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A&P I Final Prep

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest?

a)

organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular

b)

cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism

c)

molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism

d)

tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism

2.

Which of the following is not considered an abdominopelvic region?

a)

right inguinal region

b)

right upper

c)

left hypochondriac

d)

left lumbar

3.

The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions is called

a)

amplification.

b)

hemopoiesis.

c)

homeostasis.

d)

self-regulation.

4.

The nucleus of an atom consists of

a)

electrons.

b)

neutrons.

c)

protons + electrons.

d)

protons + neutrons.

5.

The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by the

a)

outermost electron shell.

b)

size of the atom.

c)

number of neutrons.

d)

mass of the nucleus.

6.

Which of the following descriptors is false regarding enzymes?

a)

They are proteins.

b)

They function as biological catalysts.

c)

They are consumed during the reaction.

d)

They lower the activation energy required for a reaction.

7.

Which pH is closest to normal body pH?

a)

pH 7

b)

pH 8

c)

pH 6

d)

pH 9

8.

The smallest living unit within the human body is

a)

a atom

b)

a cell.

c)

an organ.

d)

a tissue.

9.

Match the organelle (1-4) with the correct description (5-8).

 

1) mitochondrion                     5) synthesizing molecules

2) centriole                              6) liquid in cell

3) endoplasmic reticulum        7) provides cell with energy

4) cytosol                                 8) aids the formation of the spindle apparatus

a)

1 and 7, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 6

b)

1 and 5, 2 and 6, 3 and 7, 4 and 8

c)

1 and 6, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 7

d)

1 and 8, 2 and 5, 3 and 6, 4 and 7

10.

Each of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle except

a)

lysosomes.

b)

cilia.

c)

centrioles.

d)

ribosomes.

11.

The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of

a)

dissusion

b)

osmosis

c)

active transport

d)

facilitated transport

12.

The tissue that always has an apical and a basal surface is ________ tissue.

a)

basal

b)

muscle

c)

epithelial

d)

connective

13.

Which tissue is correctly paired with its category of connective tissue?

a)

lymph—fluid connective tissue

b)

tendon—supporting connective tissue

c)

bone—connective tissue proper

d)

fat—supporting connective tissue

14.

Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways except

a)

cushioning and stabilizing.

b)

anchoring blood vessels and nerves.

c)

supporting epithelia.

d)

providing strong connections between muscles and bones.

15.

________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas.

a)

Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine

b)

Merocrine; apocrine; sebaceous

c)

Apocrine; merocrine; sebaceous

d)

Sebaceous; merocrine; apocrine

16.

The layer of stem cells that constantly divide to renew the epidermis is the

a)

stratum corneum.

b)

stratum basale.

c)

papillary layer.

d)

basal lamina.

17.

Which of the following is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight?

a)

vitamin A

b)

vitamin B

c)

vitamin C

d)

vitamin D

18.

The adult skeleton contains ________ major bones.

a)

88

b)

115

c)

206

d)

260

19.

  Which of the following is true of osteoclasts?

a)

Osteoclasts are responsible for laying down osteoid.

b)

Osteoclasts secretes protein digesting enzymes and acids that dissolve matrix.

c)

Osteoclasts form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi.

d)

Osteoclasts are located within lacunae.

20.

The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification. What is the correct order for these events?

 

1. Enlarged chondrocytes die.

2. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone.

3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify.

4. Blood vessels grow around the edges of the cartilage.

5. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a superficial layer of bone.

a)

1, 3, 4, 2, 5

b)

3, 1, 4, 5, 2

c)

2, 3, 1, 5, 4

d)

2, 1, 5, 4, 3

21.

The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification:

 

1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized.

2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue.

3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers.

4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate.

 

What is the correct order for these events?

a)

4, 2, 1, 3

b)

2, 3, 1, 4

c)

2, 1, 4, 3

d)

1, 4, 3, 2

22.

  Calcitonin does all of the following except

a)

increase bone deposition.

b)

inhibit osteoclasts.

c)

cause kidneys to excrete calcium.

d)

cause less calcitriol to be secreted.

23.

The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary curves, which do not appear until several months later?

a)

thoracic and lumbar

b)

cervical and lumbar

c)

sacral and lumbar

d)

thoracic and sacral

24.

   Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

sacrum

b)

coxal bones

c)

scapula

d)

tibia

25.

Which of the following is the heel bone?

a)

calcaneus

b)

cuboid

c)

 talus

d)

navicular

26.

  Pronation is defined as

a)

a twisting of the ulna medially.

b)

a rolling of the distal epiphysis of the radius over the ulna.

c)

twisting the forearm so that the palms face anteriorly.

d)

 the shortening of the angle between the radius and the humerus.

27.

 

  Put the following structures in order from superficial to deep.

 

      1.   muscle fiber

      2.   perimysium

      3.   myofibril

      4.   fascicle

      5.   endomysium

      6.   epimysium

a)

6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3

b)

1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2

c)

6, 2, 5, 4, 1, 3

d)

1, 5, 4, 3, 2, 6

28.

A synovial joint is an example of a(n)

a)

diarthrosis.

b)

symphysis.

c)

syndesmosis.

d)

synarthrosis.

29.

At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by

a)

troponin molecules.

b)

ATP molecules.

c)

myosin molecules.

d)

actin molecules.

30.

    The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. What is the correct sequence of these events?

 

1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin.

2. The free myosin head splits ATP.

3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere.

5. Calcium ion binds to troponin.

6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin.

a)

 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2

b)

3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6

c)

1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2

d)

5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3

31.

Put the following events of excitation-contraction coupling in the order in which they occur.

 

      1. Excitation

      2. Sarcomere shortening

      3. Generation of muscle tension

      4. Neural control

5. Contraction cycle begins

      6. Release of calcium ions

a)

4,1,5,2,6,3

b)

4,1,6,5,2,3

c)

1,2,5,6,3,4

d)

6,1,4,2,5,3

32.

Put the following events of the neuromuscular junction in the order in which they occur.

 

1. Action potential is propagated in the sarcolemma.

2. Acetylcholine binds to ligand gated sodium channels.

3. Action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction.

4. Vesicles full of acetylcholine are stored at the axon terminal.

5. Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft.

a)

4,3,5,2,1

b)

4,3,5,1,2

c)

4,5,3,2,1

d)

4,3,1,5,2

33.

The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the

a)

buccinator.

b)

levator labii.

c)

zygomaticus.

d)

orbicularis oris.

34.

Which of the following are members of the hamstring group?

a)

adductor longus and adductor magnus

b)

biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus

c)

biceps femoris and rectus femoris

d)

semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius

35.

The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles.

a)

somatic

b)

autonomic

c)

afferent

d)

sympathetic

36.

   The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential.

 

1. Sodium channels are inactivated.

2. Voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization.

3. Sodium channels regain their normal properties.

4. A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold.

5. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs.

6. Sodium channel activation occurs.

7. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs.

 

What is the proper sequence of these events?

a)

4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5

b)

4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1

c)

2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5

d)

6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

37.

At the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, its sodium-potassium exchange pump transports

a)

3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions.

b)

3 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion.

c)

2 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion.

d)

1 intracellular sodium ion for 2 extracellular potassium ions.

38.

Place the following events of a reflex arc in the correct order:

1) motor neuron activation, 2) sensory neuron activation, 3) sensory receptor activation, 4) Information processing, 5) effector response.

a)

3, 2, 1, 5, 4

b)

3, 2, 4, 1, 5

c)

2, 3, 4, 1, 5

d)

5, 4, 3, 1, 2

39.

During development, three primary brain vesicles form. The three vesicles are the

a)

prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon

b)

telencephalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon.

c)

mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon.

d)

cerebrum, diencephalon, and midbrain.

40.

The system that functions in tying together emotions, motivation and memory is the

a)

reticular activating system.

b)

circadian system.

c)

limbic system.

d)

hypothalamic system.

41.

   The complex integration of sensory information with visual and auditory memories occurs in this area near the auditory cortex?

a)

premotor cortex

b)

Wernicke's area

c)

precentral gyrus

d)

somatosensory area

42.

The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following, except

a)

touch

b)

taste

c)

temperature

d)

vibration

43.

Sensory information from all parts of the body is routed to

a)

the prefrontal cortex.

b)

the cerebellum.

c)

the primary motor cortex.

d)

the somatosensory cortex.

44.

   The parasympathetic nervous system is especially active during which physiological state?

a)

digestion

b)

trauma

c)

stress

d)

exertion

45.

Parasympathetic functions include all of the following, except

a)

dilation of the airways.

b)

stimulation of urination.

c)

constriction of the pupils.

d)

decrease in the rate of cardiac contraction.

46.

The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by

a)

changing shape

b)

moving in and out

c)

opening and closing

d)

moving up and down

47.

The ________ ear collects sounds waves and transmits them to the ________ ear, which contains auditory ossicles.

a)

outer; middle

b)

inner; middle

c)

outer; inner

d)

middle; inner

48.

Which of the following is not one of the six primary taste sensations?

a)

spicy

b)

sweet

c)

sour

d)

salty

49.

There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These cones are designated

a)

red, green, blue

b)

red, green, yellow.

c)

yellow, red, blue.

d)

blue. yellow, green

50.

A ray of light entering the eye will encounter the following structures in which order?

a)

conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina

b)

vitreous body → retina → choroids → aqueous humor → lens → conjunctiva → cornea

c)

cornea → aqueous humor → vitreous body → lens → conjunctiva → choroids → retina

d)

conjunctiva → cornea → lens → aqueous humor → vitreous body → retina