Worksheets010 - Air law (Intermediate check)
Total questions: 41
Worksheet time: 41mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The Annexes established by the International Civil Aviation Organisation contain..
a)
all States, signatory to the Chicago Convention.
b)
aeronautical standards binding in all states.
c)
Standards and Recommended Practices to be adopted by Contracting States.
d)
proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 19 Annexes.
2.
What is the role and objective of EASA?
a)
EASA proposes guidelines to the aviation industry and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
b)
EASA makes only rule propositions to the National Aviation Authorities without the obligation to implement these.
c)
EASA proposes rules to the National Aviation Authorities and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
d)
EASA proposes implementing rules to the European Commission and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
3.
An Implementing Rule (IR) developed by EASA and adopted by the European Commission is considered a:
a)
Acceptable Means of Compliance.
b)
Hard law.
c)
Soft Law.
d)
Certification Specification.
4.
Select the option which corresponds to IATA's mission statement:
a)
IATA's mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. IATA provides assistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of its Member States and stakeholders.
b)
IATA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Asia and worldwide. It is a counterpart of EASA for countries in Asia.
c)
IATA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.
d)
IATA’s mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. IATA seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awareness of the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It fights for the interests of airlines across the globe, challenging unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators and governments to account, and striving for sensible regulation.
5.
What is correct regarding an AMC (Acceptable Means of Compliance)?
a)
It accompanies the Implementing Act and provides additional explanation to assist the application of the Basic Regulation and its Implementing Rules.
b)
It is not binding and other means may be utilised if preferred to demonstrate compliance with the applicable requirements.
c)
It is binding and should be adhered to by all relevant parties to whom it is deemed to apply.
d)
It may only be produced by EASA.
6.
A certificate of airworthiness shall be issued on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft complies with the design aspects of the appropriate airworthiness requirements. Who issues the Certificate of Airworthiness?
a)
The manufacturer.
b)
The operator.
c)
The State of Registry.
d)
ICAO.
7.
ICAO Annex 7 defines the State of Registry as the State..
a)
where the aircraft is based.
b)
on whose register the aircraft is entered.
c)
in which the aircraft operator is registered.
d)
where the lessor is registered.
8.
In the case of a heavier-than-air aircraft, where on the wing structure are the registration marks?
a)
On the right half of the lower surface.
b)
On the left half of the upper surface.
c)
On the left half of the lower surface.
d)
On the right half of the upper surface.
9.
The flying training for an applicant of a CPL(A) integrated course shall comprise..
a)
a total of at least 150 flying hours, of which up to 5 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time.
b)
a total of at least 200 flying hours, of which up to 10 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time.
c)
a total of at least 150 flying hours, instrument ground time not provided.
d)
a total of at least 200 flying hours, instrument ground time not provided.
10.
According to FCL requirements for the issue of the ATPL(A) or (H), of the required 1500 hours of total flight time, the minimum night flight time as PIC or as co-pilot shall be..
a)
150 hours.
b)
125 hours.
c)
100 hours.
d)
75 hours.
11.
According to FCL requirements, the validity of an instrument rating is..
a)
6 months.
b)
5 years.
c)
2 years.
d)
1 year.
12.
According to the relevant FCL requirements, the Single Pilot, Single-Engine Class Rating is valid for
a)
two years up to age 40 years, then one year thereafter.
b)
two years.
c)
five years after licence issue.
d)
one year.
13.
According to Part-FCL, what does the term "rating" mean?
a)
Measurement of the performance of a pilot, indicating the level achieved and documenting the skills that the pilot may exercise in accordance with the licence.
b)
Classification according to a grade, based on a comparative assessment of quality, and entered on a licence.
c)
Statement entered on a licence, setting forth privileges, special conditions or limitations pertaining thereto.
d)
Designated operating privilege, based on specified conditions.
14.
"The objective of the Standardised European Rules of the Air (SERA) is.."
a)
To establish common requirements for the provision of air traffic management and air navigation services (‘ATM/ANS’) and other air traffic management network functions.
b)
To establish the common rules of the air and operational provisions regarding services and procedures in air navigation that shall be applicable to general air traffic within the scope of Regulation (EC) No 551/2004.
c)
To lay down detailed rules for commercial air transport operations with aeroplanes and helicopters, including ramp inspections of aircraft of operators under the safety oversight of another State when landed at aerodromes located in the territory subject to the provisions of the treaty.
d)
To lay down common requirements for the competent authorities, and the qualified entities acting on their behalf, which exercise certification, oversight and enforcement tasks.
15.
An aeroplane and a glider are approaching to land at an aerodrome. Which one of them shall give way to the other
a)
The aeroplane, if it is able to carry out a missed approach procedure.
b)
The aeroplane, regardless of the altitude of the glider.
c)
The glider, if their trajectories are converging and the aeroplane is on its left side.
d)
The glider, if the aeroplane is flying at a lower altitude.
16.
An aircraft operating under VFR, at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, and outside controlled airspace, shall maintain a distance from clouds and a flight visibility of at least..
a)
1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically, and a flight visibility of 5 km.
b)
1000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically, and a flight visibility of 5 km.
c)
1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically, and a flight visibility of 8 km.
d)
600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically, and a flight visibility of 5 km.
17.
What is the minimum flight altitude for an IFR flight over mountainous area
a)
A level that is at least 600 m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the aircraft`s estimated position.
b)
A level that is at least 600 m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 25 NM of the aircraft`s estimated position.
c)
A level that is at least 600 m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 NM of the aircraft`s estimated position.
d)
A level that is at least 300 m (1000) ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the aircraft’s estimated position.
18.
VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than:
a)
2 000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
b)
1 000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
c)
500 ft above the highest obstacle.
d)
the highest obstacle.
19.
An aircraft is overtaking another aircraft of the same type. Which kind of manoeuvre does the pilot have to perform?
a)
Overtake from the left.
b)
Overtake from the right.
c)
Descend below the aircraft.
d)
Aircrafts are not allowed to overtake each other.
20.
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, what are the minimum meteorological conditions for VFR flights taking-off or landing at an aerodrome located within a control zone?
a)
Ceiling 1500 ft and Ground Visibility 5 km.
b)
Ceiling 1000 ft and Ground Visibility 10 km.
c)
Ceiling 1500 ft and Ground Visibility 8 km.
d)
Ceiling 1000 ft and Ground Visibility 1.5 km.
21.
Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
a)
its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation
b)
it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.
c)
it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.
d)
its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
22.
Which of the following options is a condition required for a controlled aerodrome?
a)
The aerodrome shall have separated frequencies for Approach/Departure, Tower and Ground.
b)
An aerodrome at which an air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic.
c)
An aerodrome at which a radar service is provided.
d)
The aerodrome shall have a CTR and a TMA.
23.
A pilot should report "Runway vacated"...
a)
When the aircraft is turning to exit the runway.
b)
As soon as the entire aircraft has passed over the holding point.
c)
As soon as the aircraft is on the taxiway with taxi speed.
d)
As soon as the aircraft nose is beyond the limits of the runway.
24.
What is the class of airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, an air traffic control service is available for all flights, separation is provided between IFR flights, IFR flights receive traffic information for VFR fights, and VFR flights receive traffic information for all other flights?
a)
B
b)
G
c)
A
d)
D
25.
Classification of Airspace – Name the Class of Airspace with the following conditions and services:
1. IFR and VFR: permitted
2. Air traffic control service: none
3. Separation: not provided
4. Information: Flight Information Service if requested
a)
D
b)
A
c)
G
d)
F
26.
According to EASA Flight Crew Licence requirements, the minimum age for an applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence is..
a)
21
b)
16
c)
17
d)
18
27.
According to the relevant FCL requirements, the minimum age for the issue of an ATPL is..
a)
18
b)
19
c)
24
d)
21
28.
In accordance with Part-FCL requirements, one of the privileges of a holder of an ATPL(A) is to.
a)
exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL(A), a PPL(A), a Sailplane Pilot Licence (SPL), and a CPL(A).
b)
act as PIC of aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport.
c)
act as PIC or co-pilot of any category of aircraft engaged in operations other than commercial air transport.
d)
exercise all the privileges of the holder of an ATPL(H).
29.
If it becomes evident that a controlled VFR flight cannot be continued in VMC, according with the provisions of ICAO Annex 2, Rules of the Air, it shall..
a)
continue to operate in IMC and inform the appropriate ATC unit of the action being taken either to leave the airspace concerned or to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
b)
continue to operate in VMC and inform the appropriate ATC unit after landing.
c)
request authorisation to operate as a special VFR flight, if the flight is operated within a control zone.
d)
continue the flight in VMC as far as practicable and land at the nearest airport.
30.
Above 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL, the VMC minima for flights under VFR in all Classes of airspace are..
a)
visibility of 8 km and distance from clouds 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical.
b)
not defined because VFR flights above 3050 m / 10000 ft are not permitted
c)
visibility of 5 km and distance from clouds 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical.
d)
visibility of 8 km and clear of clouds.
31.
A pilot is vectored in trajectory of a CB. The pilot can see in his weather radar display a large active cell. According to SERA, the pilot:
a)
Can request to deviate and follow a different course, ATC will then use the new pilot track to give vectors.
b)
Can request an amended clearance to overfly the CB.
c)
Can fly 5 NM left and descend 1 000 ft.
d)
Can fly 5 NM right and climb 1000 ft.
32.
According to the Standardised European Rules of the Air, what shall be the distance from clouds when an aircraft flies under VFR in the following conditions:
Airspace: Class G
Aircraft altitude: 3500 ft AMSL
Terrain elevation: 2800 ft AMSL
a)
1500 m horizontally and 1000 m vertically.
b)
1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically.
c)
1000 m horizontally and 300 m vertically.
d)
Clear of clouds and with the surface in sight.
33.
Visual Flight Rules – Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, flights under VFR shall not take off from an aerodrome within a Control Zone or enter a Control Zone when the ceiling is lower than?
a)
1000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
b)
1500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
c)
1000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km
d)
2000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
34.
A pilot is approaching a traffic circuit of a controlled airport in VMC. The communication on the frequency used is lost. Choose correct statements and actions taken:
1- If a red flashing light appears, do not land and divert.
2- Try to establish another way of communication.
3- If a green flashing light appears, return for approach.
4- If a flashing white light appears give way to another aircraft and continue circling.
5- If a steady red light appears, the airfield is closed.
a)
2, 3, 4, 5
b)
1, 2, 3
c)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d)
3, 4, 5
35.
What is the correct flight level to be used for a VFR flight given:
Compass heading: 175°.
Deviation: 4°E
Variation: 1°W
a)
FL60
b)
FL65
c)
FL70
d)
FL75
36.
Visual Flight Rules – Flights under VFR shall not take off from an aerodrome outside a Control Zone when the ceiling is lower than?
a)
1500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
b)
1000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
c)
2000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
d)
600 ft or the ground visibility is less than 1500m.
37.
What is the minimum meteorological condition to fly in VFR at a speed under 140kts in airspace class G below 3000ft AGL?
a)
Clear of clouds, with the surface in sight and minimum visibility 1500m
b)
visibility of 8 km and distance from clouds 1500 m horizontal separation from cloud
c)
visibility of 8 km and clear of clouds.
d)
ground visibility more than 5 km.
38.
VFR flights shall not be flown over land or sea outside congested areas or cities at an eight less than:
a)
500ft AGL
b)
1000ft AGL
c)
1500ft AGL
d)
2000ft AGL
39.
What is the minimum visibility to fly in VFR in a control zone?
a)
5000m
b)
2000m
c)
1500m
d)
8000m
40.
Can you enter in a CTR without autorishation?
a)
yes
b)
no
c)
yes, if in VMC
d)
it's only possible if the visibility drop below 5000m
41.
The pilot (in VFR) needs an autorishation to fly in an airspace class G?
a)
yes
b)
no
c)
yes, if in IMC
d)
yes if without flightplan
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