?

a)

South of Guyton

b)

Town of Springfield

c)

Over Briggs Airport

6.

(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 4.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?

a)

North

b)

East

c)

South

7.

(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 7.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?

a)

East

b)

Southeast

c)

West

8.

If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in flight,

a)

The Pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information

b)

The pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position

c)

GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS Satellites are available

9.

(Refer to Figure 25, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a

a)

VOR

b)

VORTAC

c)

VOR/DME

10.

(Refer to Figure 24, and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?

a)

1

b)

7

c)

8

11.

(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 5.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?

a)

030

b)

210

c)

300

12.

(Refer to Figure 23.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?

a)

003

b)

195

c)

200

13.

When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read

a)

180 From, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT

b)

0 to 180 From, regardless of the pilots position from the VOT

c)

0 to 180 To, regardless of the pilots position from the VOT

14.

(Refer to Figure 20, area 3; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR/DME, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro, a small town 3 NM west of Currituck County Regional (ONX). Which VOR indication is correct?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

8

15.

(Refer to Figure 24.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245? radial of Sulphur Springs VOR/DME (area 5) and the 140? radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)?

a)

Weese Intl. Airport

b)

Glenmar Airport

c)

Majors Airport

16.

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

a)

Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace

b)

Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes

c)

Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude

17.

(Refer to Figure 26, areas 4 and 2; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport. Which VOR indication is correct

a)

2

b)

5

c)

8

18.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°:

'TRAFFIC THREE O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...'

Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a)

East

b)

South

c)

West

19.

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

a)

Anytime

b)

At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour

c)

During the first 5 minutes after the hour

20.

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?

a)

After one-half the battery’s useful life

b)

During each Annual and 100-hour inspection

c)

Every 24 Calendar Month

21.

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

a)

When visibility is less then 1 mile

b)

When parallel runways are in use

c)

When departing from a runway intersection

22.

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if re-chargeable?

a)

After any inadvertent activation of the ELT

b)

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour

c)

When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane’s communication radio receiver

23.

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations

a)

Clearance delivery

b)

Tower, Just before takeoff

c)

Ground Control, on initial contact

24.

Why should you file a VFR flight plan with the FAA?

a)

You are required to do so when flying 25 miles beyond an airport

b)

To provide traffic reports with flight service

c)

To provide search and rescue in the event of an emergency

25.

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

a)

Safety alerts, traffic advisories and limiting vectoring

b)

Mandatory radar service provided by the automated radar terminal system (ARTS) Program

c)

Wind Shear Warning at participating airports

26.

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of

a)

25 Miles

b)

20 Miles

c)

10 miles

27.

(Refer to Figure 22, area 2; and Figure 31.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

a)

122.05 MHZ

b)

122.1/108.8 MHz

c)

122.8 MHz

28.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight:

'TRAFFIC TWO O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND...'

Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a)

Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the left

b)

Between directly behind and 90 degrees to the right

c)

Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right

29.

An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

a)

Hold position

b)

Exercise extreme caution

c)

Not land; the airport is not safe

30.

What type of ADS-B Out equipment is required for aircraft operating below 18,000 feet MSL when flying in class C airspace

a)

1090-ES

b)

Universal Access Transmitter

c)

1090-ES and Universal Access transmitter

31.

(Refer to Figure 22, area 2; and Figure 31.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel?

a)

135.075 Mhz

b)

122.1/108.8 MHz

c)

122.8 Mhz

32.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:

'TRAFFIC NINE O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...'

Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a)

South

b)

North

c)

West

33.

The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

a)

‘Ten Thousand, Five Hundred Feet’

b)

‘Ten Point Five’

c)

‘One Zero Thousand, Five Hundred’

34.

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

a)

Class B airspace within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport

b)

Class d Airspace

c)

Class E airspace below 10,000 Feet MSL

35.

When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester Flight Service is

a)

‘MC Alester Radio, Hawk Six Six Six Charlie Bravo, receiving Ardmore VORTAC, Over.’

b)

‘MC Alester Station, Hawk Six Six Six Cee Bee, receiving Ardmore VORTAC, Over.’

c)

‘MC Alester Flight Service Station, Hawk November Six Charlie Bravo, receiving Ardmore VORTAC, Over.’

36.

For operations of an aircraft in class C airspace with inoperative ADS-B Out equipment, a request must be made to the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace

a)

At least one hour before operation

b)

At anytime

c)

24 hours before the proposed operation

37.

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

a)

Every 24 months

b)

When 50 percent of their battery life expires

c)

At the time of the 100-Hour Inspection

38.

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should

a)

Discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land.

b)

Exercise extreme caution, abandon the approach, realize that the airport is unsafe to land at.

c)

Abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.

39.

Select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively as heliports.

a)

122.75 and 123.65 MHz

b)

123.0 and 122.95 MHz

c)

123.05. and 123.075 MHz

40.

TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

a)

IFR Seperation (1,000 Feet Vertical, 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft.

b)

Warning to pilots when their aircraft is unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, and other aircrafts

c)

Sequencing and separation for participating VFR Aircraft

41.

If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

a)

Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for light signal from tower

b)

Enter Crosswind leg and rock your wings

c)

Flashing the landing lights and cycle the landing gear

42.

Each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate this equipment

a)

In transit mode at all times

b)

When flying in a controlled airspace

c)

At all times at and above 10,00o feet MSL

43.

Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?

a)

Turn off the ELT after Landing

b)

Ask the airport tower if they are receiving the ELT signal

c)

Monitor 121.5 after engine shutdown

44.

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

a)

7200

b)

7400

c)

7500

45.

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

a)

Taxi at faster speed

b)

Taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways

c)

Return to the starting point on the airport

46.

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning

a)

Pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in close proximity to terrain or obstructions

b)

Nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion

c)

Noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas

47.

(Refer to Figure 51.) What information should be entered for Item 15, level, on the flight plan form?

a)

VFR Cruising Altitude

b)

Aircraft Service Ceiling

c)

Aircraft Center of Gravity

48.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°:

'TRAFFIC TEN O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...'

Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a)

Northwest

b)

Northeast

c)

Southwest

49.

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

a)

Flashing red

b)

Steady red

c)

Alternating red and green

50.

(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?

a)

Broadcast Intentions when 10 miles out on CTAF/Multicom frequency 122.9 MHz

b)

Contact UNICOM 10 miles out on 122.8

c)

Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic

51.

(Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

a)

122.95 MHz

b)

126.0 MHz

c)

133.4 MHz

52.

After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

a)

When advised by tower to do so

b)

Prior to turning off the runway

c)

After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area

53.

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

a)

Weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums

b)

The sky conditions are clear and visibility is unrestricted

c)

The ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

54.

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

a)

Class A, B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C

b)

Class D and E (below 10,000 feet MSL)

c)

Class D and G (Below 10,000 feet MSL)

55.

When operating the transponder on the VFR code (1200), what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in?

a)

Mode A

b)

Mode C

c)

Mode E

56.

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

a)

118.0 MHz

b)

406 MHz

c)

123.0 MHz

57.

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

a)

Flashing Green

b)

Steady Green

c)

Flashing White

58.

(Refer to Figure 25, area 3.) If Dallas Executive (RBD) tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

a)

127.25 MHz

b)

122.95 MHz

c)

126.35 MHz

59.

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

a)

An operable VOR TACAN receiver and ADF receiver

b)

Instruments and equipment required for IFR Flight

c)

ADS-B Out Equipment

60.

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?

a)

1200

b)

7200

c)

7400

61.

When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft`s

a)

True Course

b)

Ground Track

c)

Magnetic Heading