WorksheetsKaplan - BT Mock 4
Total questions: 45
Worksheet time: 35mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
In Balance of Payment, import and export of goods and services is recorded in
a)
Current account
b)
Capital account
c)
Financial account
d)
All of the above
2.
In Balance of Payment, net change in ownership of foreign assets is recorded in
a)
Current account
b)
Capital account
c)
Financial account
d)
All of the above
3.
A trade surplus occurs when a country's
a)
imports exceeds exports
b)
exports exceed imports
c)
cash inflow exceeds cash outflow
d)
cash outflow exceeds cash inflow
4.
High inflation can result in people saving less in order to maintain their purchasing power, which is called
a)
precautionary motive
b)
deflation
c)
transactions motive
d)
none of the above
5.
High inflation can result in people saving more to account for higher expenses in the future, which is referred to as
a)
precautionary motive
b)
deflation
c)
transactions motive
d)
none of the above
6.
High inflation can occur while economic growth slows, which is referred to as
a)
precautionary motive
b)
deflation
c)
hyperinflation
d)
none of the above
7.
Which of the following statement is true
a)
economic growth always brings benefits to all members in society
b)
economic growth can lead to an increase in imports
c)
inflation doesnt affect those on fixed income as much as those in employmnt
d)
inflation encourages investment in a national economy
8.
Which of the following is discussed in fiscal policy
a)
printing of new money
b)
government subsidies to farmers
c)
central bank reserve rates
d)
none of the above
9.
Which of the following is discussed in monetary policy
a)
VAT charged on consumer goods
b)
government subsidies to farmers
c)
import taxes levied
d)
none of the above
10.
When there's a Budget Deficit, the government will need to borrow money, which is referred to as
a)
Foreign currency reserve deficit
b)
Public sector net cash requirement
c)
Budget deficit settlement
d)
None of the above
11.
When an economy experiences a Budget surplus, it results in decline in aggregate demand
a)
True
b)
False
12.
When an economy raises its interest rates, it results in decline in aggregate demand
a)
True
b)
False
13.
When the reserve rate requirements on banks is raised, it increases the money supply in the economy
a)
True
b)
False
14.
The government selling treasury bonds is an example of open market operations
a)
True
b)
False
15.
Which of the below economic theory believes that an economy would naturally move to an equilibrium point?
a)
Classical theory
b)
Keynesian theory
c)
Monetarist view
d)
Natural theory
16.
The economic theory of Keynesian view stipulates that government needs to manipulate ..................... of an economy
a)
Money supply
b)
Supply side
c)
Taxes
d)
Demand side
17.
The economic theory of Monetarist view stipulates that government needs to manipulate .................... of an economy
a)
Money supply
b)
Supply side
c)
Fiscal side
d)
None of the above answers
18.
Unemployment caused due to low aggregate demand is known as
a)
Frictional unemployment
b)
Structural unemployment
c)
Seasonal unemployment
d)
None of the above answers
19.
Temporary unemployment caused during employees switching among jobs is known as
a)
Frictional unemployment
b)
Structural unemployment
c)
Seasonal unemployment
d)
None of the above answers
20.
Unemployment caused due to higher wages being artifically negotiated in unionised labour force is known as
a)
Cyclical unemployment
b)
Structural unemployment
c)
Real wage unemployment
d)
None of the above answers
21.
Inflation caused due to an increase in money supply is known as
a)
Demand pull inflation
b)
Cost push inflation
c)
Imported inflation
d)
Monetary inflation
22.
Inflation caused due to supply not being able to meet demand is known as
a)
Demand pull inflation
b)
Cost push inflation
c)
Imported inflation
d)
Expectations effect
23.
Price increase implemented at present due to speculations on future increase in prices is known as
a)
Monetary inflation
b)
Cost push inflation
c)
Imported inflation
d)
Expectations effect
24.
Which below policy can correct the balance of payment deficit that also belongs to an expenditure reducing policy?
a)
Cutting the public expenditure
b)
Devaluation of currency
c)
Imposition of import tax
d)
Use of import quotas
25.
Which of the below would not influence the social environment?
a)
Social structure
b)
Attitudes
c)
Tastes
d)
Gender
26.
Reducing the number of management levels is known as
a)
Downsizing
b)
Delayering
c)
Deconstruction
d)
None of the above
27.
Reducing the number of employees is known as
a)
Downsizing
b)
Delayering
c)
Deconstruction
d)
None of the above
28.
IT outsourcing services required by an organization on a short term/ temporary basis is known as
a)
Total
b)
Partial
c)
Ad hoc
d)
Project management
29.
Porters five forces is used to analyze
a)
macro environment
b)
company SWOT
c)
industry attractiveness
d)
value creation
30.
Which of the below is not an element in Porters five forces
a)
bargaining power of competitors
b)
bargaining power of suppliers
c)
bargaining power of buyers
d)
threat of new entry
31.
Bargaining power of suppliers can be high when there are
a)
high number of suppliers
b)
more substitutes
c)
less switching cost
d)
the customer is not significant
32.
'Low industry profitability is a barrier to entry'. This statement is
a)
True
b)
False
33.
Porter's generic strategy is used to
a)
determine competitive strategy
b)
evaluate macro environment
c)
evaluate industry growth
d)
none of the above
34.
The competitive strategy to persuade customers to purchase our product which is superior to competitive products is
a)
cost leadership strategy
b)
differentiation strategy
c)
focus
d)
none of the above
35.
Which of the below is not an activity in Porter's value chain
a)
overhead
b)
operations
c)
service
d)
technology development
36.
Which of the below is not a primary activity in Porter's value chain
a)
outbound logistics
b)
operations
c)
service
d)
procurement
37.
Which of the below is not a support activity in Porter's value chain
a)
Marketing and sales
b)
Human resource management
c)
Procurement
d)
None of the above
38.
SWOT is used to analyse
a)
Internal environment
b)
External environment
c)
Micro environment
d)
All of the above
39.
A decision is considered "ethical" if it caters to needs of all stakeholders without serious compromises is known as
a)
Consequentialist approach
b)
Pluralist approach
c)
Relativism
d)
Absolutism
40.
A decision is considered "ethical" not depending on the activity, but the outcome of that decision is
a)
Consequentialist approach
b)
Pluralist approach
c)
Relativism
d)
Absolutism
41.
In consequentalist approach to ethics, a decision is considered ethical if the outcome is favorable to 'self' is
a)
Egoism
b)
Relativism
c)
Utilitarianism
d)
Absolutism
42.
In consequentalist approach to ethics, a decision is considered ethical if the outcome is favorable to majority is
a)
Egoism
b)
Relativism
c)
Utilitarianism
d)
Absolutism
43.
In ethics, a decision is decided whether it's ethical or not depends on the circumstance/ context is
a)
Egoism
b)
Relativism
c)
Utilitarianism
d)
Absolutism
44.
The professional code of ethics that stipulates a judgement to not being biased is
a)
Integrity
b)
Professional behavior
c)
Objectivity
d)
Professional competence and due care
45.
Which of the below is not a fundamental principle in the professional code of ethics of ACCA / IFAC
a)
Integrity
b)
Confidentiality
c)
Objectivity
d)
Security
100 %
