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Cloud Analyst Principles

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Adding more servers when you are at capacity is an example of what....

a)

Scaling Out

b)

Scaling Down

c)

Scaling Up

d)

Availability

2.

Which of these is a SaaS program....

a)

Microsoft 365

b)

Google Gmail

c)

Dropbox

d)

All of these

3.

A feasibility test to determine your company's readiness to move to the cloud is called a....

a)

Cloud Assessment

b)

Service Level Agreement

c)

Exit Strategy

d)

Risk Assessment

4.

The term for dynamically adding or subtracting cloud resources according to the demand is known as..

a)

High Availability

b)

Elasticity

c)

Fault Tolerance

d)

Disaster Recovery

5.

The type of expense that includes land, buildings and IT equipment is know as...

a)

Intellectual Property

b)

OpEx

c)

CapEx

d)

Subscription

6.

A network connection that hides your private data and IP address from hackers is know as

a)

VLAN

b)

VPN

c)

Subnet

d)

Port

7.

The term for being able to access your cloud resources or data at any time is known as...

a)

Reliability

b)

Scalability

c)

Elasticity

d)

Availability

8.

Cloud computing costs are considered...

a)

Fixed

b)

Unpredictable

c)

CapEx

d)

Expensive

9.

What does CSP stand for?

a)

Cloud Scalability Port

b)

Cloud Service Provider

c)

Computer Service Provider

d)

Cloud Services Protocols

10.

Which is an example of a CSP?

a)

Amazon Web Services

b)

Microsoft Azure

c)

Google Cloud Platform

d)

All of the Above

11.

The term for storing your data in more than one location is known as...

a)

Encryption

b)

Redundancy

c)

DevOps

d)

Databack

12.

This document specifies exact metrics a CSP agrees to make for certain services (ex. 99.99% server availability)

a)

SOA

b)

RPO

c)

RPI

d)

SLA

13.

A cloud setting that says "When CPU usage reaches 80%, scale resources up 30%" is an example of...

a)

Auto-scaling

b)

Scalability

c)

Elasticity

d)

Scaling Down

14.

What can have a negative effect on cloud computing and can be a single point of failure if your cloud resources do not operate?

a)

Over capacity

b)

IT infrastructure outdated

c)

Bad Network Connection

d)

Cannot access servers

15.

The term for how long your cloud service is "up and running"

a)

portability

b)

uptime

c)

implementation

d)

gravity

16.

Proving you are who you are is known as...

a)

authorization

b)

CAPCHA

c)

authentication

d)

identity

17.

Permission to have access to secure data or other cloud-related services and resources, is known as...

a)

authorization

b)

authentication

c)

federation

d)

access management

18.

The term for how you handle a possible risk is called

a)

avoidance

b)

acceptance

c)

mitigation

d)

evaluate

19.

The ability to transfer data from one CPS to another in the event that a CSP goes out of business, is known as..

a)

Transference

b)

Data Portability

c)

Elasticity

d)

Geo-Redundancy

20.

Provides encryption for web-based connections and security when making online purchases

a)

HTTP

b)

SSH

c)

SMTP

d)

HTTPS

21.

Provides a secure means by which a remote Windows GUI can be accessed

a)

RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

b)

RDCMan (Remote Desktop Connection Manager)

c)

Authentication

d)

Compliance

22.

A storage feature offered by CSPs that removes duplicate files

a)

Data Integrity

b)

Locality

c)

Deduplication

d)

Redundancy

23.

Encodes data in a manner that consumes less storage capacity and less network bandwidth

a)

Compression

b)

Portability

c)

Decryption

d)

Scale-down

24.

A security process that applies cryptographic technologies to a stream of network traffic

a)

VPN

b)

VPN Gateway

c)

Encryption

d)

Authentication

25.

The ability to restore services in the event of an actual failure

a)

Availability

b)

Reliability

c)

Disaster Recovery

d)

RPO

26.

The measure of downtime for a given service

a)

High Availability

b)

Latency

c)

Compression

d)

Bandwidth

27.

A large building that is situated in a cloud region that hosts all the IT infrastructure for a CSP

a)

Headquarters

b)

Data Center

c)

Cloud Zone

d)

Availbility Zone

28.

Application developers would utilize which service model to create their apps

a)

IaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

DaaS

29.

Software Defined Storage (SDN) automates the management of storage, provides ability to view available storage across all technologies and offers flexible management of storage capacity.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Specifies a quantity of time between the most recent backup and a disaster event. It is an understanding of how much data the business can acceptably lose

a)

RPO

b)

RTO

c)

CDN

d)

DevOps

31.

Software Defined Network (SDN) removes the control plane and allows administrators to manage networking in a more dynamic and flexible manner

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Provides a secure network connection between two endpoints

a)

HTTPS

b)

POP3

c)

Port

d)

SSH

33.

Which service model would you use if you were replacing all your on-premises IT equipment with cloud services?

a)

PaaS

b)

IaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

XaaS

34.

Which cloud model is exclusive to one business who typically has their own datacenter

a)

Hybrid Cloud

b)

Private Cloud

c)

Public Cloud

d)

Community Cloud

35.

Which cloud model allows businesses with similar needs to share resources?

a)

Public Cloud

b)

Private Cloud

c)

Multicloud

d)

Community Cloud

36.

Which cloud model is available to anyone with an internet connection?

a)

Private Cloud

b)

Hybrid Cloud

c)

Public Cloud

d)

Multicloud

37.

Allows applications to communicate and transfer information to one another in the cloud

a)

SLA

b)

API

c)

RPO

d)

SDN

38.

Standard payment model for cloud computing

a)

Fixed

b)

Subscription

c)

Dynamic

d)

CashApp

39.

The costs for running a business

a)

CapEx

b)

OpEx

c)

Fixed

d)

Variable

40.

The ability to label particular in a flexible and customized manner

a)

Hashing

b)

Tagging

c)

Documentation

d)

Labeling

41.

Can help with the cloud migration process and help determine what services are needed and who to get them from

a)

Managed Service Provider (MSP)

b)

Cloud Service provider (CSP)

c)

Cloud Expert Services (CES)

d)

Cloud Migration Specialist (CMS)

42.

a technology that allows us to create virtual resources such as servers, networks, storage, and more

a)

Cloud Computing

b)

Virtual Machine

c)

Virtualization

d)

Container

43.

Known as "Lift and Shift", this migration strategy refers to an application that does not need modification and is cloud-ready

a)

Retain

b)

Rehost

c)

Replatform

d)

Refactor

44.

This is virtualization at the OS level, which partitions a single OS to be used my multiple machines

a)

Hypervisor

b)

Container

c)

Virtualization

d)

None of these

45.

a virtual "instance" of a computer hosted in the cloud is known as a

a)

Hypervisor

b)

Container

c)

Virtual Machine

d)

Server

46.

The terms for testing or playing with an application in an isolated environment is

a)

Pilot

b)

Beta

c)

Alpha

d)

Sandboxing

47.

A set of practices that combine the development process with operational support function used by system admins and developers

a)

Protocols

b)

DevOps

c)

Configuration Management

d)

SOA

48.

An example of a natural threat

a)

Data breach

b)

Employee forgets to log off computer

c)

Denial of Service

d)

Hurricane

49.

an authentication method that enables users to securely authenticate with multiple applications and websites by using just one set of login credentials

a)

Federation

b)

CAPCHA

c)

SSO

d)

Active Directory

50.

The process of determine possible threats or barriers a company could possible encounter in the cloud, and how to mitigate them is called...

a)

Cloud Assessment Process

b)

Cloud Security Strategy

c)

Risk Assessment Process

d)

Security Threats Protocols

51.

Standard Operating Procedures (SOA) are step-by-step instructions for specific tasks to have more consistency

a)

True

b)

False

52.

The process of allocating and distributing the workload and traffic of computing resources in the cloud

a)

Virtualization

b)

Scalability

c)

Reliability

d)

Load Balancing

53.

This type of hardware or software creates and runs VMs on a single host

a)

Load Balancer

b)

Hypervisor

c)

Spot Instance

d)

Sandbox

54.

This study determines if your cloud resources are being used to their fullest potential

a)

Cloud Assessment

b)

Service Level Agreement

c)

Cloud Performance Report

d)

Gap Analysis

55.

When migrating to the cloud, this phase is the complete deployment of a service that helps streamline the cloud migration process

a)

Orchestration

b)

Planning

c)

Sandboxing

d)

Cloud Operations

56.

The name given to hosting immense amounts of data

a)

Data Enormo

b)

Big Data

c)

Updata

d)

Godzilla Data

57.

Refers to the elimination of the human role in management tasks

a)

Robotics

b)

Automation

c)

Gravity

d)

Autoscaling

58.

A small-scale project to test logistics, prove value of migration and reveal any weaknesses in deployment

a)

Alpha

b)

Pilot

c)

Sandboxing

d)

Regression Testing

59.

A cloud migration strategy known as "Lift, Tinker and Shift", which requires some modifications before deploying to the cloud

a)

Rehost

b)

Retain

c)

Replatform

d)

Refactor

60.

Allows a business to move data to where it can be utilized more effectively and helps to increase redundancy between availability zones.

a)

Geo-Redundancy

b)

High Availability

c)

Replication

d)

Redundancy

61.

A phenomenon that basically means the more data there is, the harder it is to move

a)

Gravity

b)

Replication

c)

Locality

d)

Big Data

62.

May be created to help simplify deployments for developers

a)

Pilots

b)

Dummy Apps

c)

Templates

d)

Orchestration

63.

A mitigation strategy that is aware of the possible risk and is willing to deal with the loss of data and resources, should it occur.

a)

Avoidance

b)

Acceptance

c)

Reduce

d)

Transfer

64.

Transferring a risk to another organization that specializes in it

a)

Acceptance

b)

Avoidance

c)

Transferance

d)

Reduce

65.

This organization defines standards, specific vocabulary and new cloud service models

a)

SOA

b)

ISS

c)

ISO

d)

CSP

66.

This is needed to access encrypted data

a)

Credentials

b)

VPN

c)

Decryption Key

d)

SSO

67.

A benefit of cloud computing that allows functionality anywhere, anytime and on any device.

a)

Broad Network Access

b)

Portability

c)

Reliability

d)

Availability

68.

Refers to anything as a service

a)

IaaS

b)

SaaS

c)

PaaS

d)

XaaS

69.

Adhering to specific industry regulations, such as HIPAA, is known as...

a)

Regulations

b)

Compliance

c)

Integrity

d)

Protocol

70.

This individual or company verifies that a company is in compliance, security measures and operational procedures are being followed

a)

Cloud Broker

b)

Independent Auditor

c)

Policy Administrator

d)

Compliance Officer

71.

An environment that is a mix of cloud-based and on-premises resources

a)

Public

b)

Hybrid

c)

Private

d)

XaaS