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E&S Science Final Review

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Study of living Things

a)

Biology

b)

Geology

c)

Physics

d)

Ecology

2.

Study of the Earth and it's processes.

a)

Biology

b)

Geology

c)

Physics

d)

Ecology

3.

Study of how living things interact with the environment

a)

Biology

b)

Geology

c)

Physics

d)

Ecology

4.

Study of planets, stars, and space

a)

Biology

b)

Astronomy

c)

Physics

d)

Geology

5.

Latitude and Longitude are measured in

a)

degrees

b)

inches

c)

miles

d)

kilometers

6.
Lines of Longitude run from the _____ to the ______.
a)
East, West
b)
North, South
c)
South, East
d)
North, West
7.
Lines of ______ measure how far from the equator a place is located?
a)
Longitude
b)
Latitude
8.
The invisible line at 0 degrees latitude is called the ________. 
a)
International Date Line
b)
Prime Meridian
c)
Equator
d)
Arctic Circle
9.
The invisible line at 0 degrees longitude is called the _________.
a)
International Date Line
b)
Prime Meridian
c)
Equator
d)
Antarctic Circle
10.
Latitude lines run from the _____ to the  _______.
a)
West, East
b)
North, South
c)
North, East
d)
South, West
11.

The equator divides the Earth into what two hemispheres?

a)

Eastern and Southern

b)

Northern and Southern

c)

Western and Eastern

d)

Northern and Western

12.

In which of these locations is the greatest amount of fresh water stored?

a)

lakes

b)

oceans

c)

glaciers

d)

atmosphere

13.

The ocean is part of which of Earth's systems?

a)

atmosphere

b)

geosphere

c)

biosphere

d)

hydrosphere

14.
The continuous movement of the continents.
a)
geoscience
b)
rain
c)
wind
d)
plate tectonics
15.
The process by which water, ice, wind, and gravity remove and transport sediments from one place to another.
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
16.

The smallest unit of an element that retains the properties of that element is called a(n)

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Atom

d)

Molecule

17.

Which of the following is NOT a pure substance?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

d)

Molecule

18.

Diamond is known for its

a)

Hardness

b)

Reactivity

c)

Flammability

d)

None of the above

19.

Helium is used in balloons because it is

a)

Reactive to rubber

b)

Lighter than air

c)

Flammable

d)

A colored gas

20.

Which of the following is an example of a gas-liquid mixture?

a)

Coffee with milk

b)

A carbonated soda

c)

Ice cubes

d)

A helium balloon

21.

Which of the following is an element?

a)

Steel

b)

Brass

c)

Bronze

d)

Iron

22.

Which of the following are NOT a characteristic of minerals.

a)

Naturally occurring

b)

Man-made

c)

Solid

d)

Inorganic

23.

True or false: Minerals make up elements.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Minerals are...

a)

Made of rocks

b)

Made of elements

c)

Liquid

d)

Living

25.

The color of the minerals powder.

a)

Color

b)

Streak

c)

Luster

d)

Hardness

26.

The way light reflects off a mineral.

a)

Color

b)

Streak

c)

Luster

d)

Hardness

27.

Minerals resistance to being scratched.

a)

Color

b)

Streak

c)

Luster

d)

Hardness

28.

Maya observes that mica breaks along a flat line, creating thin sheets. This is an example of

a)

Luster

b)

Cleavage

c)

Hardness

d)

Fracture

29.

According to Mohs Hardness Scale, what mineral can scratch corundum?

a)

Talc

b)

Topaz

c)

Diamond

d)

Masonry Drill Bit

30.

According to Mohs Hardness Scale, what mineral can scratch apatite but not quartz?

a)

Talc

b)

Topaz

c)

Diamond

d)

Orthoclase

31.

Mineral or not a mineral:

Diamond

a)

Mineral

b)

Not a mineral

32.

Mineral or not a mineral:

Talc

a)

Mineral

b)

Not a mineral

33.

Which of the following is NOT an example of how minerals form?

a)

Cooling solution

b)

Evaporation of a solution

c)

Cooling magma or lava

d)

Dead plants or animals

34.

Look at the periodic table. What is the name of the element Pb

a)

Lead

b)

Peanut butter

c)

Polorium

d)

Paladium

35.

Look at the periodic table. What is the name of the element C

a)

Chlorine

b)

Cesium

c)

Carbon

d)

Copper

36.

An igneous rock that is formed from lava is called an

a)

Extrusive

b)

Intrusive

37.

The slower magma cools, the smaller the mineral crystals form.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Extremely rapid cooling of lava in which no crystals form, creates what type of texture?

a)

Fine-Grained

b)

Coarse-Grained

c)

Glassy

39.

How do extrusive igneous rocks form?

a)

from lava that erupted onto Earth's surface

b)

from magma that hardened beneath Earth's surface

40.

How do intrusive igneous rocks form?

a)

from lava that erupted onto Earth's surface

b)

from magma that hardened beneath Earth's surface

41.

Is this igneous rock, obsidian, fine-grained or coarse-grained?

a)

fine-grained

b)

coarse-grained

42.

Rhyolite is a fine-grained, extrusive, igneous rock. How did it form?

a)

rapidly cooling lava

b)

slowly cooling magma

43.

Pegmatite is a coarse-grained, intrusive, igneous rock. How did it form?

a)

rapidly cooling lava

b)

slowly cooling magma

44.
Rock made of layers of compressed sediments
a)
metamorphic rock
b)
igneous rock
c)
sedimentary rock
d)
school house rock
45.
The breakdown of rock into smaller particles from the effects of wind, water and ice
a)
erosion
b)
cementation 
c)
pressure
d)
weathering
46.
Wind, water, ice and gravity carry sediments away
a)
weathering
b)
deposition
c)
erosion
d)
cementation
47.
Sediment that is left behind in rivers lakes and oceans
a)
weathering
b)
erosion
c)
cementation
d)
deposition
48.
When the weight of new  sediment layers is deposited on top of older layers
a)
erosion
b)
compaction
c)
pressure
d)
weathering
49.
Force of objects pushing on other objects
a)
erosion
b)
pressure
c)
fighting
50.

Which of the following best describes sedimentary rock?

a)

Rock made from the buildup of sediments in layers

b)

Rock made from other rock that undergoes a chemical change when exposed to high heat

c)

Rock made from the solidification of cooled magma (lava)

51.

Which of the following are necessary for sedimentary rocks to form?

a)

extreme heat and organic matter

b)

extreme pressure and lots of time

c)

pressure only

d)

time only

52.

Sedimentary rocks contain sediments that have been deposited into...

a)

layers

b)

coal

c)

shale

d)

cementation

53.
Metamorphic rocks form from ___.
a)
igneous rocks
b)
other metamorphic rocks
c)
sedimentary rocks
d)
all types of rocks
54.
The difference between regional metamorphism and contact metamorphism is that regional metamorphism is caused by _____ from __________ and contact metamorphism is caused by _________ from _______ intruding into other rock.
a)
heat, tectonic plates, pressure, magma
b)
pressure, tectonic plates, heat, magma
c)
heat, magma, pressure, tectonic plates
d)
pressure, magma, heat, tectonic plates
55.
When metamorphic rocks are formed, the extreme heat is usually caused by the _______.
a)
gravity in the atmosphere
b)
collision of tectonic plates
c)
the fiery hot magma in the Earth's mantle
d)
weight of the mountains
56.
The deeper a rock is buried, the greater the pressure is on it
a)
True 
b)
False
57.
True / False: Metamorphic rocks can be metamorphosed more than once.
a)
True
b)
False
58.

Rocky or rigid outer part of Earth consisting of the brittle crust and the top part of the upper mantle

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Oceanic Crust

c)

Continental Crust

d)

Asthenosphere

59.

Mantle convection is the very slow creeping motion of Earth’s solid silicate mantle caused by convection currents carrying heat from the interior to the planet's surface.

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Earthquake

c)

Convection Currents

d)

Core

60.

Solid, outer layer and is made of both the oceanic and continental crust.

a)

Hydrosphere

b)

Core

c)

Mantle

d)

Crust

61.

Hot fluid or semi-fluid material below or within the earth's crust from which lava and other igneous rock is formed on cooling.

a)

Convection Current

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Core

d)

Magma

62.

The thick part of the earth's crust that forms the large landmasses. It is generally older and more complex than the oceanic crust.

a)

Oceanic Crust

b)

Continental Crust

c)

Magma

d)

Inner Core

63.

Which of these tectonic plate boundaries is most likely to form a volcano.

a)

a continental plate colliding with a continental plate

b)

an oceanic plate sliding past a continental plate

c)

a continental plate sliding past a continental plate

d)

an oceanic plate colliding into a continental plate

64.

What causes the tectonic plates to continually to move?

a)

Convection currents

b)

Volcanic and seismic activity

c)

Strong winds and storms

d)

Rotation of the solid core

65.

Which statement best describes why fossils of the same land-dwelling species have been discovered in both South America and Africa?

a)

The organism migrated to two continents

b)

The organisms were separated by the formation of new mountain ranges

c)

The organisms became extinct due to climate change on these continents

d)

These organisms once lived on one large landmass that later split into two continents

66.
What is the outer layer of the earth called?
a)
Inner core
b)
Outer core
c)
Crust
d)
Mantle
67.
This layer of Earth is solid Iron and Nickel
a)
Outer Core
b)
Mantle
c)
Inner Core
d)
Crust
68.
What was the name of the supercontinent?
a)
The world
b)
Pangea
c)
Land
d)
Mass continent
69.
Earth's crust is broken up into several large rocky pieces called ...
a)
plates
b)
faults
c)
fossils
d)
puzzle pieces
70.
When Earth's plates rub or scrape against one another, the release of energy causes ...
a)
a volcano
b)
an earthquake
c)
a tornado
d)
continental drift
71.
What type of plate boundary is pictured
a)

Destructive

b)

Constructive

c)
tranform
d)
tension
72.
The epicenter of an earthquake is
a)
The point below the surface where rock begins to break and the first motion occurs
b)
The seismic station closest to the earthquake
c)
The place where the greatest damage occurs
d)
The point on the surface directly above the focus
73.

The semi-molten rock underneath a volcano is called ____________

a)

geyser

b)

lahar

c)

lava

d)

magma

74.

Active volcanoes are most likely to be found ___________

a)

in convergent boundaries

b)

in the Pacific Ring of Fire

c)

where tectonic plates pull apart

d)

in transformed boundaries

75.

When magma is thick with more dissolved gas, we can expect the volcanic eruption to be a/an _______

a)

oozing ash and lava

b)

lava frothing over the crater

c)

spewing water like a geyser

d)

violent ejection of ash and lava

76.

What is a volcano?

a)

The movement of the Earth's crust by the movement of plate boundaries

b)

A mountain created by the folding of the Earth's crust

c)

A cone-shaped mountain or hill formed by eruptions of lava and ash

d)

A landform that extends above the surrounding terrain

77.

Magma's resistance to flow, or how thick it is, is called _________

a)

volcanism

b)

viscosity

c)

pyroclastic flow

d)

convection

78.

The Himalayas formed as a result of the ongoing collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates. This is an example of ________ collision.

a)

oceanic plate-continental plate

b)

oceanic plate-oceanic plate

c)

continental-plate-continental plate

d)

terrane-craton

79.

Molten rock that pours forth on Earth's surface is called

a)

metamorphic.

b)

magma.

c)

lava.

d)

pyroclastics.

80.

Large, basin-shaped depressions that form when summit materials on a volcanic mountain collapse inward after an eruption or loss of magma are known as

a)

cinder cones.

b)

craters.

c)

calderas.

d)

domes.

81.

What process causes the volcanoes of the Hawaiian Islands to form?

a)

subduction zones

b)

divergent boundaries

c)

hot spots

d)

convergent boundaries

82.
Volcanoes are made of _______rocks.
a)
igneous
b)
metamorphic
c)
sedimentary
d)
viscous
83.
A volcano begins to form when magma forces its way to the surface and breaks through, forming a hole or
a)
calders
b)
fumarole
c)
pahoehoe
d)
vent
84.
What is directly above the focus?  
a)
Epicenter
b)
Fault
c)
Seismograph Station
85.
Which seismic wave does a seismograph detect first?  
a)
P Wave
b)
S Wave
c)
Surface Wave
86.
Which city is closest to the epicenter?  
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
87.
Which seismogram represents a city that is far from the epicenter of an earthquake?  
a)
New York, NY
b)
Nome, Alaska
c)
Guadalajara, Mexico
88.
The Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun. Which statement is true about the solar energy received when the Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun, compared to the Southern Hemisphere?
a)
The Northern Hemisphere receives less direct solar energy and is cooler.
b)
The Northern Hemisphere receives less direct solar energy and is warmer.
c)
The Northern Hemisphere receives more direct solar energy and is cooler.
d)
The Northern Hemisphere receives more direct solar energy and is warmer.
89.
Each Earth day is 24 hours long. Which statement explains why?
a)
It takes Earth 24 hours to rotate once on its axis.
b)
It takes the moon 24 hours to rotate once on its axis
c)
It takes the moon 24 hours to complete one orbit of Earth.
d)
It takes Earth 24 hours to complete one orbit of the sun.
90.
In January, it is winter in the Northern hemisphere.  What season is it in the Southern hemisphere in January? 
a)
Fall
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Winter
91.
Which gravitational pull has the greatest effect on tides?
a)
The sun's gravitational pull on Earth.
b)
The moon's gravitational pull on Earth.
c)
Earth's gravitational pull on moon.
d)
The sun's gravitational pull on moon.
92.
Just as Earth moves around the sun, the moon revolves around Earth. About how many Earth days does it take for the moon to travel around Earth?
a)
7 days
b)
28 days
c)
180 days
d)
365 days
93.
Why do we always see the same side of the Moon? 
a)
The Moon's period of rotation is longer than its period of revolution around Earth.
b)
The Moon's period of rotation is shorter than its period of revolution around Earth.
c)
The Moon's period of rotation is the same as its period of revolution around Earth.
d)
The Moon does not rotate as it completes one revolution around Earth.
94.
When Earth moves into the moon’s shadow, a solar eclipse takes place. Which phase represents the appearance of the moon during a solar eclipse?
a)
Full Moon
b)
New Moon
c)
Third Quarter
d)
Waning Gibbous
95.
Why is it warmer at the equator than the poles? 
a)
The Earth's revolution
b)
Equator recieves more direct sunlight
c)
The Earth's tilt
d)
Equatro is closer to the sun
96.
What causes seasons on Earth? 
a)
Earth's revolution
b)
Earth's rotation
c)
Earth's tilt
d)
The moon's revolution
97.
What factors influence the force of gravity? 
a)
Mass increases gravity decreases
b)
Distance increases gravity increases
c)
Mass increases gravity increases
d)
Nothing influences the force of gravity
98.

What is the name of the star closest to Earth

a)

Sun

b)

White Dwarf

c)

Demios

d)

Phobos

99.

What is the name of the force that holds Earth in orbit around the Sun?

a)

rotation

b)

revolution

c)

gravity

d)

motion

100.

Select the TWO gases that make up most of the Sun

a)

Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Water Vapor

d)

Carbon Dioxide

e)

Helium

101.

Which planet is closest to Earth in size?

a)

Mercury

b)

Uranus

c)

Venus

d)

Mars

102.

Which is NOT a rocky planet?

a)

Earth

b)

Neptune

c)

Mercury

d)

Mars

103.

Which celestial body turns on its side?

a)

Neptune

b)

Mars

c)

Jupiter

d)

Uranus

104.

The asteroid belt is found between

a)

The Sun and Mercury

b)

Neptune and Uranus

c)

Venus and Earth

d)

Mars and Jupiter

105.

About how much of Earth's atmosphere is oxygen?

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

80%

106.

What is the hottest planet?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Mars

d)

Jupiter

107.

What are comets made of?

a)

sulfuric acid

b)

ice

c)

helium and hydrogen

d)

carbon dioxide

108.

What gases make the Sun so hot and bright?

a)

carbon dioxide & sulfuric acid

b)

nitrogen & oxygen

c)

helium & hydrogen

d)

methane & helium

109.

What is the solar system?

a)

The sun

b)

The planets

c)

The sun and planets ONLY

d)

The sun, planets, and all other objects that orbit the sun

110.

Why do the planets orbit the sun?

a)

They don't, the planets orbit the Earth

b)

Because Science

c)

The sun is so massive that it has a very large gravitational pull, which causes objects to orbit it

d)

Because they want to

111.

T/F: the sun is the biggest star in our galaxy

a)

True, that is why we have the only solar system

b)

False, there are much bigger stars than our sun

112.

Where does the moon get its light from?

a)

The moon makes its own light

b)

The moon gets light from Earth

c)

The Moon gets light from the sun

d)

None of the above

113.

How many stars are in our solar system?

a)

too many to count

b)

billions

c)

one

d)

only the stars that we can see

114.

Stars are composed of _____________.

a)

solids

b)

liquids

c)

gases

115.
What color of star is the hottest?
a)
Blue
b)
Red
c)
Yellow
d)
Orange
116.
What color of star is the coolest?
a)
Red
b)
Yellow
c)
Blue
d)
White
117.
What is the name of the largest stars?
a)
Protostars
b)
Supergiants
c)
Red Giants
d)
Dwarf Stars
118.
What is the name of the gas/dust clouds that form stars?
a)
Nebulas
b)
Protostars 
c)
Supernova
d)
Neutron Star
119.
What is the name of the explosion at the death of a massive star?
a)
Supergiant
b)
Supernova
c)
Black Hole
d)
Nebula
120.
What word best describes our sun?
a)
Average
b)
Supergiant
c)
Dwarf
d)
Red Giant
121.
The H-R diagram is a graph that shows the relationship between ______________ for stars. 
a)
temperature and color
b)
temperature and brightness
c)
brightness and color
d)
distance and brightness
122.
All stars begin their life in a
a)
Main Sequence
b)
Nebula
c)
Protostar
d)
Black Dwarf
123.
______ is a force that causes dust particles to stick together in a nebula.
a)
nuclear fusion
b)
gravity
c)
hydrogen
d)
friction
124.
Most stars are made of which elements?
a)
Hydrogen only
b)
Hydrogen and Lithium
c)
Hydrogen and Sodium
d)
Hydrogen and Helium
125.
A ________ is an object so dense with so much gravity that even light cannot escape.
a)
neutron star
b)
white dwarf
c)
blackhole
d)
black dwarf
126.
A small, hot star near the end of its life is a star called a
a)
white dwarf
b)
red dwarf
c)
supergiant
d)
protostar
127.
When you divide the incoming light from an object into individual colors or wavelengths it's called ___
a)
a time-series graph
b)
a spectrum
c)
a Fourier transform
d)
a histogram
128.
The letters 'O', 'B', 'A', 'F', 'G', 'K' and 'M' arrange stars in order from ___
a)
hottest to coolest
b)
coolest to hottest
c)
largest to smallest
d)
smallest to largest
129.
A star can actually emit more green light than any other color but we'll wind up seeing it as ___
a)
white
b)
red
c)
blue
d)
violet
130.
The light from the Sun is white but some of the shorter wavelengths get scattered away by ___
a)
atoms of oxygen in the air
b)
atoms of argon in the air
c)
molecules of nitrogen in the air
d)
molecules of oxygen in the air
131.
A plot of a stars luminosity vs it's temperature is called ___
a)
an HR diagram, after Hertzsprung and Russell
b)
an HC diagram, after Hertzsprung and Cannon
c)
an CR diagram, after Cannon and Russell
d)
an HS diagram, after Hertzsprung and Saha 

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