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Ag Leadership EOPA- FFA, SAE, Business

Total questions: 167

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The rising sun is an important part of the FFA emblem because it represents:
a)
Agricultural knowledge & wisdom
b)
Agricultural opportunity & progress
c)
Hard work associated with agriscience
d)
National Scope of the FFA
2.
Which MOST likely represents the FFA goal to make a positive difference in the lives of students by developing their potential for premier leadership, personal growth and career success?
a)
Colors
b)
Mission Statement
c)
Motto
d)
Official Dress
3.
The part of the horticulture instructional program that provides opportunities to develop leadership, teamwork, citizenship, personal growth and career success is the:
a)
FFA
b)
Horticultural Knowledge
c)
Plant Nursery
d)
Supervised Agricultural Experience
4.
The plow reminds agricultural students and FFA members of what important principle?
a)
Common agricultural interest
b)
Knowledge is important to success
c)
National Scope of FFA
d)
Value of hard work
5.
Sue wears a white collared shirt, black shoes, black skirt, FFA scarf and FFA jacket zipped halfway to the top.  What component of  Official FFA dress is she missing?
a)
Black shoes should be brown
b)
Jacket should be zipped to top
c)
Shirt should be blue rather than white
d)
Skirt should be navy blue
6.
Learning to Do, Doing to Learn, Earning to Live, Living to Serve is the:
a)
FFA Motto
b)
FFA Slogan
c)
FFA Mission
d)
FFA Salute
7.
What year were girls allowed in the FFA?
a)
1928
b)
1935
c)
1965
d)
1969
8.
What club was started for African American students interested in agriculture
a)
FFA
b)
Tarheel Farmers
c)
New Farmers of America
d)
Farm Boys
9.
What REGION is Columbia FFA in?
a)
Southeast
b)
East Central
c)
Northeast
d)
West
10.
What is the 1st degree students can get in High School?
a)
Greenhand
b)
Chapter
c)
State
d)
American
11.
The Pledge of Allegiance is the FFA ___________?
a)
Motto
b)
Salute
c)
Mission
d)
Colors
12.
The secretary is stationed by the:
a)
Owl
b)
Flag
c)
Ear of Corn
d)
Rising sun
13.
Which officer is responsible for welcoming guests, maintaining order, and making sure the meeting room is set up?
a)
President
b)
Treasurer
c)
Reporter
d)
Sentinel
14.
Which officer is stationed by the Flag?
a)
Reporter
b)
Secretary
c)
Vice President
d)
Sentinel
15.

The acronym SAE stands for:

a)

Supervised Agricultural Education

b)

Supervised Agricultural Experience

c)

Super Advanced Education

d)

None of the Above

16.

What is the fourth line of the FFA Motto?

a)

Doing to Learn

b)

Living to Serve

c)

Learning to Do

d)

Earning to Live

17.

Active listening is _______________.

a)

asking questions to make sure you understand.

b)

looking like you are interested.

c)

thinking about the person and what they are trying to say.

d)

all of the above.

18.

In which state was the FFA started?

a)

Virginia

b)

Texas

c)

Georgia

d)

Maine

19.

In what year were females admitted to the FFA?

a)

1918

b)

1931

c)

1967

d)

1969

20.

7. The _______________ is responsible to assist in directing the work of the FFA and presides over meetings in the absence of the president.

a)

treasurer

b)

secretary

c)

vice-president

d)

sentinel

21.

How many gavel taps are required for members to be seated?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

7

22.

In what year did the FFA and NFA merge?

a)

1931

b)

1965

c)

1969

d)

1988

23.

The Advisor is stationed by the _______________.

a)

flag

b)

sun

c)

owl

d)

plow

24.

Official dress for females does not include _________.

a)

white-collared shirt

b)

black dress pants

c)

official FFA tie

d)

black skirt

25.

The FFA president is stationed by the _____________.

a)

owl

b)

rising sun

c)

plow

d)

sun

26.

Which word best describes running your own business?

a)

Placement

b)

Entrepreneur

c)

Research

d)

Exploration

27.

Which best describes working as an intern for a company?

a)

Placement

b)

Entrepreneur

c)

Research

d)

Exploration

28.

Which best describes studying a concept as a scientist?

a)

Placement

b)

Entrepreneur

c)

Research

d)

Exploration

29.

Which best describes basic learning about a subject?

a)

Placement

b)

Entrepreneur

c)

Research

d)

Exploration

30.

What type of SAE would put students in internships in agriculture, food or natural resources-related businesses to provide a "learning by doing" environment. These experiences may be paid or unpaid.

a)

Placement

b)

Entrepreneur

c)

Research

d)

Exploration

31.

Which type of SAE would have students own the enterprise, equipment and supplies, make the management decisions and assume the financial risks to produce a product or provide a service.

a)

Placement

b)

Entrepreneur

c)

Research

d)

Exploration

32.

This SAE activity is usually beginner level, short term and designed primarily to help students become literate in agriculture.

a)

Placement

b)

Entrepreneur

c)

Research

d)

Exploration

33.

Which of the following activities would be an entrepreneurship SAE involving Chickens?

a)

Work for a local free-range chicken farmer

b)

Raise broiler hens for sale in your backyard

c)

Conduct a survey of all poultry operations in your area

d)

Research cage layers versus floor layers egg production

34.

If you raise these, which cluster is most likely?

a)

Animal Systems

b)

Environmental Service Systems

c)

Plant Systems

d)

Power, Structural & Technical Systems

35.

Which career cluster would the conservation of Missouri's woodlands most closely align with?

a)

Animal Systems

b)

Business Systems

c)

Natural Resources Systems

d)

Food Products/Processing Systems

36.
In the early 1900s many towns developed around the discovery of oil, this is called a
a)
boomtown
b)
bust town
c)
ghost town
d)
progressive town
37.
When an economy is not doing well, this is called a
a)
boom
b)
bust
c)
good day
d)
bear
38.
What is agribusiness?
a)
making money from agriculture
b)
making money from technology
c)
making money from space
d)
making money from taxes
39.
True or False: The Dust Bowl happened during the Great Depression.
a)
True
b)
False
40.
When an economy is thriving and doing well, this is called a
a)
boom
b)
bust
c)
good day
d)
bear
41.
When you diversify your economy you are  
a)
identifying cattle
b)
increasing the variety of products
c)
in a free enterprise
d)
a risk taking person
42.
Capital is
a)
a risk taking person
b)
increasing the variety of products
c)
equipment, factories or money used to produce goods or services
d)
wealth and resources of a nation
43.
True or False:  The cattle drive era died because of barbed wire, railroads and the dust bowl.
a)
true
b)
false
44.
Ranch owners would do what to mark their cows?
a)
tattoo
b)
barbed wire
c)
brand
45.
What do balance sheets measure?
a)
Health of a business or individual
b)
Structure of a business
46.
What is an asset?
a)
What you own
b)
What you owe
c)
Prize possession
47.
Which is an example of an asset?
a)
Land
b)
Bank Loan
c)
Note
48.
What is a liability?
a)
What you owe
b)
What you own
49.
What is an example of a liability?
a)
Charge account
b)
Land
c)
Market Steer
d)
Pickup
50.
What is the owner's equity?
a)
Net worth
b)
Asset
c)
Liability
d)
Current
51.
Liquidity is the same as what financial term?
a)
Current
b)
Non-current
c)
Asset
d)
Liability
52.
What is a current asset?
a)
Can be sold without affecting long term profit generating capacity
b)
Can't be sold without affecting long term profit generating capacity
53.
What is an example of a current asset?
a)
Bank account balance
b)
Credit card bill
c)
Land
d)
Tractor
54.
What is an example of a current asset?
a)
Bank account balance
b)
Credit card bill
c)
Land
d)
Tractor
55.
What is the length of time current covers?
a)
0-12 months
b)
12+ months
c)
36+ months
d)
24+ months
56.
What is the length of non-current?
a)
2 months
b)
6 months
c)
12+ months
d)
0-12 months
57.
What is the definition of a non-current asset?
a)
Something that cannot be sold without harming the long-term profit generation capacity
b)
Some that can be sold without harming the long-term profit gernation capacity
58.
What is an example of a non-current asset?
a)
Fertilizer
b)
Land
c)
Bill for Lumber
d)
Feed
59.
What is an example of a current liability?
a)
Credit Card Bill
b)
Property mortgage
c)
Trailer
d)
Tractor
60.
What is a current liability?
a)
Long-term debt you owe within 12 months
b)
long-term debt you owe past 12 months
c)
What you own within 12 months
61.
What is a non-current liability?
a)
Long-term debt due in 12+ months
b)
Debt due within 12 months
c)
Debt due within 2 months
d)
Debt due within 1 week
62.
What is the equation for calculating owner's equity?
a)
Total Assets-Total Liability
b)
Total Assets + Total Liability
c)
Total Assets X Total Liability
d)
Total Assets/ Total Liability
63.
What does a cost-basis balance sheet measure?
a)
Measures business' performance over time
b)
Measures liquidation value of a business
c)
Only measures business' failures
d)
Only measures business' success
64.
What does a market-basis balance sheet measure?
a)
Measures the liquidation value of a business
b)
measures business' performance over time
c)
Only measures business' failures
d)
Only measures business' success
65.

allocation of monetary funds based on a determined structure

a)

Budgeting

b)

Net Income

c)

Net Worth

d)

Gross Income

66.

blueprints for the execution and organization of revenues and expenditures; a specific plan for spending and saving money

a)

Gross Income

b)

Budgets

c)

Net Worth

d)

Variable Expenses

67.

remains the same regardless of business activity

a)

Fixed Expenses

b)

Variable Expenses

c)

Net Income

d)

Gross Income

68.

assets minus liabilities

a)

Net Worth

b)

Net Income

c)

Gross Income

d)

Fixed Expenses

69.

An enterprise which derives a significant portion of its revenue.

a)

Agribusiness

b)

Business Mangement

c)

Business

d)

Agricultural Services

70.

Develop products for distribution from raw goods, such as forestry, farming & mining

a)

Producers

b)

Processors

c)

Intermediaries

d)

Service Firms

71.

Change raw goods into a more finished form using facilities such as cotton mils, oil refineries, textile mills

a)

Processors

b)

Producers

c)

Manufacturers

d)

Intermediaries

72.

Change raw or processed goods using facilities such as boot factories, furniture factories, cotton processing and citrus fruit processing

a)

Producers

b)

Processors

c)

Manufacturers

d)

Intermediaries

73.

Move finished goods from one business to another, also known as the "middlemen"

a)

Processors

b)

Manufacturers

c)

Producers

d)

Intermediaries

74.

Provide intangible goods to consumers and other businesses

a)

Intermediaries

b)

Service firms

c)

Intangible good

d)

Agricultural Co-op

75.

A good which cannot be physically touched; usually involving a service, such as going to the doctor

a)

Manufactured good

b)

Intangible good

c)

Tangible good

d)

Processed good

76.

Organization in which agriculturalists bring together their resources in a specific area of activity

a)

Non-Profit Organizations

b)

Service Firms

c)

Agricultural Co-ops

d)

Ag businesses

77.

Provides goods and services to individuals and operates on donations, volunteers, and philanthropists

a)

Non-Profit Organizations

b)

Service Firms

c)

Agricultural Co-ops

d)

Ag businesses

78.

Encourages appropriate standards of conservation, restoration management and the proper use of soil, water and natural resources

a)

National Cattlemen's Beef Association

b)

Farm Bureaus

c)

National Pork Producers Council

d)

The Association of Soil and Water Conservation Districts

79.

Enhances profit opportunities for cattle & beef producers by increasing business and creating consumer demand

a)

National Cattlemen's Beef Association

b)

Farm Bureaus

c)

National Pork Producers Council

d)

The Association of Soil and Water Conservation Districts

80.

Supports the members management of the financial risks of everyday life and successfully recover from any insured loss

a)

National Cattlemen's Beef Association

b)

Farm Bureaus

c)

National Pork Producers Council

d)

The Association of Soil and Water Conservation Districts

81.

Increases opportunities for the success of US pork producers and other industry stakeholders

a)

National Cattlemen's Beef Association

b)

Farm Bureaus

c)

National Pork Producers Council

d)

The Association of Soil and Water Conservation Districts

82.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that price is determined by?

a)

Supply of the item

b)

Demand of the item

c)

Time the item has been manufactured

d)

General price level

83.

Diversification involves the broadening of the range of services specifically by adding new lines of service.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Horizontal integration prevents duplication and competition of functions.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Which term refers to the study of the properties and management of soil to grow plants?

a)

crop science

b)

plant science technology

c)

agriculture engineering

d)

soil science

86.

Successful embryo transfers MOST likely require the services of a/an:

a)

Veterinarian

b)

Extension Agent

c)

Herdsman

d)

Nutritionist

87.

What are the 3 nutrients that a complete fertilizer contains?

a)

Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Hydrogen

b)

Phosphorus, Nitrogen, Potassium

c)

Potassium, Hydrogen Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen, Potassium, Phosphorus

88.

Organic fertilizers have a higher analysis of soluble nutrients that have been blended together for a specific purpose.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Which is dried cow manure an example of?

a)

Fertilizer Application

b)

Inorganic Fertilizer

c)

Organic Fertilizer

90.

What word has a definition of - is the spraying of liquid fertilizer directly onto the leaves of plants.

a)

Broadcasting

b)

Side-dressing

c)

Foliar application

d)

Fertilizer application

91.

How many types of fertilizer applications are there?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

92.

List a kind of fertilizer application?

(a)  

93.

What is the first step of the Scientific Method?

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Experiment

c)

Drawing a conclusion

d)

Observation

94.

Data that we observe with our senses is known as:

a)

Qualitative

b)

Quantative

c)

Results

d)

Hypothesis

95.

Data that involves measurements and will always be in numerical values is known as:

a)

Prediction

b)

Double- blind testing

c)

Qualitative

d)

Quantitative

96.

A factor that is changed in an experiment is known as

a)

Dependent factor

b)

Independent factor

c)

Controlled factor

d)

Observation

97.

Describes the size and direction of a relationship between two or more variables

a)

Data

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Correlation coefficient

d)

Causation

98.

The correlation coefficient of the the graph would be

a)

+2

b)

-1

c)

0

d)

+1

99.

Select which best describes Double Blind Testing

a)

The tester knows which group is the experiment group and control group

b)

The tester does not know who is the experimental group or the control group

c)

The tester decides the experiment group

d)

the tester decides the control group

100.

Primary data is .....

a)

data collected by a scientist during an experiment

b)

data gathered during research of scientific journals

c)

data that is always in numerical form

d)

the first results from an experiment

101.

Accuracy is....

a)

how close a measurement is to the true value

b)

how close the measurements are to each other

c)

how well a scientist uses their equipment

102.

Consistent, repeatable error caused by faulty measuring instruments are known as

a)

Statistical uncertainties

b)

Correlation coefficient

c)

Systematic uncertainties

d)

Causation

103.

Statistical errors can be reduced by which of the following?

a)

Calibrating equipment

b)

learning how to use measuring equipment properly

c)

increasing the sample size

d)

using a control

104.

Findings from a scientific investigation must be ideally published

a)

online

b)

in a scientific journal

c)

in a lab copy

105.

The dependent variable in an experiment is

a)

the factor that is changed in an experiment

b)

factor that must be kept constant in an expereiment

c)

the factor that is measured in an experiment

106.

After analysing data what is the next step in a scientific investigation?

a)

Hypothesising

b)

Drawing a conclusion

c)

Publish findings

107.

After formulating a Hypothesis what is the next step?

a)

Making an Observation

b)

Analyse data

c)

Design an experiment

d)

Draw a conclusion

108.

A theory is defined as

a)

an educated guess

b)

a hypothesis proved by repeated testing

c)

a factor that is changed during an experiement

d)

a hypothesis that has not yet not been tested by experiment

109.

Which of the following would be best to use to show the composition of soil?

a)
b)
c)
d)
110.

Which of the following is a line graph?

a)
b)
c)
d)
111.

Successful embryo transfers MOST likely require the services of a/an:

a)

Veterinarian

b)

Extension Agent

c)

Herdsman

d)

Nutritionist

112.

What education level is required to be a vet?

a)

Associates Degree (2 year)

b)

Bachelors Degree (4 year)

c)

Bachelors Degree plus advanced degree & additional training

d)

High School Diploma

113.

Which career is responsible for shoeing horses feet?

a)

Farrier

b)

Nutritionist

c)

Farm hand

d)

Horse Vet

114.

Which type of chicken is used for meat?

a)

Bantam

b)

Layer

c)

Broiler

d)

Turkey

115.

Which breed of dairy cattle is the most popular, black & white, and has high milk production?

a)

Guernsey

b)

Jersey

c)

Brown Swiss

d)

Holstein

116.

The Angus is best known for it's:

a)

Black color and high quality meat.

b)

Hump and heat tolerance.

c)

Large calves and fast growth rate.

d)

Large size and leaner meat.

117.

American breeds developed by crossing the Braham from India with English breeds are bred to:

a)

Improve meat quality.

b)

Increase heat tolerance.

c)

Increase milk production.

d)

Reduce the size of calves.

118.

Purebred breeders use high-quality boars as a MAJOR way to:

a)

Decrease the influence of marketing on prices.

b)

Improve genetic makeup of one breed of swine.

c)

Increase body fat on hogs.

d)

Reduce hybrid vigor.

119.

What is the MAJOR use for the Broad Breasted White?

a)

Bantam show hens

b)

Commercial turkey production

c)

Home egg production

d)

Meat production

120.

The consumer demands hogs today that are:

a)

Able to grow without being fed grain.

b)

Fat type hogs that produce lard for cooking.

c)

Good for soap production.

d)

Lean type hogs for meat production.

121.
Which term describes the raising of cattle and the growing of crops?
a)
marketing
b)
distribution
c)
production
d)
processing
122.
Which term describes making consumers aware of the product?
a)
sales
b)
marketing
c)
distribution
d)
processing
123.
What does a harvester do?
a)
takes product from the field
b)
separates grain from chaff
c)
cuts and bundles grasses
d)
takes product, cuts, and separates
124.
What did John Deere invent?
a)
iron plow
b)
crop rotation system
c)
steel moldboard plow
d)
combine
125.
Why are some government leaders slow to implement agriscience?
a)
they are uneducated about benefits
b)
scared of new technology
c)
may cause higher taxes
d)
may cause massive unemployment
126.

What does a combine do?

a)

takes product from the field

b)

separates grain from chaff

c)

cuts and bundles grasses

d)

takes product, cuts it, and separates grain from chaff

127.
What does a thresher do?
a)
takes product from the field
b)
separates grain from chaff
c)
cuts and bundles grasses
d)
takes product, cuts, and separates
128.
What is going to be the key to an adequate food supply in the new millennium?
a)
more farms
b)
more grants
c)
agriscience research
d)
availability of farm land
129.
What invention led to a rise in corn prices?
a)
ethanol
b)
combine
c)
pesticides
d)
fertilizers
130.
What did Thomas Jefferson invent?
a)
iron plow
b)
crop rotation system
c)
steel moldboard plow
d)
combine
131.
What did Charles Townshend invent?
a)
iron plow
b)
crop rotation system
c)
steel moldboard plow
d)
combine
132.
What type of plant has bacteria that can fix nitrogen from the air to the soil?
a)
monocots
b)
dicots
c)
angiosperms
d)
legumes
133.
What machine is used to harvest small grains?
a)
reaper
b)
plow
c)
thresher
d)
combine
134.
What helps children with Vitamin A deficiency?
a)
BT corn
b)
golden rice
c)
yellow sunshine
d)
legumes
135.
What metal revolutionized agriculture?
a)
iron
b)
steel
c)
aluminum
d)
gold
136.
Which term describes turning raw product into desirable ones?
a)
marketing
b)
distribution
c)
production
d)
processing
137.
What was one of the first commercial products made by genetic engineering?
a)
insulin
b)
golden rice
c)
ethanol
d)
fertilizer
138.

What three grains are referred to as cereal grains?

a)

barley, rye, corn

b)

rice, wheat, corn

c)

wheat, corn, barley

d)

corn, wheat, rye

139.
What term describes the application of scientific principles and new technologies to agriculture?
a)
agriculture
b)
agriscience
c)
agribusiness
d)
agritechnology
140.
What does a reaper do?
a)
takes product from the field
b)
separates grain from chaff
c)
cuts and bundles grasses
d)
takes product, cuts, and separates
141.

Which term describes the organization and transportation of the product?

a)

marketing

b)

distribution

c)

production

d)

processing

142.
Which of the following is not an advantage gained from agriscience?
a)
increased efficiency
b)
safer food supply
c)
decreased food costs
d)
more complex processes
143.
The biggest industry in the United States is...
a)
retail
b)
energy
c)
agriculture
d)
construction
144.

What part of the agenda is the President responsible for?

a)

Reading of the minutes

b)

financial report

c)

providing of refreshments

d)

Call to Order

145.

What industry grows trees and turns them into products?

a)

Forestry

b)

Horticulture

c)

Agronomy

d)

Aquaculture

146.

Plants used for food, comfort, and beauty belong to which category?

a)

Horticulture

b)

Forestry

c)

Agronomy

d)

Aquaculture

147.

Membership in FFA is traditionally limited to students who are

a)

enrolled in Agriscience classes

b)

enrolled at the school where the chapter is

c)

plan to have a career in Agriscience

d)

plan to go to college for Agriculture

148.

Which is not something FFA teaches us?

a)

Choices in Ag Careers

b)

Leadership Development

c)

Promote yourself above others

d)

Promote Good Citizenship

149.

What is the first line of the FFA motto?

a)

Doing to learn

b)

Learning to do

c)

Living to serve

d)

Earning to live

150.

An example of a plant science career that belongs in any of the plant science areas is:

a)

forage manager

b)

entomologist

c)

produce manager

d)

florist

151.

The purpose of petals on flowers is to:

a)

attract insects for pollen

b)

support the stamen

c)

store food

d)

hide the plant from animals

152.

Within the FFA symbol there are several elements. Which one symbolizes the Advisor?

a)

corn

b)

owl

c)

plow

d)

sunrise

153.

Within the FFA symbol there are several elements. Which one symbolizes labor and tillage of the soil?

a)

corn

b)

owl

c)

plow

d)

eagle

154.

Three taps of the gavel signals the members to

a)

Say the pledge

b)

Rise

c)

Be Seated

d)

Vote

155.

To end the meeting is to....

a)

Lay on the Table

b)

Take from the Table

c)

Postpone

d)

Adjourn

156.

Who prepares the minutes for the meeting?

a)

The president

b)

The Vice President

c)

The Secretary

d)

The Treasurer

157.

The first degree a High School student can get is a ?

a)

Greenhand

b)

Discovery

c)

Chapter

d)

State

158.
What did John Deere invent?
a)
iron plow
b)
crop rotation system
c)
steel moldboard plow
d)
combine
159.

The best tool to use when trimming and shaping shrubbery is the:

a)

chain saw

b)

hedge shears

c)

lopping shears

d)

pruning shears

160.

What is this?

a)

Pruning Shears

b)

Hedge Shears

c)

Chainsaw

d)

Lopping Shears

161.

What education level is required to be a vet?

a)

Associates Degree (2 year)

b)

Bachelors Degree (4 year)

c)

Bachelors Degree plus advanced degree & additional training

d)

High School Diploma

162.

Which career is responsible for shoeing horses feet?

a)

Farrier

b)

Nutritionist

c)

Farm hand

d)

Horse Vet

163.

Which type of chicken is used for meat?

a)

Bantam

b)

Layer

c)

Broiler

d)

Turkey

164.

Which breed of dairy cattle is the most popular, black & white, and has high milk production?

a)

Guernsey

b)

Jersey

c)

Brown Swiss

d)

Holstein

165.

The Angus is best known for it's:

a)

Black color and high quality meat.

b)

Hump and heat tolerance.

c)

Large calves and fast growth rate.

d)

Large size and leaner meat.

166.

American breeds developed by crossing the Braham from India with English breeds are bred to:

a)

Improve meat quality.

b)

Increase heat tolerance.

c)

Increase milk production.

d)

Reduce the size of calves.

167.
The minimum level of education required for a soil scientist is
a)
High School Diploma
b)
Postsecondary vocational education
c)
Associates Degree
d)
Bachelors Degree

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