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Security+ Part 2 - Architecture and Design

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a state of data in the enterprise?

a)

At rest

b)

In storage

c)

In processing

d)

In transit/motion

2.

Creating fake network traffic to deceive attackers in segments of the network designed to deceive them is called what?

a)

DNS sinkhole

b)

Honeytraffic

c)

Fake telemetry

d)

Masking

3.

If end-to-end encryption is used, which of the following technologies facilitates security monitoring of encrypted communication channels?

a)

Fake telemetry

b)

Tokenization

c)

Hashing

d)

TLS inspection

4.

Enterprises can employ _________ to block malicious command-and-control traffic from malware.

a)

encryption

b)

honeyfiles

c)

DNS sinkholes

d)

honeynets

5.

Which of the following can provide complete traceability to an original transaction without revealing any personal information if disclosed to an outside party?

a)

Tokenization

b)

Data sovereignty

c)

Rights management

d)

Baseline configuration

6.

A system that is ready for immediate use in the event of an outage is called what?

a)

Standby system

b)

Disaster recovery site

c)

Backup site

d)

Hot site

7.

Data protection includes all of the following topics except which ones? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

Honeypots

b)

Masking

c)

Tokenization

d)

DNS sinkholes

8.

Which of the following is important to consider when specifically examining configuration management?

a)

Data loss prevention

b)

Standard naming conventions

c)

Rights management

d)

Hashing

9.

What is masking?

a)

The use of stand-in data to replace real-time data

b)

The marking of regions where data is not allowed by policy

c)

The use of backups to preserve data during disruptive events

d)

Redaction portions of data using a covering symbol such as * or x

10.

What is the purpose of deception in an enterprise? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

To trick attackers into stealing fake data

b)

To identify misconfigured systems

c)

To permit easy identification of unauthorized actors

d)

To provide a place to test new systems without impacting regular operations

11.

How do hypervisor enable multiple guest operating systems to run concurrently on a host computer?

a)

Via a specialized driver package

b)

By abstracting the hardware from the guest operating system

c)

By providing specific virtual hardware to each guest OS

d)

By hiding the underlying Linux operating system

12.

You have deployed a network of Internet-connected sensors across a wide geographic area. These sensors are small, low-power IoT devices, and you need to perform temperature conversions and collect the data into a database. The calculations would be best managed by which architecture?

a)

Fog computing

b)

Edge computing

c)

Thin client

d)

Decentralized database in the cloud

13.

Your new application has multiple small processes that provide services to the network. You want to make this application run more efficiently by virtualizing it. What is the best approach for virtualization of this application?

a)

Type 2 Hypervisor

b)

Linux KVM

c)

Containerization

d)

Type 1 Hypervisor

14.

Why is VM sprawl an issue?

a)

VM sprawl uses too many resources on parallel functions.

b)

The more virtual machines in use, the harder it is to migrate a VM to a live server.

c)

Virtual machines are so easy to create, you end up with hundreds of small servers only performing a single function.

d)

When servers are no longer physical, it can be difficult to locate a specific machine.

15.

When doing incident response for you company, you review the forensics of several virtual servers and you see the attacker on the web server injecting code into uninitialized memory blocks. What attack is the attacker likely attempting?

a)

Denial-of-service attack on the hypervisor

b)

VM escape

c)

Containerization attack

d)

Crashing the CASB

16.

You are planning to move some applications to the cloud, including your organization's accounting application, which is highly customized and does not scale well. Which cloud deployment model is best for this application?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

None of the above

17.

You need to move to the cloud a specific customer service module that has a web front end. This application is highly scalable and can be provided on demand. Which cloud deployment model is best for this application?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

None of the above

18.

One of the primary resources in your organization is standard database that many applications tie into. Which cloud deployment model is best for this kind of application?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

None of the above

19.

Which cloud deployment model has the fewest security controls?

a)

Private

b)

Public

c)

Hybrid

d)

Community

20.

What is the primary downside of a private cloud model?

a)

Restrictive access rules

b)

Cost

c)

Scalability

d)

Lack of vendor support

21.

To develop secure software that prevents attackers from directly injecting attacks into computer memory and manipulating the application's process, one should employ which method?

a)

Elasticity

b)

Dead Code

c)

Normalization

d)

Software diversity

22.

Problems in which phase will specifically stop continuous deployment but not necessarily continuous delivery?

a)

Continuous integration

b)

Continuous monitoring

c)

Continuous validation

d)

Continuous development

23.

Why is memory management important in software development?

a)

A program can grow and consume other program spaces.

b)

Memory is expensive.

c)

Memory can be a speed issue.

d)

None of the above.

24.

When a program is installed and needs permissions, what is this called?

a)

Staging

b)

Provisioning

c)

Continuous integration

d)

Version control

25.

Which of the following statements concerning elasticity and scalability are true?

a)

Scalability requires elasticity.

b)

Elasticity involves enabling software to use more processors to do more work.

c)

Elasticity means being prepared to take advantage of scalability.

d)

All of the above.

26.

To protect software from reverse engineering by attackers, developers can use which of the following?

a)

Dead code

b)

Obfuscation

c)

Binary diversity

d)

Stored procedures

27.

To manage various releases of software over time, the organization uses which of thee following?

a)

Staging environment

b)

Provisioning and deprovisioning steps

c)

Version control

d)

Continuous integration

28.

Which of the following environments is used to test compatibility against multiple target environments?

a)

Production

b)

Test

c)

Quality assurance

d)

Staging

29.

The fact that there are multiple methods of representing an object in a computer system can lead to issues when logical comparisons are needed. What can be used to ensure accuracy of comparison elements?

a)

Normalization

b)

Stored procedures

c)

Third-party libraries

d)

Third-party software development kits

30.

What is the only sure method of ensuring input is valid before use on a server?

a)

Use of third-party libraries and software development kits

b)

Server-side validation

c)

Stored procedures

d)

Client-side validation

31.

During a visit to a hosting center where your organization keeps some offsite servers, you see a door with an odd-looking panel next to it. You see people approaching the panel and placing their eyes into a hooded viewer. A few seconds after they've done this, the door unlocks. What type of biometric scanner might this be?

a)

Voice recognition scanner

b)

Retinal scanner

c)

Fingerprint scanner

d)

Facial recognition scanner

32.

You've spent the last week tweaking a fingerprint-scanning solution for your organization. Despite your best efforts, roughly 1 in 50 attempts will fail, even if the user is using the correct finger and their fingerprint is in the system. Your supervisor says 1 in 50 is "good enough" and tells you to move on to the next project. Your supervisor just defined which of the following for your fingerprint scanning system?

a)

False rejection rate

b)

False acceptance rate

c)

Critical threshold

d)

Failure acceptance criteria

33.

Which of the following algorithms uses a secret key with a current timestamp to generate a one-time password?

a)

Hash-based Message Authentication Code

b)

Date-Hashed Message Authorization Password

c)

Time-based One-Time Password

d)

Single sign-on

34.

With regard to authentication, an access token falls into which factor category?

a)

Something you are

b)

Something you have

c)

Something you know

d)

Something you see

35.

Which of the following is not a common form of hardware token?

a)

Proximity card

b)

Common access card

c)

USB token

d)

Iris scan

36.

While depositing cash from a charity fundraiser at a local bank, you notice bank employees are holding up cards next to a panel near a door. A light on the panel turns green and the employees are able to open the door. The light on the panel is normally red. What type of electronic door control is this bank using?

a)

Iris scanner

b)

Hardware token

c)

Proximity card

d)

Symmetric key token

37.

Your colleague is telling you a story she heard about a way to trick fingerprint scanner using gummy bears. She heard that if you press a gummy beat against an authorized user's finger, you can then use that gummy bear as their fingerprint to fool a fingerprint scanner. If this works, the result is an example of which of the following?

a)

False negative

b)

False positive

c)

Crossover positive

d)

Crossover negative

38.

To ensure customers entering credentials in your website are valid and not someone with stolen credentials, your team is tasked with designing multifactor authentication. Which of the following would not be a good choice?

a)

Static code

b)

Phone call

c)

Authentication application

d)

Short message service

39.

When you're designing and tweaking biometric systems, the point where both the accept and reject error rates are equal is known as which of the following?

a)

Crossover acceptance rate

b)

Accept-reject overlap rate

c)

Crossover error rate

d)

Overlap acceptance rate

40.

Which of the following is not a term used in multifactor authentication?

a)

Someone you know

b)

Somewhere you are

c)

Something you have

d)

Something you see

41.

Which backup strategy includes only the files and software that have changed since the last full backup?

a)

Incremental

b)

Full

c)

Snapshot

d)

Differential

42.

Which backup strategy focuses on copies of virtual machines?

a)

Incremental

b)

Full

c)

Snapshot

d)

Differential

43.

When discussing location for storage of backups, which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

The most recent copy should be stored offsite, as it is the one that most current and is thus the most valuable.

b)

Offsite storage is generally not necessary, except in cases where the possibility of a break-in at the main facility is high.

c)

Offsite storage is a good idea so that you don't lose your backup to the same event that cause you to lose your operational data and thus need the backup.

d)

The most recent copy can be stored locally, as it is the most likely to be needed, while other copies can be kept at other locations.

44.

To deal with nonpersistence in a system, which of the following items offer risk mitigation? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

Image backups

b)

Cloud

c)

Last known-good configuration

d)

Revert to a known state

45.

To have easily available quick backup of critical user documents, which of the following is recommended for backing these items up?

a)

Differential

b)

Snapshot

c)

Copy

d)

NAS

46.

You have offices in six locations across town and wish to utilize a common backup restore methodology. Which would be the most efficient solution for your small offices?

a)

SAN

b)

NAS

c)

Cloud

d)

Offline

47.

Which of the following statements is true about redundancy?

a)

It prevents failures

b)

It is complicated and expensive to do

c)

It applies only to hardware

d)

It can be done across many systems

48.

What distinguishes high availability systems?

a)

The ability to change with respect to usage conditions

b)

The ability to process, even in times of disruption

c)

Automated backups and recovery functions

d)

The use of diversity to mitigate single threats

49.

The continual changing of information in a system is referred to as what?

a)

Nonpersistence

b)

Snapshots

c)

Differentials

d)

Images

50.

A PDU provides management of what in an enterprise?

a)

Redundant backup processing

b)

Power distribution servers

c)

Improved network connection to data storage

d)

Load balancing

51.

Which of the following statements is not true?

a)

Embedded systems are designed with a single control purpose in mind and typically have no additional functionality

b)

Embedded systems are free of risk and security concerns

c)

Embedded is the name given to a computer that is included as an integral part of a larger system

d)

Embedded systems can be as complex as the dozens of interconnected embedded systems in a modern automobile

52.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the risk of next-generation vehicles?

a)

There are minimal risks when next-generation automobiles share information

b)

Passing traffic and other information between vehicles does not increase security risks

c)

The sharing of navigation and other inputs between vehicles presents a potential security issue

d)

Time-to-market and cost minimization have minimal impact on potential risks being exploited

53.

Which of the following properly defines supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA)?

a)

A scaled-down version of Linux designed for use in an embedded system

b)

The standard used for communicating between intelligent car systems

c)

The risk created by connecting control systems in buildings

d)

A system designed to control

54.

Which of the following statements is true about smart devices and the Internet of Things (IoT)?

a)

The use of a Linux-type kernel as the core engine makes programming more complex

b)

Mass production introduces significant security risks

c)

The scaling of the software development over large number of units makes costs scalable, and functionality is paramount

d)

Security or anything that might impact new expanded functionality is considered early and gets the focus and resources necessary

55.

Which of the following statements is true about HVAC and building automation systems?

a)

They have not been exploited to any significant degree yet

b)

Interconnecting these systems and using Internet-based central control mechanisms increases the risk profile from outside attacks

c)

Having a "smart building" that reduces the use of building resources in accordance with the number and distribution of people inside has not increased efficiency or reduced costs

d)

The rise of hyper-connectivity has introduced no additional security concerns

56.

Which of the following statements is not true about system on a chip?

a)

It provides the full functionality of a computing platform on a single chip

b)

It typically has low power consumption and efficient design

c)

Programming of SoC systems can occur at several different levels, and thus potential risks are easily mitigated

d)

Because SoC represents computing platforms with billions of devices worldwide, it has become significant force in the marketplace

57.

What distinguishes real-time operating systems (RTOSs) from general-purpose operating systems?

a)

Unlike RTOSs, most general-purpose operating systems handle interrupts within defined time constraints

b)

Unlike general-purpose OSs, most RTOSs are capable of multitasking by design

c)

Unlike RTOSs, most general-purpose operating systems are multitasking by design

d)

Unlike general-purpose OSs, RTOSs are designed to handle multiple threads

58.

Which of the following statements is true about printers and multifunction devices?

a)

They rely on the computer to manage the printing and scanning processes

b)

Because of their long history and widespread use, security is designed into these products

c)

These devices communicate in a bidirectional fashion, accepting print jobs and sending back job status, printer status, and so forth

d)

So far, they have not been shown to be hackable or capable of passing malware to the computer

59.

Which of the following is a very important aspect to always remember when dealing with security of medical devices?

a)

They are still relatively new in their usage

b)

They can directly affect human life

c)

Security is not related to safety

d)

They are almost exclusively stand-alone devices, without Internet connectivity

60.

Which of the following poses a significant potential risk of unmanned aerial vehicles?

a)

They have sophisticated autopilot functions

b)

They have cameras, sensors, and payloads

c)

Some models have a low price

d)

Because they are pilotless, their remote-control systems may be networked and therefore vulnerable to potential risks

61.

Why is physical security important to protecting data?

a)

Physical access to data will negate the security advantages of the cloud

b)

Information resides on physical assets, linking physical and information security

c)

Social engineering can negate any information security controls

d)

None of the above

62.

Why is proper interior and exterior lighting important?

a)

It can detect people who are where they don't belong

b)

It shows who is in a restricted space

c)

It allows more people and activities to be observed

d)

It is needed for the use of closed-circuit television cameras

63.

Your organization has experienced multiple incidents of graffiti tagging and people loitering in the parking lot despite the chain-link fence surrounding it. What is the best solution to the issue?

a)

"No Trespassing" signage

b)

More guard stations

c)

Additional external lighting

d)

Changing the chain-link fencing to anti-scale fencing

64.

After a physical security incident, what critical data can security guards commonly provide?

a)

Employee ID information

b)

Access logs of who has entered and exited the building

c)

Alarm codes

d)

Blueprints showing unmonitored areas of the building

65.

Alarms are effective only if which of the following is true?

a)

They alert on abnormal conditions

b)

Every entrance is monitored with a sensor

c)

They are not tied to the information systems

d)

They are tuned to provide accurate and useful alerts

66.

You are implementing a test lab at your organization for early alpha software development. To prevent any of the development code from inadvertently getting put on production computers, what should you implement?

a)

Air gap

b)

Strict firewalls

c)

Protected distribution

d)

Patch management

67.

What is the security benefit of a Faraday cage?

a)

Prevents attack by EMP

b)

Prevents accessing a device using a wireless network or cell connection

c)

Works better than anti-scale fencing

d)

Prevents stack overflows by EMI

68.

What is an example of a human-based screened subnet (DMZ)?

a)

A visitor's lobby that is separated from a company office by a receptionist

b)

Hallways between the company lobby and offices

c)

A server room with a locked door

d)

The networking cabinets in the facility

69.

What is a primary problem with biometrics?

a)

Technically, biometrics are difficult to implement

b)

The human body changes over time

c)

Biometrics are easily faked

d)

Biometrics can't be loaned or delegated

70.

What should you do to protect you IP-based CCTV system from a DDoS attack?

a)

Reconfigure your firewalls

b)

Connect it to an intrusion detection system

c)

Require multifactor authentication to access the CCTV system

d)

Place all CCTV components on a separate network

71.

If you need to perform operations such as addition on encrypted elements, what type of encryption scheme would you use?

a)

Asymmetric

b)

Homomorphic

c)

Stream

d)

Lightweight

72.

Which of the following is not a limitation associated with cryptographic solutions?

a)

Speed

b)

Computational overhead

c)

Longevity

d)

Entropy

73.

What set of algorithms is designed for low-power devices such as the Internet of Things and embedded systems?

a)

Lightweight

b)

Hashing

c)

Stream

d)

Blockchain

74.

How do you make a short secret, such as a password, become long enough for use?

a)

Salting

b)

Key elongation

c)

Key stretching

d)

Ephemeral operations

75.

What is the best way to get the plaintext from a hash value?

a)

Use linear cryptanalysis

b)

Use a reverse has function

c)

You cannot get the plaintext out of a hash value

d)

Use an ephemeral key

76.

What does a salt provide?

a)

It tells the algorithm how many digits of primes to use

b)

It primes the algorithm by giving it initial noncritical data

c)

It adds additional rounds to the cipher

d)

It provides additional entropy

77.

What makes a digitally signed message different from an encrypted message?

a)

The digitally signed message has encryption protections for integrity and nonrepudiation

b)

The digitally signed message uses much stronger encryption and is harder to break

c)

The encrypted message only uses symmetric encryption

d)

There is no difference

78.

Steganography is commonly accomplished using which method?

a)

Encryption

b)

Initialization vectors (IVs)

c)

LSB encoding

d)

Entropy substitution

79.

To prevent the loss of a single message due to accidental decryption from affecting other encrpyted messages, which of the following properties is needed?

a)

Stream encryption

b)

Perfect forward secrecy

c)

Entropy

d)

Obfuscation

80.

Given a large quantity of data in the form of a streaming video file, what is the best type of encryption method to protect the content from unauthorized live viewing?

a)

Symmetric block

b)

Hashing algorithm

c)

Stream cipher

d)

Asymmetric block