WorksheetsCES-WE Summative Test Part 3
Total questions: 227
Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins
The valid statement regarding the stages of team development is _________.
•1. by the end of the forming phase, teams have built a cohesive community.
•2. the norming stage is the most productive stage.
•3. teams enter the storming phase with clarity about what their team's mission is.
•4. the adjourning phase is characterized by a sharp focus on achieving team goals.
•5. all teams will proceed through five stages of development.
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The following are benefits of a company instituting a TQM (Total Quality Management) program except
•1. acquiring a reputation for quality.
•2. implementing programs quickly and inexpensively.
•3. getting better returns on investments.
•4. improving customer retention.
•5. being able to charge higher prices for goods or services.
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What do you call a formal statement of complaint about a situation, usually made by an employee or group of employees to management?
•1. negotiation
•2. mediation
•3. arbitration
•4. appraisal
•5. grievance
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_____________ provides new employees with basic information about the organization for which they are working.
•1. Twinning
•2. Job orientation
•3. Work specialization
•4. Mentoring
•5. Job enlargement
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Which is not a result of employees becoming empowered?
•1. Jobs are more flexibly designed.
•2. Employees are less strictly monitored.
•3. Management becomes more hierarchical.
•4. The organization becomes more decentralized.
•5. The organization is better able to respond to a volatile environment.
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____________ is not considered a separation.
•1. Retirement
•2. Demotion
•3. Firing
•4. Layoff
•5. Resignation
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The problem in an organization when an employee has two or more supervisors to whom he is directly accountable is _____________.
•1. span of control
•2. unity of command
•3. work specialization
•4. job orientation
•5. mission statement
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Each of the following is the basic principle of TQM (Total Quality Management) except
•1. encourage teamwork.
•2. focus on the customer.
•3. make continuous improvements.
•4. produce quality products at the outset.
•5. focus on only a few functional areas of the organization.
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Which of the following is considered a maintenance factor?
•1. Recognition
•2. Achievement
•3. Working conditions
•4. Advancement
•5. None of the choices
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The kind of change represented when a plant manager begins using robots on the assembly line is ______________.
•1. Strategic
•2. People-centered
•3. Process-oriented
•4. Structural
•5. Short-term
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An employee's ____________ is a basis for an incentive-based pay system.
•1. seniority
•2. hours worked
•3. education
•4. performance
•5. experience
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Which of the following is a job redesign technique of assigning people different jobs or different tasks on a temporary basis?
•1. Job rotation
•2. Job enrichment
•3. Job enlargement
•4. Job creation
•5. None of the choices
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All of the following can be used to justify an employee's performance appraisal except
•1. terminating the employee.
•2. increasing the employee's salary.
•3. offering the employee a promotion.
•4. entering the employee in a training program.
•5. canceling the employee worker's compensation insurance.
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When an employee is transferred to a job with lesser significance, authority and responsibility, it is known as a _______________.
•1. demotion
•2. promotion
•3. transfer
•4. lateral move
•5. layoff
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The relationship between the positions at a company and its employees can be best found in a(n) __________________.
•1. decision tree
•2. organization chart
•3. mission statement
•4. payroll
•5. procedures manual
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An example of a(n)__________is when an office staff asks his direct supervisor for a salary increase.
´1. downward communication
´2. upward communication
´3. horizontal communication
´4. backward communication
´5. forward communication
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As an organization or as a business expands, it will tend to become ______
•1. more organized.
•2. less complicated.
•3. more hierarchical.
•4. more decentralized.
•5. less reliant on formal authority.
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An example of the feedforward control by a school institution is __________.
•1. having its students fill out evaluation forms about their professors at the end of a course
•2. by having its students take a standardized admissions exam
•3. by issuing final grades to its students at the end of each semester
•4. having chairpersons monitor professor performance by sitting in on lecture
•5. by reviewing a department’s budget to see if actual spending matched projected expenses
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One of the strategies for managing conflict involves calls for a direct verbalizing of the conflict at hand is ________.
•1. Avoidance
•2. Smoothing
•3. Compromise
•4. Confrontation
•5. Collaboration
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A service company starts using a computerized database to locate past clients. What kind of change does this tracking system represent?
•1. Strategic
•2. People-centered
•3. Process-oriented
•4. Structural
•5. Short-term
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Which of the following is the stage is an organization’s change process that involves challenging the status quo by pointing out the ways in which the current system is lacking?
•1. freezing
•2. unfreezing
•3. changing
•4. reinstating
•5. refreezing
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The comparison between individual decision making and group decision making that is not valid is that _________.
•1. group decision-making processes draw on a greater pool of ideas
•2. individual decision-making processes are usually more time-consuming than group decision-making processes
•3. group decisions can be compromises rather than the best possible decision
•4. employees are more likely to be supportive of group decisions
•5. group decision-making processes are susceptible to groupthink
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According to a managerial grid model, the authoritarian leadership style is characterized by
•1. low-level concern with people and low-level concern with production.
•2. low-level concern with people and high-level concern with production.
•3. equal concern with people and production.
•4. high-level concern with people and low-level concern with production.
•5. high-level concern with people and high-level concern with production.
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_________ is an obligation that an employee assumes when he accepts an assigned task.
•1. Policy
•2. Standards
•3. Work schedule
•4. Procedure
•5. Responsibility
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Bert's supervisor has passed him over for a promotion many times because the supervisor believes that he lacks leadership skills. As a result, Bert now assumes a passive role when working in a team environment. This situation an example of ___________.
•1. projection
•2. classifying
•3. selective perception
•4. pygmalion effect
•5. stereotyping
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Budgets in some business organizations are developed way that each allocation must be justified by how it will contribute to the organization's objectives. This process is an example of
•1. top-down budgeting.
•2. bottom-up budgeting.
•3. zero-based budgeting.
•4. lateral budgeting.
•5. inflexible budgeting.
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The personnel who would have staff authority is ______________________
•1. a department manager who can delegate work to his subordinates.
•2. a human resources manager who can give training-related assignments to members of various departments.
•3. a secretary who can grant approval for use of the conference room.
•4. a recently-promoted supervisor who can make up a work schedule.
•5. a new employee going through job orientation.
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A manager possesses a formal right to delegate responsibility, make decisions, and allocate resources. This right is known as ___________.
•1. power
•2. responsibility
•3. authority
•4. accountability
•5. leadership
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Which of the following are forms of personal power?
•1. expert power
•2. punitive power
•3. positional power
•4. reward power
•5. external sources of power
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Which of the following is not a criterion for a group to be considered a team?
•1. The group must consist of two or more individuals.
•2 Group members must have regular interactions.
•3. Group members must share a unified purpose.
•4. Group members must agree on issues relevant to the project at hand.
•5. Group members must coordinate work to accomplish team goals.
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Each of the following is an element of an effective reward system except __________.
•1. rewards must satisfy employee’s basic needs.
•2. rewards must be fairly and equitably distributed.
•3. employees in comparable positions must have equal access to rewards
•4. rewards and their methods of attainment should be uniform for all comparable recipients
•5. rewards should be comparable to those of nearby competitors.
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Which of the following can motivate employees for job enlargement (horizontal job loading)?
•1. making a job more interesting
•2. making the hours of a job more flexible
•3. rewarding a job with better compensation
•4. reducing the hours to be worked on a job
•5. investing a job with greater responsibility and authority
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Among the following steps, which should be the first step in the process of evaluating if a job candidate is suitable for a position?
•1. Interviewing the candidate
•2. Checking the candidate's references
•3. Reviewing the candidate's application
•4. Administering a skills test to the candidate
•5. Administering a performance assessment to the candidate
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A leadership style in which a leader permits the subordinates to function independently is known as ____________
•1. supportive.
•2. participative.
•3. irresponsible.
•4. free-rein.
•5. motivator.
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Which of the following does not describe the importance of a management information system?
•1. Information must be managed to be useful.
•2. It is adequate to have information somewhere in the company when it is needed.
•3. Information must be there in its proper form to be useful.
•4. Information must be there when it is needed to be useful.
•5. None of the above.
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Top-level managers in a company need
•1. the same information as middle-level managers.
•2. information about accounting but not personnel.
•3. the same information as all other management levels.
•4. information on the marketing strategy of the organization.
•5. information on the overall financial picture of the organization.
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Which of the following describes the relationship of businesses in the economic system?
•1. Businesses are interdependent.
•2. Businesses cooperate with each other.
•3. Businesses are independent of each other.
•4. Large businesses dominate small businesses.
•5. None of the above.
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The devices or interventions that are described as high technology all have the following in common:
•1. high cost
•2. flexibility
•3. the ability to leverage
•4. automation
•5. dependability
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High technology will have an impact on the workplace by __________.
•1. automating all procedures.
•2. increasing the level of activity.
•3. focusing on the results not methods.
•4. changing where the work is performed.
•5. removing the need for factories and offices.
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The external environment factor that states “the values and culture affect the way people feel about the organization they are in and about work itself” is what we call______
•1. political factor
•2. sociological factor
•3. technological factor
•4. psychological factor
•5. economic factor
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Strategic Planning ______________
•1. addresses the organization’s basic mission or business and issues broad statements of purpose or direction that have a long lead time
•2. looks specifically at resources, finances and market conditions to determine ways to accomplish the overall plans of the organization
•3. involves managers who are responsible for achieving the unit’s objectives within a specified period of time
•4. includes planning that has measurable targets, schedules, and timetables
•5. determines the day to day operations within the organization
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The process of using the resources and personnel of an organization in an orderly way to achieve the objectives and long-term goals of the organization is known as _________
•1. controlling
•2. organizing
•3. directing
•4. staffing
•5. planning
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Which of the following conflict response modes involves or puts an emphasis on winning one’s own concerns at the expense of another?
•1. competing
•2. accommodating
•3. collaborating
•4. avoiding
•5. compromising
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Which source of power is based on a manager’s ability to punish a subordinate?
•1. legitimate power
•2. expert power
•3. reward power
•4. referent power
•5. coercive power
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Which of the following organizational structure is the simplest and has clear lines of authority and ease in decision making?
•1. horizontal
•2. Line
•3. Line and staff
•4. staff
•5. vertical
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The Fourth Point of Principled Negotiation is...
A. Invent options for mutual gain
B. Insist on using objective criteria
C. Separate the people from the problem
D. Focus on interests, not positions
A
B
C
D
Risk of scope change caused by increased user knowledge can be managed by improving the communication with the client and establishment of a
A. Formal process to handle change
B. Informal process to handle change
C. Compromises to handle change
D. Interface to handle change
A
B
C
D
Projects that calls for the highest level of negotiating skills of the PM can be of
A. 2 situations
B. 3 situations
C. 4 situations
D. 5 situations
A
B
C
D
The implemented first part of partnering process covers
A. Resolving problems
B. Joint evaluation
C. Acceptance of goal for improvement
D. Support for the process from SM
A
B
C
D
A solution in which no party can be made better off without making another party worse off by the same amount or more, is known as
A. win-win solution
B. win-lose solution
C. Close-lose solution
D. Pareto-Optimal Solution
A
B
C
D
Approaching intra-project disputes with a desire to have a victory over other parties is
A. Appropriate
B. Ideal Approach
C. key to success
D. Inappropriate
A
B
C
D
Partnering requires continuous support of project objectives and
A. Partnering scope
B. Partnering content
C. Partnering agreements
D. Partnering strategy
A
B
C
D
Scope in project management constitutes of PMBOK knowledge area at position
A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 6th
A
B
C
D
As the firm is concerned, they are conflicts between allies, not
A. Participants
B. Rule makes
C. Opponents
D. Resolvers
A
B
C
D
Conflicts arising inside the organization may also appear to involve
A. Property Rights
B. Obligations
C. Set of complex rules
D. Both A and B
A
B
C
D
As the firm is concerned, they are conflicts between allies, not
A. Participants
B. Rule makes
C. Opponents
D. Resolvers
A
B
C
D
The third cause of change in the project management is in the form of
A. Innovation
B. Technological Uncertainty
C. Increased client knowledge
D. Change in environment
A
B
C
D
The total level of conflict is highest during the project
A. Project formation Stage:
B. Project Buildup Stage
C. Main program stage
D. Project Phase-out stage
A
B
C
D
No matter how ornate the procedure is, most firms actually have only priorities of
A. 1 level
B. 2 levels
C. 3 levels
D. 5 levels
A
B
C
D
Once project partnering is done, the step is
A. Scope change
B. Chartering
C. Establishing network of subcontractors
D. Establishing Council
A
B
C
D
Relations between the organization carrying out a project and a subcontractors are characterized as
A. Adversarial
B. Competitive
C. Partnership
D. Conflictual
A
B
C
D
In third level of priority, the existing projects are of type
A. Random-level priority
B. Urgent-type priority
C. lower-priority
D. High-priority
A
B
C
D
Interparty agreements must be reached for partnering to
A. Succeed
B. Chartering
C. Funding
D. Scoping
A
B
C
D
Conflicts perceive things differently and feel strongly about the
A. Decisions
B. Agreements
C. Similarities
D. Differences
A
B
C
D
There are many groups of competitors engaged in cooperative activities and other
A. Cooperative Development
B. Cooperative Research
C. Cooperative manufacturing
D. Cooperative membership
A
B
C
D
A specific project charter appeared in Cowen, 1992. Committed to keep cost growth to less than
A. 1 percent
B. 2 percent
C. 5 percent
D. 10 percent
A
B
C
D
Cooperative project team with a single set of goals and established procedures for resolving disputes in a timely and effective manner, is
A. Project Partnering
B. Project Chartering
C. Project Scope change
D. Project Mission
A
B
C
D
In Fisher development the win-win solution is known as
A. Principled Negotiation
B. A Negotiation
C. A2 Negotiation
D. Ideal Negotiation
A
B
C
D
A commitment of finishing project on schedule, means
A. Timely resolution of issues
B. Manage joint schedule
C. Both A and B
D. Managing schedule
A
B
C
D
Schedules are a major source of conflicts in the
A. Project formation
B. Project Buildup
C. Main program
D. Project Phase-out
A
B
C
D
The Thamhain's cited definition of project's life cycle was
introduced in
A. 1973
B. 1974
C. 1975
D. 1976
A
B
C
D
The signed-off project plan or set of action plans can constitute
A. Project Partnering
B. Project Scope
C. Project Charter
D. Project's Scope change
A
B
C
D
The parties to negotiation see themselves as
A. Members
B. Justice seekers
C. Problem makers
D. Opponents
A
B
C
D
The rules of conduct for the project are altered, is definition of
A. Change in environment
B. Increased client knowledge
C. Technological Uncertainty
D. Innovation
A
B
C
D
The favored technique for resolving conflict is
A. Negotiating
B. Conciliation
C. Removal of participants
D. Not entertaining them.
A
B
C
D
"Objective is to find a solution so that no party can be made bet- ter off without making another party worse off", was said by
A. Wall's solution
B. Roget's solution
C. Pareto-optimal solution
D. Cohen solution
A
B
C
D
The way in which organizations facilitate the conflict integration is to establish
A. Lateral
B. Former Relations
C. Formal Relations
D. Basic relative relations
A
B
C
D
The subcontractor's objective is to produce the deliverables at the
A. High profit
B. High quality
C. Least delay
D. High delay
A
B
C
D
The concept developed to replace the adversarial approach is
known as
A. Chartering
B. Partnering
C. Funding
D. Scope change
A
B
C
D
Horizontal distribution across lines of authority means that each unit will have its
A. Own goals
B. Own set of rules
C. Own scope
D. Own strategy
A
B
C
D
The organizational structure selected will have a major impact on the ways in which the
A. Project is formatted
B. Projects are handled
C. WBS is handled
D. Conflicts are handled
A
B
C
D
The last-part of partnering process between the parent organization and subcontractors covers issues of
A. Support for the process from SM
B. Acceptance of goal for improvement
C. Joint evaluation
D. Resolving problems
A
B
C
D
Project negotiation requirements are that conflicts must be settled without
A. Temporary Damage
B. Permanent Damage
C. Decision making
D. Scoping out
A
B
C
D
Acceptance of a goal for continuous improvement for the joint project, is also known as
A. Top Quality Management
B. Total Quality Management
C. Team Quality Management
D. Twice Quality Management
A
B
C
D
The cause of change in environment can be managed by having some
A. Restoration
B. Backups
C. Flexibility
D. Error management technology
A
B
C
D
Chartering attests to the fact that management of all areas covered must be on
A. Same Level
B. Different levels
C. Hierarchy
D. Relating terms
A
B
C
D
The cause of change in environment can be managed by having some flexibility in the
A. Quality of project
B. Budget of project
C. Schedule of project
D. Both B and C
A
B
C
D
Project charter is simply a written agreement between the
A. Project Manager and subcontractors
B. Functional managers and Project Manager
C. Senior management and project managers
D. Both B and C
A
B
C
D
Working interfaces have been developed and put in place, at the stage
A. Project formation
B. Project Buildup
C. Main program
D. Project Phase-out
A
B
C
D
"How will conflicts over resources/facility usage between this and other projects be settled?", is critically settled at level
A. Main program
B. Project formation
C. Project Buildup
D. Project Phase-out
A
B
C
D
Charters details the expected deliverables, including schedules and
A. Budgeting and resource commitment
B. Cast computing
C. Quality computing
D. Performance computing
A
B
C
D
The scope of most projects is subject to considerable
A. Risks
B. Uncertainty
C. Failure
D. Success
A
B
C
D
Stating immediate wants on the assumption that the environment is static.
A. Pareto Negotiation
B. Principled Negotiation
C. Static Negotiation
D. Positional Negotiation
A
B
C
D
At base, conflicts arise because of the different expectations of
A. Project Managers
B. Functional managers
C. Personnel
D. Both A and B
A
B
C
D
The important aspects of project management, reflecting from conflicts are
A. Technical procedures
B. Administrative procedures
C. Both A and B
D. Contractual procedures
A
B
C
D
The First Point of Principled Negotiation is
A. Separate the people from the problem
B. Focus on interests, not positions
C. Invent options for mutual gain
D. Insist on using objective criteria
A
B
C
D
Schedule is the major source of conflict during
A. Main program
B. Project Phase-out
C. Project Formation
D. Both A and B
A
B
C
D
Thamhain note that personality conflicts are the second-ranked source of conflict during
A. Project Buildup
B. Project formation
C. Project Phase-out
D. Main program
A
B
C
D
There are interpersonal conflicts between people who are
A. Parties-not-interest
B. Parties-out-interest
C. Parties-at-interest
D. Parties-from-interest
A
B
C
D
The Project plans have been developed and approved by everyone, at the level of
A. Project Phase-out
B. Main program
C. Project formation
D. Project Buildup
A
B
C
D
The Senior management tentatively approves preliminary planning for a project, at stage-level
A. Zero stage
B. First stage
C. Second stage
D. Third stage
A
B
C
D
Rather than bargaining on positions, attention should be given to finding standards, like
A. Market values
B. Expert opinion
C. Company policy and law
D. All of the Above
A
B
C
D
The more complex the project, the more difficult it is to trace and estimate the
A. Cost
B. Time period
C. Scope
D. Delay
A
B
C
D
In second level of priority, the existing projects are of type
A. Urgent-type priority
B. Random-level priority
C. High-priority.
D. lower-priority
A
B
C
D
The parent organization's objective is to get the deliverables from the subcontractors at the
A. Lowest cost
B. Lowest quantity
C. Lowest quality
D. Highest quality
A
B
C
D
The traditional sources of conflicts are
A. Project team and client
B. Functional and senior management
C Both A and B
D. Functional, Senior management and project team
A
B
C
D
The second stage is typified by detailed planning, budgeting. scheduling, and
A. Quality Estimates
B. Scope Definition
C. Mission definition
D. Aggregation of resources
A
B
C
D
The PM's ability to make trade-offs is often constrained by
A. Contract
B. Company policies
C. Ethical considerations
D. All of the Above
A
B
C
D
Technological uncertainty of the technologies involved can be mitigated by careful
A. Planning
B. Analysis
C. Execution
D. Error checking
A
B
C
D
During the main program stage, like schedule conflicts, another frequent placing conflict is
A. Decision making Conflicts
B. Technical Conflicts
C. Functional conflicts
D. Personnel's conflicts
A
B
C
D
The organizational structure of the project must be established to an extent sufficient for
A. Prioritization
B. Budgeting
C. Work-breakdown structure
D. Committed Resources
A
B
C
D
The lion's share of the actual work on the project is achieved at the
A. Second stage
B. Third stage
C. Fourth stage
D. Fifth stage
A
B
C
D
The Thamhain's and Adams's cited view of project life cycle is
A. Different
B. Similar
C. Opposing
D. Interchangeably used
A
B
C
D
In first level of priority, the existing projects are of type
A. High-priority
B. lower priority
C. Immediate type
D. Random-level priority
A
B
C
D
In project Buildup stage, the project moves from a general concept to a highly detailed set of
A. Data-Set
B. Plans
C. Documentation
D. Operations
A
B
C
D
The inherent confusion of setting up a project in the environment of matrix management, is at the level of
A. Planning
B. Allocation of resources
C. Project formation
D. Implementation
A
B
C
D
In a matrix organization, technical decisions of the project is made by
A. Technical manager
B. HR manager
C. Function manager
D. Project manager
A
B
C
D
Fisher have developed a negotiation technique that tends to maintain
A. 2 requirements
B. 3 requirements
C. 4 requirements
D. 5 requirements
A
B
C
D
As the substantive problems are spelled out, some effort should be devoted to finding a wide variety of
A. Possible Arguments
B. Possible Solutions
C. Possible Disagreement
D. Possible Interest of own
A
B
C
D
The more authoritative the role played by the PM, having the pure project as its limit makes
A. Matrix weaker
B. Matrix stronger
C. Efficient cost usage
D. Removal of conflicts
A
B
C
D
The agreements between groups partnering on large endeavors are often referred to as
A. Partnering scope
B. Chartering
C. Facilitation
D. Scope change
A
B
C
D
Partnering requires strong support from
A. Senior management
B. Middle management
C. Subcontractors management
D. Project managers
A
B
C
D
The process through which two or more parties seek an accept- able rate of exchange for items they own or control is known as
A. Facilitation
B. Trade-offs-offs
C. Negotiating
D. Shared-resources
A
B
C
D
Thamhain says that conflict occurring in the project buildup stage is an extension from
A. Project formation
B. Main program
C. Project Phase-out
D. Project phase-In
A
B
C
D
A major and constant source of conflict is the differencing goals of
A. Project Manager and subcontractors
B. Senior management and Project managers
C. Senior management and project managers and Functional managers
D. Senior management and functional manager
A
B
C
D
A process of negotiation that aims to achieve a win-win result is known as
A. Principled Negotiation
B. Positional Negotiation
C. Pareto Negotiation
D. Optimal Negotiation
A
B
C
D
The second task to be achieved at the Project formation phase is
A. Commitment of resources
B. Agreements approval
C. Defining Budget
D. Planning
A
B
C
D
"What will be the required level of involvement of each of the functional areas?", is a critical issue studied at the level
A. Project Phase-out
B. Main program
C. Project Buildup
D. Project formation
A
B
C
D
The second-ranked source of conflict during phase-out, is
A. Technical conflicts
B. Personality Conflicts
C. Managerial Conflicts
D. Planning Conflicts
A
B
C
D
Negotiating to a win-win solution is the key to
A. Good project
B. Cost Estimates
C. Conflict Resolution
D. Project Solution
A
B
C
D
Not only are the project's deliverables, budget, and schedule is recalculated but change by mandate also raises issue of
A. Assembling
B. Prioritizing projects
C. Technological Uncertainty
D. Chartering
A
B
C
D
The more authority is embedded in the functional managers, with functional organization as its limit makes
A. Matrix stronger
B. Matrix weaker
C. Effective performance
D. Less conflicts
A
B
C
D
The second-part of partnering process between the firm and subcontractors covers
A. Joint evaluation
B. Support for the process from SM
C. Resolving problems
D. Acceptance of goal for improvement
A
B
C
D
The conflicting parties-at-interest to a project are
A. Competitors
B. Enemies
C. Opposers
D. Allies
A
B
C
D
Traditional conflicts can be categorized in
A. 2 ways
B. 3 ways
C. 4 ways
D. 5 ways
A
B
C
D
There are three traditional categories of conflicts i.e. goal oriented, authority based and
A. Technical
B. Functional
C. Managerial
D. Interpersonal
A
B
C
D
In and project life cycle, the conflicting parties are often highly
A. Rational
B. Irrational
C. Emotional
D. Negotiating
A
B
C
D
The Process Partnering is an attempt to mitigate the risks associated with
A. Networking
B. Uncertainty
C. Risks
D. Subcontracting
A
B
C
D
The causes for change in projects are basically of
A. 2 types
B. 3 types
C. 4 types
D. 6 types
A
B
C
D
"Which of the functional areas will be needed to accomplish project tasks?", is a fundamental issue covered at level
A. Project Buildup
B. Project formation
C. Main program
D. Project Phase-out
A
B
C
D
An increase in user or team knowledge or sophistication is the primary factor leading to
A. Scope
B. Scope change
C. Strategy
D. Innovation
A
B
C
D
The detailed planning, budgeting, scheduling, and the aggregation of resources, takes at
A. First Stage
B. Second Stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
A
B
C
D
The boundaries between departments or functions are known as
A. Walls
B. Interfaces
C. Borders
D. Thin Sections
A
B
C
D
The Second Point of Principled Negotiation is
A. Invent options for mutual gain
B. Separate the people from the problem
C. Insist on using objective criteria
D. Focus on interests, not positions
A
B
C
D
The problem of changing the scope or performance, expected of a project is a major
A. Drawback
B. Issue
C. Downfall
D. Success
A
B
C
D
Most of the conflicts that involve the organization and out- siders have to do with property rights and
A. Rules and Regulations
B. Contractual Obligations
C. Politics
D. Problem makers
A
B
C
D
Despite of how carefully a project is planned, it is almost certain to be changed before
A. Execution
B. Planning
C. Completion
D. Assigning resources
A
B
C
D
An example of a(n)__________is when an office staff asks his direct supervisor for a salary increase.
´1. downward communication
´2. upward communication
´3. horizontal communication
´4. backward communication
´5. forward communication
1
2
3
4
5
As an organization or as a business expands, it will tend to become ______
•1. more organized.
•2. less complicated.
•3. more hierarchical.
•4. more decentralized.
•5. less reliant on formal authority.
1
2
3
4
5
An example of the feedforward control by a school institution is __________.
•1. having its students fill out evaluation forms about their professors at the end of a course
•2. by having its students take a standardized admissions exam
•3. by issuing final grades to its students at the end of each semester
•4. having chairpersons monitor professor performance by sitting in on lecture
•5. by reviewing a department’s budget to see if actual spending matched projected expenses
1
2
3
4
5
One of the strategies for managing conflict involves calls for a direct verbalizing of the conflict at hand is ________.
•1. Avoidance
•2. Smoothing
•3. Compromise
•4. Confrontation
•5. Collaboration
1
2
3
4
5
A service company starts using a computerized database to locate past clients. What kind of change does this tracking system represent?
•1. Strategic
•2. People-centered
•3. Process-oriented
•4. Structural
•5. Short-term
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following is the stage is an organization’s change process that involves challenging the status quo by pointing out the ways in which the current system is lacking?
•1. freezing
•2. unfreezing
•3. changing
•4. reinstating
•5. refreezing
1
2
3
4
5
The comparison between individual decision making and group decision making that is not valid is that _________.
•1. group decision-making processes draw on a greater pool of ideas
•2. individual decision-making processes are usually more time-consuming than group decision-making processes
•3. group decisions can be compromises rather than the best possible decision
•4. employees are more likely to be supportive of group decisions
•5. group decision-making processes are susceptible to groupthink
1
2
3
4
5
According to a managerial grid model, the authoritarian leadership style is characterized by
•1. low-level concern with people and low-level concern with production.
•2. low-level concern with people and high-level concern with production.
•3. equal concern with people and production.
•4. high-level concern with people and low-level concern with production.
•5. high-level concern with people and high-level concern with production.
1
2
3
4
5
_________ is an obligation that an employee assumes when he accepts an assigned task.
•1. Policy
•2. Standards
•3. Work schedule
•4. Procedure
•5. Responsibility
1
2
3
4
5
Bert's supervisor has passed him over for a promotion many times because the supervisor believes that he lacks leadership skills. As a result, Bert now assumes a passive role when working in a team environment. This situation an example of ___________.
•1. projection
•2. classifying
•3. selective perception
•4. pygmalion effect
•5. stereotyping
1
2
3
4
5
Budgets in some business organizations are developed way that each allocation must be justified by how it will contribute to the organization's objectives. This process is an example of
•1. top-down budgeting.
•2. bottom-up budgeting.
•3. zero-based budgeting.
•4. lateral budgeting.
•5. inflexible budgeting.
1
2
3
4
5
The personnel who would have staff authority is ______________________
•1. a department manager who can delegate work to his subordinates.
•2. a human resources manager who can give training-related assignments to members of various departments.
•3. a secretary who can grant approval for use of the conference room.
•4. a recently-promoted supervisor who can make up a work schedule.
•5. a new employee going through job orientation.
1
2
3
4
5
A manager possesses a formal right to delegate responsibility, make decisions, and allocate resources. This right is known as ___________.
•1. power
•2. responsibility
•3. authority
•4. accountability
•5. leadership
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following are forms of personal power?
•1. expert power
•2. punitive power
•3. positional power
•4. reward power
•5. external sources of power
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following is not a criterion for a group to be considered a team?
•1. The group must consist of two or more individuals.
•2 Group members must have regular interactions.
•3. Group members must share a unified purpose.
•4. Group members must agree on issues relevant to the project at hand.
•5. Group members must coordinate work to accomplish team goals.
1
2
3
4
5
The valid statement regarding the stages of team development is _________.
•1. by the end of the forming phase, teams have built a cohesive community.
•2. the norming stage is the most productive stage.
•3. teams enter the storming phase with clarity about what their team's mission is.
•4. the adjourning phase is characterized by a sharp focus on achieving team goals.
•5. all teams will proceed through five stages of development.
1
2
3
4
5
The following are benefits of a company instituting a TQM (Total Quality Management) program except
•1. acquiring a reputation for quality.
•2. implementing programs quickly and inexpensively.
•3. getting better returns on investments.
•4. improving customer retention.
•5. being able to charge higher prices for goods or services.
1
2
3
4
5
What do you call a formal statement of complaint about a situation, usually made by an employee or group of employees to management?
•1. negotiation
•2. mediation
•3. arbitration
•4. appraisal
•5. grievance
1
2
3
4
5
_____________ provides new employees with basic information about the organization for which they are working.
•1. Twinning
•2. Job orientation
•3. Work specialization
•4. Mentoring
•5. Job enlargement
1
2
3
4
5
Which is not a result of employees becoming empowered?
•1. Jobs are more flexibly designed.
•2. Employees are less strictly monitored.
•3. Management becomes more hierarchical.
•4. The organization becomes more decentralized.
•5. The organization is better able to respond to a volatile environment.
1
2
3
4
5
____________ is not considered a separation.
•1. Retirement
•2. Demotion
•3. Firing
•4. Layoff
•5. Resignation
1
2
3
4
5
The problem in an organization when an employee has two or more supervisors to whom he is directly accountable is _____________.
•1. span of control
•2. unity of command
•3. work specialization
•4. job orientation
•5. mission statement
1
2
3
4
5
Each of the following is the basic principle of TQM (Total Quality Management) except
•1. encourage teamwork.
•2. focus on the customer.
•3. make continuous improvements.
•4. produce quality products at the outset.
•5. focus on only a few functional areas of the organization.
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following is considered a maintenance factor?
•1. Recognition
•2. Achievement
•3. Working conditions
•4. Advancement
•5. None of the choices
1
2
3
4
5
The kind of change represented when a plant manager begins using robots on the assembly line is ______________.
•1. Strategic
•2. People-centered
•3. Process-oriented
•4. Structural
•5. Short-term
1
2
3
4
5
An employee's ____________ is a basis for an incentive-based pay system.
•1. seniority
•2. hours worked
•3. education
•4. performance
•5. experience
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following is a job redesign technique of assigning people different jobs or different tasks on a temporary basis?
•1. Job rotation
•2. Job enrichment
•3. Job enlargement
•4. Job creation
•5. None of the choices
1
2
3
4
5
All of the following can be used to justify an employee's performance appraisal except
•1. terminating the employee.
•2. increasing the employee's salary.
•3. offering the employee a promotion.
•4. entering the employee in a training program.
•5. canceling the employee worker's compensation insurance.
1
2
3
4
5
When an employee is transferred to a job with lesser significance, authority and responsibility, it is known as a _______________.
•1. demotion
•2. promotion
•3. transfer
•4. lateral move
•5. layoff
1
2
3
4
5
The relationship between the positions at a company and its employees can be best found in a(n) __________________.
•1. decision tree
•2. organization chart
•3. mission statement
•4. payroll
•5. procedures manual
1
2
3
4
5
Each of the following is an element of an effective reward system except __________.
•1. rewards must satisfy employee’s basic needs.
•2. rewards must be fairly and equitably distributed.
•3. employees in comparable positions must have equal access to rewards
•4. rewards and their methods of attainment should be uniform for all comparable recipients
•5. rewards should be comparable to those of nearby competitors.
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following can motivate employees for job enlargement (horizontal job loading)?
•1. making a job more interesting
•2. making the hours of a job more flexible
•3. rewarding a job with better compensation
•4. reducing the hours to be worked on a job
•5. investing a job with greater responsibility and authority
1
2
3
4
5
Among the following steps, which should be the first step in the process of evaluating if a job candidate is suitable for a position?
•1. Interviewing the candidate
•2. Checking the candidate's references
•3. Reviewing the candidate's application
•4. Administering a skills test to the candidate
•5. Administering a performance assessment to the candidate
1
2
3
4
5
A leadership style in which a leader permits the subordinates to function independently is known as ____________
•1. supportive.
•2. participative.
•3. irresponsible.
•4. free-rein.
•5. motivator.
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following does not describe the importance of a management information system?
•1. Information must be managed to be useful.
•2. It is adequate to have information somewhere in the company when it is needed.
•3. Information must be there in its proper form to be useful.
•4. Information must be there when it is needed to be useful.
•5. None of the above.
1
2
3
4
5
Top-level managers in a company need
•1. the same information as middle-level managers.
•2. information about accounting but not personnel.
•3. the same information as all other management levels.
•4. information on the marketing strategy of the organization.
•5. information on the overall financial picture of the organization.
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following describes the relationship of businesses in the economic system?
•1. Businesses are interdependent.
•2. Businesses cooperate with each other.
•3. Businesses are independent of each other.
•4. Large businesses dominate small businesses.
•5. None of the above.
1
2
3
4
5
The devices or interventions that are described as high technology all have the following in common:
•1. high cost
•2. flexibility
•3. the ability to leverage
•4. automation
•5. dependability
1
2
3
4
5
High technology will have an impact on the workplace by __________.
•1. automating all procedures.
•2. increasing the level of activity.
•3. focusing on the results not methods.
•4. changing where the work is performed.
•5. removing the need for factories and offices.
1
2
3
4
5
The external environment factor that states “the values and culture affect the way people feel about the organization they are in and about work itself” is what we call______
•1. political factor
•2. sociological factor
•3. technological factor
•4. psychological factor
•5. economic factor
1
2
3
4
5
Strategic Planning ______________
•1. addresses the organization’s basic mission or business and issues broad statements of purpose or direction that have a long lead time
•2. looks specifically at resources, finances and market conditions to determine ways to accomplish the overall plans of the organization
•3. involves managers who are responsible for achieving the unit’s objectives within a specified period of time
•4. includes planning that has measurable targets, schedules, and timetables
•5. determines the day to day operations within the organization
1
2
3
4
5
The process of using the resources and personnel of an organization in an orderly way to achieve the objectives and long-term goals of the organization is known as _________
•1. controlling
•2. organizing
•3. directing
•4. staffing
•5. planning
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following conflict response modes involves or puts an emphasis on winning one’s own concerns at the expense of another?
•1. competing
•2. accommodating
•3. collaborating
•4. avoiding
•5. compromising
1
2
3
4
5
Which source of power is based on a manager’s ability to punish a subordinate?
•1. legitimate power
•2. expert power
•3. reward power
•4. referent power
•5. coercive power
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following organizational structure is the simplest and has clear lines of authority and ease in decision making?
•1. horizontal
•2. Line
•3. Line and staff
•4. staff
•5. vertical
1
2
3
4
5
Which type of separation is most unpleasant for an employee?
1.Voluntary retirement
2.Mandatory retirement
3.Resignation
4.Voluntary lay-off
5.Termination
1
2
3
4
5
The factor that has less immediate effect on a business such as the nation’s rate of inflation or recession, unemployment rate, or standard of living is known as
1. sociological factor
2. technological factor
3. direct economic factor
4. indirect economic factor
5. Political factor
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following is not a basic function of management process?
1.Controlling
2.Organizing
3.Directing
4.Planning
5.Working
1
2
3
4
5
When a lower-level manager passes information or offers suggestions to higher-level manager, he or she is using which level of communication?
1.Downward communication
2.Upward communication
3.Lateral communication
4.Diagonal communication
5.Informal communication
1
2
3
4
5
The process of using the resources and personnel in an orderly way to achieve the objectives and long-term goals of the organization is known as ________________
1.Controlling
2.Organizing
3.Directing
4.Staffing
5.Planning
1
2
3
4
5
Which source of power is based on one’s knowledge, special skills, abilities, or previous experience?
1.Legitimate power
2.Reward power
3.Expert power
4.Referent power
5.Coercive power
1
2
3
4
5
If a solution to a problem is not vital to the operations of an organization, and if the management is willing to overlook the cause of the conflict, managers may choose to use which type of conflict resolution?
1. dominance
2. compromise
3. avoidance
4. confrontation
5. smoothing over
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following best describes the democratic style of leadership?
1.It is known as the impoverished style of management.
2.It is a leadership style that delegates authority to others, encourages participation, and relies on expert and referent powers to manage subordinates.
3.It tends to centralize authority and relies on legitimate, reward, and coercive powers to manage subordinates.
4.It is characterized by low concern for people and low concern for tasks and production.
5.It is a leadership style that has trust in group members
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following can be considered as a disadvantage of line organization?
1.It is simple and easy to understand.
2.Decision-making is fast.
3.Authority and responsibility are clearly delegated.
4.Communication is direct.
5.There is no work specialization.
1
2
3
4
5
The accommodating conflict response mode includes appeasement, yielding to the other, and acquiescence. There can be a note of self-sacrifice and generosity in this mode. All of the following situations calls for this type of mode except_____
1. When harmony is important to you.
2. When you realize or believe that you may be wrong
3. When you are unsure of your position
4. When you have high confidence in other’s expertise and judgment
5. When it is necessary to overcome assertive subordinates or others
1
2
3
4
5
The stage of team development that is characterized by conflict and competitiveness is
1. Forming
2. Storming
3. Norming
4. Performing
5. Adjourning
•
1
2
3
4
5
____________ is a horizontal movement in an organization at about the same wage and level. This may involve shifting workers into new, more interesting jobs or into departments where worker’s skills are required.
1.Promotion
2.Termination
3.Lay-off
4.Separation
5.Transfer
1
2
3
4
5
A philosophy of organization and management that focuses on the selective concentration of authority within an organization structure is known as ___________
1.Constructive
2.Convergence
3.Decentralization
4.Centralization
5.None of the above
1
2
3
4
5
All of the following can be used to justify an employee’s performance appraisal except
1.Terminating the employee
2.Increasing the employee’s salary
3.Offering the employee a promotion
4.Entering the employee in a training program
5.Canceling the employee worker’s compensation insurance
1
2
3
4
5
When an employee is transferred to a job with lesser significance, authority and responsibility, it is known as a ____________.
1.Demotion
2.Promotion
3.Transfer
4.Lateral move
5.Lay off
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following is considered an advantage of group decision making?
•1. The group often develops more alternative solutions, and perhaps a richer array of creative ideas than people who act individually.
•2. Group participants often compromise to preserve group unity and therefore, arrive at less-than-optimal decisions.
•3. Many groups are dominated by strong individual who overwhelms other members and imposes his preference.
•4. Group decisions usually take longer to mar, so time is of the essence, individual decisions are preferable.
•5. Group members are always in danger of falling into the trap of “group think” or the delusion that their collective efforts are necessarily wise and invulnerable.
1
2
3
4
5
All of the following are reasons for delegating except __________.
•1. to ease managerial overload
•2. the need for expertise
•3. proximity of tasks
•4. to provide a psychological climate of cooperation
•5. to blame somebody if the outcome is bad
1
2
3
4
5
The four major approaches to job design are job simplification, job rotation, job enlargement and job enrichment. Which of the following best describes job enrichment?
•
•1. It is the process of designing jobs so that the job holders will have only a small number of activities of perform.
•2. It is the practice of shifting workers through a set of jobs in a planned sequence.
•3. It is the allocation of a wider variety of similar tasks to a job in order to make it more challenging.
•4. It is the number of different tasks an employee performs in a particular job.
•5. It increases job depth, the degree to which individuals can plan and control the work involved in their jobs.
1
2
3
4
5
Suppose you have the task of formulating a plan for making an efficient operation for a particular activity. You should pay least to regard to____________.
•1. the length of time which is consumed in the activity
•2. the degree of prestige which will accrue to you
•3. the value of the end product resulting from the activity
•4. the number of persons involved in the activity
•5. the desirability of providing work schedules for the participants in the activity
1
2
3
4
5
The three managerial role categories are interpersonal, informational, and decisional roles. Which of the following is not classified under the decisional role category?
•1. The manager acts as initiator.
•2. The manager takes corrective action during disputes and crisis.
•3. The manager is a resource allocator.
•4. The manager represents the organization in negotiations.
•5. The manager builds and maintains a network of contacts or information both inside and outside the organization.
1
2
3
4
5
Which of the following is a disadvantage of external recruitment?
•1. Candidates are a potential source of new ideas.
•2. The new employee may have a slower start because of the need for orientation to the organization.
•3. Candidates may have broader experience.
•4. Candidates may be familiar with competition.
•5. Candidates may have new specialties.
1
2
3
4
5
The process of getting results accomplished through others is called______.
•1. leading
•2. working
•3. delegating
•4. mandating
•5. ordering
1
2
3
4
5
All of the following statements are characteristics of a good policy except:
•1. Policies should be known and understood by all who are affected by them.
•2. Policies should be stable.
•3. Policies must be consistent within the company at all levels and departments of the organization.
•4. Policies must be realistic and sincere.
•5. Policies should be a mere statement of ideals or commitments which cannot be implemented if conditions were different.
1
2
3
4
5
The management of people or labor should be handled by what department in an organization?
•1. Administration
•2. Accounting
•3. Information Systems
•4. Human Resources
•5. Customer Service
1
2
3
4
5
Gap analysis _______________.
•1. is a planning approach for determining where an organization is at present
•2. is a planning approach for determining where an organization will go into the future
•3. is a planning approach for determining how an organization will reach its goals
•4. is a planning approach that provides a diagram showing a company’s present momentum and its potential
•5. all of the above
1
2
3
4
5
Cohesive devices are words or phrases that show the relationship between paragraphs or sections of an essay. They are sometimes called
a. linking words
b. connectors
c. transitions
d. all of the above
A
B
C
D
What are the three basic components of an essay?
a. Introduction, abstraction, application
b. Introduction, body, conclusion
c. Introduction, generalization, conclusion
d. Introduction, application, conclusion
A
B
C
D
The body of an essay contains how many paragraphs, at the minimum?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
A
B
C
D
This refers to words or phrases used in the essay which shows the reader where one section or paragraph ends and another begins.
a. Adjectival phrase
b. adverbial phrase
c. Transitional phrase
d. All of the above
A
B
C
D
How many sentences does a basic introduction have?
a. 1 – 2
b. 3 - 4
c. 5 – 6
d. 7 - 8
A
B
C
D
The middle paragraphs of the essay are collectively known as ____?
a. body paragraphs
b. thesis statements
c. transitions
d. abstractions
A
B
C
D
This refers to a short statement, usually one sentence, which says what the essay is about.
a. Introduction
b. Thesis statement
c. Conclusion
d. Generalization
A
B
C
D
1. It refers to that part of the essay that restates the thesis statement in a new way and summarizes the content and findings of the essay.
a. Topic sentence
b. Introduction
c. Synthesis
d. Conclusion
A
B
C
D
In quick and simple essays, how many paragraphs does an essay have?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
A
B
C
D
What paragraph structure works well in a simple essay?
a. One introduction paragraph, three body paragraphs, one conclusion paragraph
b. two introduction paragraphs, two body paragraphs, one conclusion paragraph
c. one introduction paragraph, two body paragraphs, one conclusion paragraph
d. two introduction paragraphs, three body paragraphs, one conclusion paragraph
A
B
C
D
