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WorksheetsEarth and Space Review
Total questions: 162
Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
igneous rock transforms into metamorphic by...
a)
heat and pressure
b)
compaction and cementation
c)
freezing and melting
d)
weathering and erosion
2.
After changing to sediment the igneous rock is then transformed to sedimentary rock by__.
a)
weathering and erosion
b)
heat and pressure
c)
cementation and compaction
d)
melting and cooling
3.
The actual amount of water in the air in (g/cc)
a)
Relative humidity
b)
Absolute humidity
c)
Humidity index
d)
Saturation level
4.
Hurricanes can NOT cross the equator.
a)
True
b)
False
5.
What is warm front
a)
The pressure of the air
b)
The cold front
c)
the boundary of an advancing mass of warm air
d)
The warm front
6.
Which gas is most abundant in the Earth's atmosphere?
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Oxygen
c)
CO₂
d)
Argon
7.
Most of the Sun's light is absorbed by the atmosphere
a)
True
b)
False
8.
The most water the air can hold at a particular temperature (kg/L)
a)
Humidity index
b)
Water density
c)
Capacity
d)
Relative humidity
9.
The capacity of air to hold water increases with temperature
a)
True
b)
False
10.
The capacity of air to hold moisture divided by the absolute capacity at a given temperature is called the
a)
absolute humidity
b)
humidity index
c)
moisture factor
d)
relative humidity
11.
Which of the following terms is used to describe the total amount of water an air mass CAN have within it?
a)
humidity index
b)
relative humidity
c)
capacity
d)
absolute humidity
12.
Which of the following terms refers to the ACTUAL amount of water in an air mass?
a)
Relative humidity
b)
Humidity index
c)
Capacity
d)
Absolute humidity
13.
Air can hold an unlimited amount of water
a)
True
b)
False
14.
If the capacity of the air is 10 g/cc and absolute humidity is 8 g/cc, what is the relative humidity?
a)
80%
b)
20%
c)
50%
d)
100%
15.
The temperature at which the relative humidity is 100% is called the
a)
dew point
b)
critical temperature
c)
match point
d)
hygroscopic temperature
16.
What happens to relative humidity when the air cools?
a)
RH rises
b)
RS stays the same
c)
RH falls
17.
What happens to relative humidity when temperature rises?
a)
RH drops
b)
RH stays the same
c)
RH rises
18.
What is true when air is at the dew point
a)
RH = 0%
b)
RH = 100%
c)
RH = 50%
19.
Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?
a)
CO₂
b)
H₂O
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Methane
20.
What type of radiation is emitted by the Earth's surface
a)
visible
b)
infrared
c)
ultraviolet
d)
None of these
21.
1 atm is the average atmospheric pressure at
a)
the equator.
b)
sea level
c)
on the moon.
d)
in Denver, CO.
22.
The atmospheric layer of gases that is closest to Earth's surface
a)
stratoshpere
b)
mesosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
exosphere
23.
What zone lies closest to the equator?
a)
Temperate
b)
Tropics
c)
Polar
d)
Midlatitude
24.
What is the Coriolis Effect?
a)
The effect made by a man named Coriolis.
b)
The prevailing pattern of easterly surface winds found near the equator.
c)
The deflection of winds due to the rotation of the Earth.
d)
The deflection of winds due to the revolution of the Earth
25.
Sedimentary rock transforms into metamorphic rock by_________.
a)
cementation and compaction
b)
weathering and erosion
c)
melting and cooling
d)
heat and pressure
26.
what are the three basic type of rocks
a)
lava,ocean,fire
b)
sedimentary,igneous,metamorphic
c)
evaporation,condensation,suplimation
d)
basalt,granite,uranium
27.
Sedimentary rock transforms to igneous rock by ____.
a)
heat and pressure
b)
melting and cooling
c)
evaporation and condensation
d)
its not possible
28.
After transforming to sediment, the metamorphic rock transforms to sedimentary rock by _______.
a)
cementation and compaction
b)
freezing
c)
heat and pressure
d)
it has to be igneous first
29.
What is a well-known igneous rock that contains quartz, feldspar, and mica?
a)
basalt
b)
magma
c)
granite
d)
every rock
30.
Which type of rock is formed when molten magma or lava solidifies?
a)
igneous rock
b)
sedimentary rock
c)
basalt
d)
metamorphic rock
31.
What is an igneous or sedimentary rock that has been changed by extreme pressure and heat?
a)
limestone
b)
granite
c)
conglomerate
d)
metamorphic
32.
rocks that come out of volcanoes form the greater part of the earths crust. These rocks are
a)
igneous
b)
minerals
c)
sediments
d)
metamorphic
33.
wen sedimentary rock is buried underneath a surface it may turn into another rock called
a)
metamorphic rock
b)
igneous
c)
it will stay the same
d)
granite
34.
what is erosion in the rock cycle?
a)
process of wearing away rocks
b)
the process of heating and cooling of rocks
c)
rocks going missing
d)
non of the answers
35.
the rock cycle provides some things people make out of rocks like?
a)
toys and games
b)
roofing and building materials
c)
clothing
d)
reading and writing materials
36.
the rock cycle explains how rocks form
a)
true
b)
false
37.
each rock type can turn into another rock tyoe
a)
true
b)
false
38.
1. What is Pangea?
a)
The name of a German scientist
b)
another name for continental drift
c)
the name of the supercontinent that existed millions of years ago
d)
the name of an ancient fossil
39.
Which mechanical layer of the Earth consists of the crust and rigid upper mantle?
a)
Mesosphere
b)
Lithosphere
c)
Asthenosphere
d)
Outer Core
40.
Which law or principle do geologists use to label the layers from oldest to youngest?
a)
Law of Original Horizontality
b)
Law of Cross Cutting Relationships
c)
Law of Superposition
d)
Principle of Uniformitarianism
41.
The thinnest layer of the Earth is called the:
a)
Mantle
b)
Outer Core
c)
Inner Core
d)
Crust
42.
Convection currents occur in the ____________.
a)
Asthenosphere
b)
Inner Core
c)
Atmosphere
d)
Mantle
43.
What are two different types of crust?
a)
Continental/Oceanic
b)
Lithosphere/Mesosphere
c)
Nazca/Eurasian
d)
Laurasia/Gondwana
44.
Which type of crust is more dense?
a)
Antarctic
b)
M.O.R.s
c)
Oceanic
d)
Continental
45.
The upper part of the mantle, where the plates boundaries lie on top of is called........
a)
Lithosphere
b)
Inner Core
c)
Oceanic
d)
Mantle
46.
The theory that states that the continents once formed a single landmass then broke apart:
a)
Lithosphere Displacement
b)
Laurasia
c)
Plate Movement
d)
Continental Drift
47.
The scientist who came up with the Theory of Continental Drift was .......
a)
Alfred Hitchcock
b)
Alfred Wegener
c)
Alfred Nobel
d)
Alfred Marshall
48.
At Mid-Ocean Ridges. . . . .
a)
the crust is older.
b)
sea-floor spreading occurs.
c)
oceanic lithosphere is destroyed.
d)
tectonic plates are colliding.
49.
The picture is an example of what kind of plate boundary?
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Transform
d)
Collision
50.
The picture is an example of what kind of plate boundary?
a)
Transform
b)
Convergent
c)
Divergent
d)
Uplifting
51.
The picture is an example of what kind of plate boundary?
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Transform
d)
Breakage
52.
What plate boundaries are responsible for earthquakes?
a)
Transform
b)
Convergent
c)
Divergent
d)
All three
53.
A subduction zone is where two plate do what?
a)
Collide and one is pushed under and destroyed.
b)
Spread apart to form new crust.
c)
Collide and form mountains.
d)
Separate and form new continents.
54.
Scientists think movement of tectonic plates is caused by which of the following processes?
a)
Radiation
b)
Convection Currents
c)
GPS
d)
None of these
55.
Convection currents in the mantle are caused by differences in what?
a)
Mass
b)
Temperature and Density
c)
Size
d)
Composition
56.
At transform plate boundaries.....
a)
The plates collide
b)
The plates divide
c)
The plates slide past eachother
d)
None of the above
57.
The same geologic processes that occur today were the same process that occurred in the past
a)
Principal of Uniformitarianism
b)
Law of Original Horizontality
c)
Lawof Superposition
d)
Cross Cutting Relationships
58.
This is an illustration of the
a)
Law of Superposition
b)
Principle of Lateral Continuity
c)
Principal of Uniformitarianism
d)
Law of Disconformities
59.
What is the RELATIVE age of the igneous rock?
a)
Older than the limestone but younger than the shale
b)
Younger than the limestone but older than the shale
c)
Younger than both the limestone and the shale
d)
Older than both the limestone and the shale
60.
Which geologic event occurred last?
a)
The intrusion of X
b)
The fault along line Y
c)
The fold at W
d)
The deposition of gravel at Z
61.
Which labeled aspect of this rock formation occurred first?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
62.
Which layer is solid and composed mainly of iron?
a)
Crust
b)
Mantle
c)
Inner Core
d)
Outer Core
63.
Continental Crust is thinner and denser than oceanic crust.
a)
False
b)
True
64.
Where do convection currents occur?
a)
Crust
b)
Inner Core
c)
Outer Core
d)
Mantle
65.
Which layer is responsible for Earth's magnetic field?
a)
Lithosphere
b)
Mesosphere
c)
Outer Core
d)
Inner Core
66.
What type of data do scientists use to infer the characteristics of Earth's layers?
a)
Hydrological data
b)
Seismic data
c)
Pressure Depth data
d)
Temperature data
67.
What is the first step in the life of every star?
a)
Red giant
b)
Nebula
c)
Protostar
d)
Main sequence
68.
A young star that begins to glow as gravity pulls it together is called a _______.
a)
nebula
b)
protostar
c)
white dwarf star
d)
main sequence star
69.
A star spends most of its life in this stage, fusing hydrogen to form helium at millions of degrees
a)
Main sequence
b)
Protostar
c)
White dwart
d)
Red giant
70.
Low mass stars (like our Sun) expand into _____ after they use up the hydrogen in their core.
a)
Supernova
b)
Protostars
c)
Red giants
d)
White dwarfs
71.
The stage when a high-mass star explodes is called a ____
a)
red giant
b)
black hole
c)
super giant
d)
supernova
72.
This stage is made of densely packed neutrons and sometimes spins and blinks as a pulsar.
a)
supernova
b)
black hole
c)
neutron star
d)
white dwarf
73.
At the end of the life of a super massive star when its gravity is so strong that even light cannot escape, we call it a _______
a)
white dwarf
b)
nebula
c)
supernova
d)
black hole
74.
The most important thing to know about a star and the parameter that determines its life cycle is its ____.
a)
mass
b)
volume
c)
temperature
d)
age
75.
What is the heaviest element that can be created in a main sequence start?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Helium
c)
Carbon
d)
Iron
76.
What is the main difference between a protostar and a main sequence star?
a)
Protostars are not fusing hydrogen
b)
Protostars are more massive than main sequence stars
c)
Protostars are hotter than main sequence stars
d)
Protostars are older than main sequence stars
77.
How does a star produce elements heavier than iron?
a)
heat
b)
rapid rotation
c)
supernova
d)
nuclear fusion
78.
What materials compose the Sun
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Hydrogen and helium
c)
Helium
d)
None of the above
79.
Our Sun is a middle-aged, stable star called a ____ star.
a)
white dwart
b)
gas giant
c)
nebula
d)
main sequence
80.
Which is the correct life cycle for our Sun?
a)
nebula, fusion stage, red giant, black dwarf, white dwarf
b)
nebula, fusion stage, red giant, white dwarf, black dwarf
c)
nebula, fusion stage, super red giant, black dwarf, white dwarf
d)
nebula, fusion stage, red giant, super nova, black hole
81.
Light can escape from a black hole
a)
True
b)
False
82.
All stars end by becoming black holes
a)
True
b)
False
83.
The color of emitted light with the longest wavelength is
a)
red
b)
green
c)
blue
d)
orange
84.
The color of emitted light with the shortest wavelength is
a)
red
b)
green
c)
blue
d)
yellow
85.
A source of light is moving a away from the observer. The frequency of the light appears _____ to the observer.
a)
lower
b)
higher
86.
Which direction is the object moving?
a)
up
b)
down
c)
left
d)
right
87.
What do the light waves of a galaxy moving away from us look like?
a)
red shifted
b)
blue shifted
c)
green shifted
d)
yellow shifted
88.
What happens if the electron moves from level 1 to level 2?
a)
Light is absorbed
b)
Light is emitted
c)
The atom is less excited
d)
The atom decreases one quantum
89.
The image shows an example of
a)
emission spectra
b)
absorption spectra
c)
red shift
d)
blue shift
90.
The image shows an example of
a)
absorption spectra
b)
emission spectra
c)
red shift
d)
blue shift
91.
The figure shows spectra from three stars. Which statement is true?
a)
Star B is the hottest
b)
Star B is the coldest
c)
Star A is the hottest
d)
Star C is the hottest
92.
It is possible to estimate the distance to a star
a)
True
b)
False
93.
Pressure and temperature increase with depth inside Earth.
a)
False
b)
True
94.
How old do scientists believe the universe is?
a)
Scientists don't have a clue
b)
9-10 billion years old
c)
13-14 million years old
d)
13-14 billion years old
95.
The Big Bang involved which of the following?
a)
an explosion
b)
a black hole
c)
an expansion
d)
a bang
96.
The beginning temperature of the Big bang was initially....
a)
Scientists haven't determined yet
b)
Very hot
c)
Very cold
d)
There was no temperature
97.
The Big Bang created what elements?
a)
The heaviest (i.e. Lead, Radium)
b)
The ones in the middle (i.e. Technetium, ruthenium)
c)
The shiniest (i.e. Silver, Gold)
d)
The lightest (i.e. Hydrogen, Helium)
98.
If the spectral lines of a galaxy are shifted to the right (red), then ...
a)
the galaxy is moving away Earth
b)
the galaxy isn't moving
c)
the galaxy is moving towards Earth
d)
the galaxy is moving too fast to tell direction
99.
Which of the following is not evidence of the Big Bang?
a)
Cosmic Microwave Background radiation
b)
Expanding Universe
c)
Supernovae created the heaviest elements
d)
Abundance of the lightest elements (Hydrogen and Helium)
100.
The greater the shift, the ....
a)
the smaller the velocity
b)
the greater the speed
c)
the larger the planet
d)
the better the sound
101.
The universe started as a ....
a)
a big explosion
b)
slow, gradual process
c)
an enormous amount of stuff
d)
A singularity. A tiny speck of tremendous energy.
102.
Compositional layers of the Earth are defined based on what type of properties?
a)
Physical Properties
b)
Compositional Properties
c)
Chemical Properties
d)
Mechanical Properties
103.
Galileo is remembered for
a)
Describing gravity
b)
Discovering the moons of Jupiter
c)
Inventing pizza
d)
His observations of Mars
104.
Copernicus was the first to realize that
a)
the Earth is round
b)
orbits are circular
c)
the Earth orbits the Sun
d)
planets are not stars
105.
Galileo observed the phases of Venus and realized that it is evidence the planets orbit the Sun
a)
True
b)
False
106.
Tycho Brahe is given credit for
a)
realizing that the Earth must orbit the Sun
b)
describing gravity
c)
discovering the moons of Jupiter
d)
precise measurements of the orbits of the planets
107.
The theory that the speed of light is constant and that time slows down for observers in motion is
a)
a common misconception
b)
the theory of general relativity
c)
the theory of special relativity
d)
the principle of equivalence
108.
Kepler used precise observations of the position of Mars to determine
a)
planetary orbits are circles
b)
the planets orbit the Sun
c)
the phases of Mars
d)
planetary orbits are ellipses
109.
The cube of the distance divided by the square of the period, a3/p2, is the same for all the planets orbiting the Sun
a)
True
b)
False
110.
This diagram of orbit of Earth passing the orbit of Mars is an example of
a)
retrograde motion
b)
Kepler's Second Law
c)
the phases of Mars
d)
posigrade motion
111.
All planets are on elliptical orbits with the Sun at the focus is
a)
Kepler's First Law
b)
Kepler's Third Law
c)
Kepler's Second Law
d)
Kepler's Fourth Law
112.
A line between the Sun and any planet sweeps out equal areas in equal times
a)
Kepler's Second Law
b)
Kepler's First Law
c)
Kepler's Third Law
d)
Kepler's Fourth Law
113.
The square of the orbital period is proportional to the cube of its average distance
a)
Kepler's First Law
b)
Kepler's Second Law
c)
Kepler's Third Law
d)
Kepler's Fourth Law
114.
Galileo was led to agree with the heliocentric model when he observed
a)
the phases of the Moon
b)
the phases of Venus
c)
the orbit of Mars
d)
the surface of the Moon
115.
Issac Newton invented the refracting telescope
a)
True
b)
False
116.
The scientist who discovered the expansion of galaxies is
a)
Hubble
b)
Einstein
c)
Hawkings
d)
Degrasse
117.
Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation is
a)
M = a3/p2
b)
F=ma
c)
F=GM1M2/R2
d)
d=gt2
118.
The General Theory of Relativity explains
a)
gravity
b)
the speed of light
c)
the basis for rocket propulsion
d)
the photoelectric effect
119.
The Earth experiences seasons because
a)
it is closer to the Sun in summer
b)
the Earth is tilted in the plane of its orbit
c)
Sun spots increase solar output
d)
climate change
120.
Which law or principle do geologists use to label the layers from oldest to youngest?
a)
Law of OriginalHorizontality
b)
Law of Cross Cutting Relationships
c)
Law of Superposition
d)
Principle ofUniformitarianism
121.
The same geologic processes that occur today were the same process that occurred in the past
a)
Principal of Uniformitarianism
b)
Law of Original Horizontality
c)
Lawof Superposition
d)
Cross Cutting Relationships
122.
This is an illustration of the
a)
Law of Superposition
b)
Principle of Lateral Continuity
c)
Principal of Uniformitarianism
d)
Law of Disconformities
123.
Disconformity
a)
X
b)
Y
c)
W
d)
Z
124.
Nonconformity
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
125.
Paraconformity
a)
z
b)
x
c)
w
d)
Y
126.
Angular Unconformity
a)
Y
b)
Z
c)
X
d)
W
127.
What is the RELATIVE age of the igneous rock?
a)
Older than the limestone but younger than the shale
b)
Younger than the limestone but older than the shale
c)
Younger than both the limestone and the shale
d)
Older than both the limestone and the shale
128.
Which geologic event occurred last?
a)
The intrusion of X
b)
The fault along line Y
c)
The fold at W
d)
The deposition of gravel at Z
129.
Which statement about the area's geologic history is supported by the evidence in the diagram?
a)
The rocks at A formed before those at B
b)
Erosion took place before deposition of layer B
c)
The rocks at D folded after the deposition of rock layer B
d)
The agent of erosion acting on the present surface is ice
130.
What type of unconformity is shown between layers B and C?
a)
Disconformity
b)
Nonconformity
c)
Paraconformity
d)
Angular Unconformity
131.
Which layers show folding?
a)
A and E
b)
A and B
c)
E and F
d)
B and F
132.
Which is the best explanation for the irregular surfacebetween layers 1 and 2?
a)
Layer 1 was partiallyeroded before 2 was deposited
b)
Pressure from thelayers above pushed layer 2 into layer 1
c)
Layer 1 was foldedafter 2 was deposited
d)
Volcanic actionspushed layer 1 up before 2 was deposited
133.
How many times was the area represented in the image coveredwith an ocean?
a)
One
b)
Two
c)
Three or more
d)
Cannot tell from this illustration
134.
A period of uplifting occurred between layers:
a)
I and J
b)
J and K
c)
B and C
d)
H and I
135.
Faulting occurred after which layer of rock was formed?
a)
C
b)
G
c)
F
d)
E
136.
Looking at each layer and knowing the origin of these rocks, one can conclude that this area
a)
Was the Arctic Tundra
b)
Was an active volcano
c)
Was a marine environment
d)
Cannot tell anything
137.
Layer 5 is a conglomerate, a layer needing high energy to deposit it over limestone such as
a)
Glacial deposition
b)
The fact that it occupies the highest layer
c)
Converging boundaries
d)
This layer will contain gold
138.
Both sandstone and shale (layers 1-3) consist of small particles which were deposited how?
a)
It depends on the thickness of the layer
b)
Layers show deposition at lower energy levels than layer 5
c)
These were deposited at a high rate of energy
d)
It depends on whether this was an ocean or a lake
139.
You can recognize that this “eye” shaped structure is a dome and not a basin because
a)
A dome has the youngest rock layers exposed in the center.
b)
Center of a dome is at a lower elevation than the edges
c)
A dome has the oldest rock layers exposed in the center
d)
A basin has the oldest layers of rock at the center
140.
When analyzing Sandstone 1 and 2, what evidence shows us how the climates were different?
a)
Layers would not bend were they formed in the same climate
b)
Domes require three layers of sandstone for formation
c)
A difference in types of fossils found in each layer
d)
The limestone layer and the sandstone layer metamorphosized
141.
Using the geologic map shown, which rock was the last to form?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
142.
What kind of feature is represented by the line with triangles?
a)
Ocean Trench
b)
Fault
c)
Igneous Intrusuion
d)
Volcano
143.
There is a region ofrocks between Macon and Columbus that contain dinosaur fossils indicating
a)
The rocks are precambrian
b)
The rocks are Paleozoic
c)
The rocks are Mesozoic
d)
The rocks are Cenozoic
144.
Why are few, if any fossils found in section B?
a)
Fossils don’t form in igneous and metamorphic rock
b)
Few people have looked for them
c)
Nothing lived there at any time
d)
The organisms that lived there were too small to fossilize
145.
Near which city are you LEAST likely to find caves?
a)
Valdosta
b)
Columbus
c)
Atlanta
d)
Dalton
146.
Region A has fish & fern fossils which tells you what about the region’s past environment?
a)
Ferns and fishes are only found in the Paleozoic
b)
In the Mesozoic, life forms did not live where they do now
c)
Indicates a complex history of shallow seas and dry land
d)
The region suffered severe metamorphism
147.
You can tell area B has been uplifted because:
a)
Older rock is on both sides of it
b)
Older rock is found in the center of a geologic formation
c)
Younger rock is on both sides of it
d)
There isn't enough information to make this conclusion
148.
Which labeled aspect of this rock formation occurred first?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
149.
Why are no dinosaur fossils found near Savannah?
a)
Fossils in this region were destroyed by volcanoes
b)
It was too warm and dinosaurs didn't like the climate.
c)
The land was not there during the Mesozoic
d)
Fossils don’t form in Limestone
150.
Which layer of Earth is made of nickel and iron and is the only liquid layer?
a)
Lithosphere
b)
Outer Core
c)
Asthenosphere
d)
Inner Core
151.
What does the Earth's magnetic field protect it from?
a)
Solar wind
b)
Solar pole reversals
c)
Solar heat
d)
Magnets
152.
Convection currents cause cooler rock to rise and hotter rock to sink.
a)
False
b)
True
153.
What is the lithosphere divided into?
a)
Convection currents
b)
Oceans and landforms
c)
Tectonic Plates
d)
Oceanic Tectonic Plates
154.
2. Which type of evidence was NOT used to support the continental drift hypothesis?
a)
evidence from landforms
b)
evidence from human remains
c)
evidence from fossils
d)
evidence from climate
155.
3. Most geologists think that movement of the Earth's crust is caused by
a)
conduction
b)
convection currents in the mantle
c)
earthquakes
d)
Earth's magnetic field
156.
4. A place where two plates slip past each other, moving in opposite directions, is known as a
a)
transform boundary
b)
convergent boundary
c)
divergent boundary
d)
rift valley
157.
5. A collision between two plates at a converging boundary produces a
a)
mid ocean ridge
b)
rift valley
c)
deep ocean trench
d)
mountain ridge
158.
6. The region where two pieces of ocean crust are diverging is called
a)
rift valley
b)
deep ocean trench
c)
mid-ocean ridge
d)
mountain ridge
159.
7. Earthquakes occur in the vicinity of plate boundaries and not in the interior of the plates
a)
True
b)
False
160.
8. What is true of tectonic plates?
a)
They are constantly moving
b)
Earthquakes cause them to move
c)
They remain stationary for centuries at a time
d)
There are fewer and fewer of them
161.
9. Where is the mantle located?
a)
Between the core and the crust
b)
Below the core
c)
Abvoe the crust
d)
Between the crust and the lithosphere
162.
10. Ocean crust is more dense than continental crust
a)
True
b)
False
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