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UNNN

Total questions: 159

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements best defines a statement of financial position?

a)

It is a summary of income and expenditure for an accounting period

b)

It is a summary of cash receipts and payments made during an accounting period

c)

It is a summary of assets, liabilities and equity at a specified date

d)

It is a summary of assets and expenses at a specified date

2.

Performing services on account will have the following effects on the components of the basic accounting equation:

a)

Increase assets and decrease owner’s equity.

b)

Increase assets and increase owner’s equity.

c)

Increase assets and increase liabilities.

d)

Increase liabilities and increase owner’s equity.

3.

Which one of the following user groups is likely to require the most detailed financial information?

a)

The management

b)

Investors and potential investors

c)

Government agencies

d)

Employees

4.

Which of the following statements are true?

(1) Accounting can be described as the recording and summarising of transactions.

(2) Financial accounting describes the production of a statement of financial position and statement of profit or loss for internal use.

a)

(1) only

b)

(2) only

c)

Both (1) and (2)

d)

None

5.

What is the main purpose of financial accounting?

a)

To record all transactions in the books of account

b)

To provide management with detailed analyses of costs

c)

To enable preparation of financial statements that provides information about an entity’s financial performance and position

d)

To calculate profit or loss for an accounting period

6.

Which of the following is not a step in the accounting process?

a)

Analyzing

b)

Verification

c)

Recording

d)

Summarizing

7.

Which of the following statements about users of accounting information is

INCORRECT?

a)

Management is an internal user

b)

Taxing authorities are external users.

c)

Present creditors are external users

d)

Regulatory authorities are internal users

8.

Which of the following events is not recorded in the accounting records?

a)

Equipment is purchased on account

b)

An employee is terminated

c)

A cash investment is made into the business

d)

The owner withdraws cash for personal use

9.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

A statement of cash flows summarizes information about the cash inflows (receipts) and outflows (payments) for a specific period of time

b)

A statement of financial position reports the assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity at a specific date.

c)

An income statement presents the revenues, expenses,changes in owner’s equity, and resulting net income or net loss for a specific period of time.

d)

An statement of changes in equity summarizes the changes in owner’s equity for a specific period of time.

10.

The financial statement that reports assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity is the

a)

Income statement

b)

Statement of changes in equity

c)

Statement of financial position

d)

Statement of cash flows.

11.

Which accounting concept should be considered if the owner of a business takes goods from inventory for his own personal use?

a)

The fair presentation concept

b)

The accruals concept

c)

The going concern concept

d)

The business entity concept

12.

Sales revenue should be recognised when goods and services have been supplied; costs are incurred when goods and services have been received.

Which accounting concept governs the above?

a)

The business entity concept

b)

The materiality concept

c)

The accruals concept

d)

The duality concept

13.

Which accounting concept states that omitting or misstating this information could influence users of the financial statements?

a)

The consistency concept

b)

The accruals concept

c)

The materiality concept

d)

The going concern concept

14.

Which of the following accounting concepts means that similar items should receive a similar accounting treatment?

a)

Going concern

b)

Accruals

c)

Matching

d)

Consistency

15.

Which ONE of the following statements describes faithful representation, a qualitative characteristic of faithful representation?

a)

Revenue earned must be matched against the expenditure incurred in earning it.

b)

Revenue earned must be matched against the expenditure incurred in earning it

c)

The presentation and classification of items in the financial statements should stay the same from one period to the next.

d)

Financial information should be complete, neutral and free from error

16.

Which one of the following statements best defines a liability?

a)

A liability is an obligation arising from a past transaction or event.

b)

A liability is a legally binding amount owed to a third party.

c)

A liability is an obligation arising from a past transaction or event which is expected to be settled by an outflow of economic benefits.

d)

A liability is anything which results in an outflow of economic benefits from an entity.

17.

Which one of the following statements best defines an expense?

a)

An expense is any outflow of economic benefits in an accounting period

b)

An expense is an outflow of economic benefits resulting from the purchase of resources in an accounting period.

c)

An expense is an outflow of economic benefits resulting from a claim by a third party.

d)

An expense is an outflow of economic benefits in an accounting period as a result of the using up of resources or a fall in the value of an asset.

18.

Which one of the following statements best defines an asset?

a)

An asset is a resource owned by the entity with a financial value.

b)

An asset is a resource controlled by an entity from which future economic benefits are expected to be generated.

c)

An asset is a resource controlled by an entity as a result of past events.

d)

An asset is a resource controlled by an entity as a result of past events from which future economic benefits are expected to be generated.

19.

Which of the following is an example of a liability?

a)

Inventory

b)

Receivables

c)

Plant and equipment

d)

Loan

20.

Which of the following statements defines the business entity concept?

a)

The business will continue to operate for the foreseeable future.

b)

A business is always a separate legal entity, distinct from those who own or manage that business.

c)

A business is never a separate legal entity from those who own or manage that business.

d)

Financial transactions are recorded and presented from the perspective of the

business, rather than from the perspective of the owners or managers of that business.

21.

Which accounting concept or principle which, in times of rising prices, tends to understate asset values and overstate profit?

a)

The historical cost principle

b)

The going concern

c)

The prudence concept

d)

The materiality concept

22.

As of December 31, 2012, Stone Company has assets of $3,500 and owner’s equity of $2,000.

What are the liabilities for Stone Company as of December 31, 2012?

a)

$1,500.

b)

$1,000

c)

$2,500.

d)

$2,000.

23.

During 2012, H Company’s assets decreased $50,000 and its liabilities decreased $90,000. Its owner’s equity therefore:

a)

Increased $40,000

b)

Decreased $140,000.

c)

Decreased $40,000

d)

Increased $140,000.

24.

On the last day of the period, ABC Company buys a $900 machine on credit. This transaction will affect the:

a)

Income statement only.

b)

Statement of financial position only

c)

Income statement and statement of changes in equity only.

d)

Income statement, statement of changes in equity, and statement of financial position

25.

Summarized operations for ABC Co. for the month of July, 2012 are as follows:

- Revenues earned: for cash $20,000; on account $70,000.

- Expenses incurred: for cash $26,000; on account $40,000.

Indicate for ABC Co the total revenues?

a)

$20,000

b)

$70,000

c)

$90,000

d)

$50,000

26.

Presented below is selected information related to Lance Company at December 31, 2012. Lance reports financial information monthly.

Accounts Payable $ 3,000

Salaries and Wages Expense $16,500

Cash 4,500

Notes Payable 25,000

Advertising Expense 6,000

Rent Expense 10,500

Service Revenue 51,500

Accounts Receivable 13,500

Equipment 29,000

Owner’s Drawings 7,500

Determine the total assets of Lance Company at December 31, 2012?

a)

$47,000

b)

$33,500

c)

$4,500

d)

$29,000

27.

Which of the following items are liabilities of Minh Stores?

(a) Cash.                                    (d) Accounts receivable

(b) Accounts payable.                (e) Supplies.

(c) Owner’s drawings.               (f) Equipment.

(g) Salaries and wages payable. (i) Rent expense.

(h) Service revenue.

a)

a, b, g, h

b)

b, g

c)

d, e

d)

i, h

28.

Which of the following items are assets of Minh Stores?

(a) Cash. (d) Accounts receivable.

(b) Accounts payable. (e) Supplies.

(c) Owner’s drawings. (f) Equipment.

(g) Salaries and wages payable. (i) Rent expense.

(h) Service revenue.

a)

a, b, d

b)

b, g

c)

a, d, e, f

d)

g, h

29.

Indicate the effects INCREASE in the accounting equation from the following transactions:

a. Owner invested cash in the business.

b. Performed services for cash.

c. Purchased equipment by signing a note payable.

a)

(a)

b)

(a), (b)

c)

(b), (c)

d)

(a), (b), (c)

30.

During 2013, H Company’s assets increased $70,000 and its liabilities decreased $40,000. Its owner’s equity therefore:

a)

Increased $30,000

b)

Decreased $110,000

c)

Decreased $30,000

d)

Increased $110,000

31.

Which of the following are books of prime entry?

a)

Sales day book and trial balance

b)

Petty cash book and accounts receivables ledger

c)

Petty cash book and journal

d)

Purchase day book and accounts payable ledger

32.

In which book of prime entry would a business record the part-exchange value received for a vehicle traded in when purchasing a new vehicle?

a)

The sales daybook

b)

The cash payments book

c)

The journal

d)

The non-current asset register

33.

Which one of the following best describes the purpose of a purchase invoice?

a)

It is issued by a supplier as a request for payment

b)

It is sent to supplier as a request for a supply

c)

It is issued by supplier listing details of recent transactions

d)

It is sent to the supplier as notification of payment

34.

In which book of prime entry would discounts received be recorded?

a)

Cash received book

b)

Cash payments book

c)

Sales day book

d)

Purchases day book

35.

A business can make a profit and yet have a reduction in its bank balance. Which ONE of the following might cause this to happen?

a)

The sale of non-current assets at a loss

b)

The charging of depreciation in the statement of profit or loss

c)

The lengthening of the period of credit given to customers

d)

The lengthening of the period of credit taken from suppliers

36.

Which of the following documents should accompany a return of goods to a supplier?

a)

Debit note

b)

Remittance advice

c)

Purchase invoice

d)

Credit note

37.

Which of the following are books of prime entry?

1 Sales day book

2 Cash book

3 Journal

4 Purchase ledger

a)

1 and 2 only

b)

1, 2 and 3 only

c)

1 only

d)

All of them

38.

In which book of prime entry will a business record debit notes in respect of goods which have been sent back to suppliers? (???)

a)

The sales returns day book

b)

The cash book

c)

The purchase returns day book

d)

The purchase day book

39.

Which of the following would be recorded in the sales day book?

a)

Discounts allowed

b)

Sales invoices

c)

Credit notes received

d)

Trade discounts

40.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A debit records an increase in liabilities

b)

A debit records a decrease in assets

c)

A credit records an increase in liabilities

d)

A credit records an decrease in capital

41.

Which one of the following provides evidence that an item of expenditure on petty cash  has been approved or authorised?

a)

Petty cash voucher

b)

Record of the transaction in the petty cash book

c)

Receipt for the expense

d)

Transfer of cash from the bank account into petty cash

42.

Which one of the following provides evidence that an item of expenditure on petty cash  has been approved or authorised?

a)

Petty cash voucher

b)

Record of the transaction in the petty cash book

c)

Receipt for the expense

d)

Transfer of cash from the bank account into petty cash

43.

How is the total of the sales day book recorded in the nominal ledger?

Debit                                                       Credit

a)

Receivables Ledger/    Receivables Control Account

b)

Receivables Control Account/       Receivables Ledger

c)

Sales/      Receivables Control Account

d)

Receivables Control Account/       Sales

44.

Are the following statements about debit entries true or false?

1 A debit entry in the cash book will increase an overdraft in the accounts.

2 A debit entry in the cash book will increase a bank balance in the accounts.

a)

Both true

b)

Both false

c)

1 true and 2 false

d)

1 false and 2 true

45.

Are the following statements about debit entries true or false?

1 A debit entry in the cash book will increase an overdraft in the accounts.

2 A debit entry in the cash book will increase a bank balance in the accounts.

a)

Both true

b)

Both false

c)

1 true and 2 false

d)

1 false and 2 true

46.

A trial balance is made up of a list of debit balances and credit balances.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Every debit balance represents an expense

b)

Assets are represented by debit balances

c)

Liabilities are represented by debit balances

d)

Income is included in the list of debit balances

47.

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE or FALSE?

1 Cash purchases are recorded in the purchases day book.

2 The sales day books is used to keep a list of invoices received from suppliers

a)

Both statements are TRUE

b)

Both statements are FALSE

c)

Statement 1 is TRUE and statement 2 is FALSE

d)

Statement 1 is FALSE and statement 2 is TRUE

48.

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE or FALSE?

1 Cash purchases are recorded in the purchases day book.

2 The sales day books is used to keep a list of invoices received from suppliers

a)

Both statements are TRUE

b)

Both statements are FALSE

c)

Statement 1 is TRUE and statement 2 is FALSE

d)

Statement 1 is FALSE and statement 2 is TRUE

49.

Which pair of the following items would appear on the same side of the trial balance?

a)

Drawings and accruals

b)

Carriage outwards and prepayments

c)

Carriage inwards and rental income

d)

Opening inventory and purchase returns

50.

The double-entry system of bookkeeping normally results in which of the following balances on the ledger accounts?

Debit balances:                                       Credit balances:

a)

Assets and revenues/                    Liabilities, capital and expenses

b)

Revenues, capital and liabilities/   Assets and expenses

c)

Assets and expenses/                     Liabilities, capital and revenues

d)

Assets, expenses and capital/        Liabilities and revenues

51.

Which one of the following statements best describes the purpose of a purchase order?

a)

It is issued to a supplier to request supply of goods from them on terms specified within the order

b)

It is issued to a customer to confirm the supply of goods to them on terms specified in the order

c)

It is issued to a supplier as notification of payment

d)

It confirms the price that will be charged by a supplier for goods supplied

52.

Which one of the following statements best describes the purpose of a goods despatched note (delivery note)?

a)

It is issued by a customer returning faulty goods to their supplier

b)

It is issued by a customer to their supplier and specifies the quantity and type of goods they require to be despatched

c)

It is issued by a supplier to their customer and specifies the quantity and type of goods delivered to that customer

d)

It is issued by a supplier to their customer and specifies what goods will be provided to them at a specified future date

53.

An invoice is best defined by which one of the following statements?

a)

An invoice is raised by a business and confirms only the amount due to be paid for goods and services provided

b)

An invoice is raised by business and issued to a supplier as recognition of goods and services received from that supplier

c)

An invoice is raised by a business and issued to a customer to confirm amounts not yet paid

d)

An invoice is raised by a business and issued to a customer to request payment for goods and services provided

54.

Which one of the following explains the imprest system of operating petty cash?

a)

Weekly expenditure cannot exceed a set amount

b)

The exact amount of expenditure is reimbursed at intervals to maintain a fixed float

c)

All expenditure out of the petty cash must be properly authorised

d)

Regular equal amounts of cash are transferred into petty cash at intervals

55.

Jones Co has the following transactions:

1 Payment of $400 to J Bloggs for a cash purchase

2 Payment of $250 to J Doe in respect of an invoice for goods purchased last month

What are the correct ledger entries to record these transactions?

a)

Dr Cash $650/            Cr Purchases $650

b)

Dr Purchases $650/    Cr Cash $650

c)

Dr Purchases $400/      Dr Trade Payables $250/        Cr Cash $650

d)

Dr Cash $650/              Cr Trade Payables $250/        Cr Purchases $400

56.

Smith Co has the following transactions:

1 Purchase of goods on credit from T Rader: $450

2 Return of goods purchased on credit last month to T Rader: $700

What are the correct ledger entries to record these transactions?

a)

Dr Purchases $450 Dr Purchase Returns $700 Cr Cash $450 Cr Trade Payables $700

b)

Dr Purchases $450 Dr Trade Payables $700 Cr Purchase Returns $1,150

c)

Dr Purchases $450 Dr Trade Payables $250 Cr Purchase Returns $700

d)

Dr Purchase Returns $700 Dr Purchases $450 Cr Trade Payables $1,150

57.

Mew Ling has the following transactions:

1 Receipt of cash from R Singh in respect of an invoice for goods sold three weeks ago

2 Receipt of cash from S Kalu for cash sales

What are the correct ledger entries to record these transactions?

a)

Dr Cash Cr Sales

b)

Dr Cash Cr Sales Cr Trade Receivables

c)

Dr Sales Cr Cash

d)

Dr Trade Receivables Dr Sales Cr Cash

58.

A business sells $100 worth of goods to a customer, the customer pays $50 in cash immediately and will pay the remaining $50 in 30 days' time.

What is the double entry to record the purchase in the customer’s accounting records?

a)

Debit cash $50, credit payables $50, credit purchases $50

b)

Debit payables $50, debit cash $50, credit purchases $100

c)

Debit purchases $100, credit payables $50, credit cash $50

d)

Debit purchases $100, credit cash $100

59.

Tin Co purchases $250 worth of metal from Steel Co. Tin Co agrees to pay Steel Co in 60 days time.

What is the double entry to record the purchase in Steel Co’s books?

a)

Debit sales $250, credit receivables $250

b)

Debit purchases $250, credit payables $250

c)

Debit receivables $250, credit sales $250

d)

Debit payables $250, credit purchases $250

60.

Oscar runs a sole trader business selling computers. On 12 January 20X7, he employed his daughter as an administrator for the business and took a computer from the store room for her to use in the office.

What is the double entry for this transaction?

a)

Dr Drawings Cr Cost of sales

b)

Dr Non-current assets Cr Cost of sales

c)

Dr Cost of sales Cr Drawings

d)

Dr Cost of sales Cr Non-current assets

61.

Andrea started a taxi business by transferring her car, at a value of $5,000, into the business.

What accounting entries are required to record this transaction?

a)

Dr Capital $5,000, Cr Car $5,000

b)

Dr Car $5,000, Cr Drawings $5,000

c)

Dr Car $5,000, Cr Capital $5,000

d)

Dr Drawing $5,000 Cr Car $5,000

62.

Which one of the following statements is true in relation to the non-current asset register?

a)

It is an alternative name for the non-current asset ledger account

b)

It is a list of the physical non-current assets rather than their financial cost

c)

It is a schedule of planned maintenance of non-current assets for use by the plant engineer

d)

It is a schedule of the cost and other information about each individual non-current asset

63.

How should the balance on the payables ledger control account be reported in the final financial statements?

a)

As an expense account

b)

As a non-current liability

c)

As a current asset

d)

As a current liability

64.

Before posting a payment of $5,000, the Accounts Payable of Senator Company had a normal balance of $16,000. The balance after posting this transaction was:

a)

$21,000

b)

$11,000

c)

$5,000

d)

Cannot be determined

65.

The trial balance of Clooney Company had accounts with the following normal balances:

Cash $5,000, Service Revenue $85,000, Salaries and Wages Payable $4,000, Salaries and Wages

Expense $40,000, Rent Expense $10,000, Owner’s Capital $42,000; Owner’s Drawings $15,000;

Equipment $61,000. In preparing a trial balance, the total in the debit column is:

a)

$131,000

b)

$216,000

c)

$91,000

d)

$116,000

66.

The purchase of supplies on account should result in:

a)

a debit to Supplies Expense and a credit to Cash.

b)

a debit to Supplies Expense and a credit to Accounts Payable

c)

a debit to Supplies and a credit to Accounts Payable

d)

a debit to Supplies and a credit to Accounts Receivable

67.

Which one of the following items should be accounted for as capital expenditure?

a)

The cost of painting a building

b)

The replacement of broken windows in a building

c)

The purchase of a car by a car dealer for re-sale

d)

Legal fees incurred on the purchase of a building

68.

What is the correct accounting treatment for an intangible asset with an indefinite useful life?

a)

It is recognised at cost for as long as the entity has the intangible asset

b)

It is recognised at cost and is subject to an annual impairment review

c)

It is recognised at cost and the entity must make an estimate of estimated useful life so that it can be amortised

d)

It cannot be recognised as an intangible asset as it would not be possible to calculate an annual amortisation charge

69.

Debits:

a)

Increase both assets and liabilities

b)

Decrease both assets and liabilities

c)

Increase assets and decrease liabilities

d)

Decrease assets and increase liabilities

70.

A revenue account:

a)

is increased by debits

b)

is decreased by credits

c)

has a normal balance of a debit

d)

is increased by credits

71.

Depreciation is a process of

a)

valuation.

b)

cost allocation

c)

cash accumulation

d)

appraisal

72.

What is the purpose of charging depreciation in financial statements?

a)

To allocate the cost of a non-current asset over the accounting periods expected to benefit from its use

b)

To ensure that funds are available for the eventual replacement of the asset

c)

To reduce the cost of the asset in the statement of financial position to its estimated market value

d)

To account for the 'wearing-out' of the asset over its life

73.

Additions to plant assets are:

a)

revenue expenditures

b)

debited to the Maintenance and Repairs Expense account.

c)

debited to the Purchases account

d)

capital expenditures

74.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

If an intangible asset has a finite life, it should be amonized

b)

The amortization period of an intangible asset can exceed 20 years.

c)

Goodwill is recorded only when a business is purchased.

d)

Research and development costs are expensed when incurred, except when the research and development expenditures result in a successful patent.

75.

Which one of the following statements correctly defines non-current assets?

a)

Assets that are held for use in the production of goods or services and are expected to be used during more than one accounting period

b)

Assets which are intended to be used by the business on a continuing basis, including both tangible and intangible assets that do not meet the IASB definition of a current asset

c)

Non-monetary assets without physical substance that are controlled by the entity and from which future benefits are expected to flow

d)

Assets in the form of materials or supplies to be consumed in the production process

76.

What are the correct ledger entries to record an acquisition of a non-current asset on credit?

a)

Debit Non-current asset - Cost/ Credit Receivables

b)

Debit Payables/ Credit Non-current asset - Cost

c)

Debit Non-current asset - Cost/ Credit Payables

d)

Debit Non-current asset - Cost/ Credit Revaluation Surplus

77.

Which of the following best explains what is meant by 'capital expenditure?

a)

Expenditure on non-current assets, including repairs and maintenance

b)

Expenditure on expensive assets

c)

Expenditure relating to the issue of share capital

d)

Expenditure relating to the acquisition or improvement of non-current assets

78.

Expenditure relating to the acquisition or improvement of non-current assets

a)

A replacement for a broken window

b)

Repainting the restaurant

c)

An illuminated sign advertising the business name

d)

Cleaning of the kitchen floors

79.

Which one of the following costs would be classified as revenue expenditure on the invoice for a new company car?

a)

Road lax

b)

Number plates

c)

Fitted stereo radio

d)

Delivery costs

80.

Which one of the following assets may be classified as a non-current asset in the financial statements of a business?

a)

A tax refund due next year

b)

A motor vehicle held for resale

c)

A computer used in the office

d)

Cleaning products used to clean the office floors

81.

Which one of the following assets may be classified as a receivable in the financial statements of a business?

 

a)

A tax refund due next year

b)

A motor vehicle held for resale

c)

A computer used in the office

d)

Cleaning products used to clean the office noors

82.

Which one of the following assets may be classified as inventory in the financial statements of a business?

a)

A tax refund due next year

b)

A motor vehicle

c)

A computer used in the office

d)

Cleaning products used to clean the office floors

83.

Which of the following items should be included in current assets?

(i) Assets which are not intended to be converted into cash

(ii) Assets which will be converted into cash in the long term

(iii) Assets which will be converted into cash in the near future

a)

(i) only

b)

(ii) only

c)

(iii) only

d)

(ii) and (iii)

84.

Which of the following statements describes current assets?

a)

Assets which are currently located on the business premises

b)

Assets which are used to conduct the organisation's current business

c)

Assets which are expected to be converted into cash in the short-term

d)

Assets which are not expected to be converted into cash in the short-term

85.

According to IAS 38 Intangible assets, which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Research expenditure should not be capitalised.

(2) Intangible assets are never amortised.

(3) Development expenditure must be capitalised if certain conditions are met.

a)

1 and 3 only

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

All three statements are correct

86.

What is the purpose of amortisation?

a)

To allocate the cost of an intangible non-current asset over its useful life

b)

To ensure that funds are available for the eventual purchase of a replacement non-current asset

c)

To reduce the cost of an intangible non-current asset in the statement of financial position to its estimated market value

d)

To account for the risk associated with intangible assets

87.

Which of the following statements about the treatment of inventory and work in progress in financial statements are correct?

(1) Inventory should be valued at the lower of cost, net realisable value and replacement cost.

(2) In valuing work in progress, materials costs, labour costs and variable and fixed production overheads must be included.

(3) Inventory items can be valued using either fust in, first out (FIFO) or weighted average cost.

(4) An entity's financial statements must disclose the accounting policies used in measuring inventories

a)

All four statements are correct

b)

(1), (2) and (3) only are correct

c)

(2), (3) and (4) only are correct

d)

(1) and (4) only are correct

88.

What journal entry is required to record goods taken from inventory by the owner of a business for personal use?

a)

Dr Drawings     Cr Purchases

b)

Dr Sales  / Cr Drawings

c)

Dr Drawings      Cr Inventory

d)

Dr Inventory     Cr Drawings

89.

If an entity uses the periodic weighted average cost method to value closing inventory, which of the following statements is true?

a)

Unit average cost is recalculated each time there is a purchase of inventory

b)

Unit average cost is recalculated each time there is a sale of goods

c)

Unit average cost is calculated once only at the end of an accounting period

d)

Unit average cost is recalculated each time there is a purchase or a sale

90.

Which one of the following items should be accounted for as capital expenditure?

a)

The cost of painting a building

b)

The replacement of broken windows in a building

c)

The purchase of a car by a car dealer for re-sale

d)

Legal fees incurred on the purchase of a building

91.

Which of the following statements best describes depreciation?

a)

It is a means of spreading the payment for non-current assets over a period of years

b)

It is a decline in the market value of the assets.

c)

It is a means of spreading the net cost of non-current assets over their estimated useful life

d)

It is a means of estimating the amount of money needed to replace the assets.

92.

Câu 22: The reducing balance method of depreciating non-current assets is more appropriate than the straight-line method when:

a)

there is no expected residual value for the asset

b)

the expected life of the asset is not capable of being estimated

c)

the asset is expected to be replaced in a short period of time

d)

the asset decreases in value less in later years than in the early years of use

93.

Inventories are assets:

(1) Held for sale in the ordinary course of business;

(2) In the process of production for such sale

(3) In the form of materials or supplies to be consumed in the production process or in the rendering of services.

a)

(1)

b)

(2), (3)

c)

(1), (3)

d)

(1), (2), (3)

94.

Which one of the following statements best defines an intangible asset?

a)

An intangible asset is an asset with no physical substance

b)

An intangible asset is always generated internally by a business

c)

An intangible asset is an asset which cannot be sold

d)

An intangible asset is a purchased asset which has no physical substance

95.

Erin Danielle Company purchased equipment and incurred the following costs.

Cash price                         $24,000

Sales taxes                             1,200

Insurance during transit         200

Installation and testing           400

Total costs                         $25,800

What amount should be recorded as the cost of the equipment?

a)

$24,000

b)

$25,200.

c)

$25,400

d)

$25,800.

96.

ABC Company purchased equipment on January 1, 2012, at a total invoice cost of $400,000. The equipment has an estimated residual value of $10,000 and an estimated useful life of 5 years. The amount of accumulated depreciation at December 31, 2013, if the straight-line method of depreciation is used, is:

a)

$80,000

b)

$160,000.

c)

$78,000

d)

$156,000.

97.

ABC company purchased a truck for $11,000 on January 1, 2012. The truck will have an estimated residual value of $1,000 at the end of 5 years. Using the production units method, the balance in accumulated depreciation at December 31, 2013, can be computed by the following formula:

a)

($11,000: Total estimated production) x Units of production for 2013.

b)

($10,000: Total estimated production) x Units of production for 2013

c)

($11,000: Total estimated production) x Units of production for 2012 and 2013.

d)

($10,000: Total estimated production) x Units of production for 2012 and 2013

98.

Company purchased a piece of equipment on January 1, 2012. The equipment cost $60,000 and has an estimated life of 8 years and a salvage value of $8,000. What was the depreciation expense for the asset for 2013 under the reducing balance method with the depreciation rate of 50%?

a)

$6,500

b)

$11,250.

c)

$15,000

d)

$6,562

99.

Bennie Razor Company has decided to sell one of its old manufacturing machines on June 30, 2012. The machine was purchased for $80,000 on January 1, 2008, and was depreciated on a straight-line basis for 10 years assuming no residual value. If the machine was sold for $26,000, what was the amount of the gain or loss recorded at the time of the sale?

a)

$18,000

b)

$54,000

c)

$22.000

d)

$46.000

100.

Maggie Sharrer Company expects to extract 20 million tons of coal from a mine that cost $12 million. If no residual value is expected and 2 million tons are mined and sold in the first year, the entry to record depletion will include a:

a)

debit to Accumulated Depletion of $2,000,000

b)

credit to Depletion Expense of $1,200,000

c)

debit to Depletion Expense of $1,200,000

d)

credit to Accumulated Depletion of $2,000,000

101.

Martha Beyerlein Company incurred $150,000 of research and development costs in its laboratory to develop a patent granted on January 2, 2012. On July 31, 2012, Beyerlein paid $35,000 for legal fees in a successful defense of the patent. The total amount debited to Patents through July 31, 2012, should be:

a)

$150,000

b)

$35,000

c)

$185,000

d)

$170,000

102.

Schopenhauer Company exchanged an old machine, with a book value of $39,000 and a fair value of $35,000, and paid $10,000 cash for a similar new machine. The transaction has commercial substance. At what amount should the machine acquired in the exchange be recorded on Schopenhauer's books?

a)

$45,000

b)

$46,000

c)

$49,000

d)

$50,000

103.

The closing inventory at cost of a company at 31 January 20X3 amounted to $284,700. The following items were included at cost in the total:

(1) 400 coats, which had cost $80 each and normally sold for $150 each. Owing to a defect in manufacture, they were all sold after the reporting date at 50% of their normal price. Selling expenses amounted to 5% of the proceeds.

(2) 800 skirts, which had cost $20 each. These too were found to be defective. Remedial work in February 20X3 cost $5 per skirt, and selling expenses for the batch totalled $800. They were sold for $28 each.

What should the inventory value be according to IAS 2 Inventories after considering the above kems?

a)

$281,200

b)

$282,800

c)

$329,200

d)

None of these

104.

You are preparing the financial statements for a business. The cost of the items in closing inventory is $41,875. This includes some items which cost $1,960 and which were damaged in transit. You have estimated that it will cost $360 to repair the items, and they can then be sold for $1,200.

What is the correct inventory valuation for inclusion in the financial statements?

a)

$39,915

b)

$40,755

c)

$41,515

d)

$42,995

105.

February 1                  50 units in stock at a cost of $40 per unit

                 7                  100 units purchased at a cost of $45 per unit

               14                  80 units sold

               21                  50 units purchased at a cost of $50 per unit

               28                  60 units sold

What is the value of inventory at 28 February using the FIFO method?

a)

$2,450

b)

$2,700

c)

$2,950

d)

$3,000

106.

In preparing its financial statements for the current year, a company's closing inventory was understated by $300,000.

What will be the effect of this error if it remains uncorrected?

a)

The current year's profit will be overstated and next year's profit will be understated

b)

The current year's profit will be understated but there will be no effect on next year's profit

c)

The current year's profit will be understated and next year's profit will be overstated

d)

The current year's profit will be overstated but there will be no effect on next year's profit.

107.

Which of the following statements about the valuation of inventory are correct, according to IAS 2

Inventories?

(1) Inventory items are normally to be valued at the higher of cost and net realisable value

(2) The cost of goods manufactured by an entity will include materials and labour only. Overhead costs cannot be included.

(3) LIFO (last in, first out) cannot be used to value inventory.

(4) Selling price less estimated profit margin may be used to arrive at cost if this gives a reasonable approximation to actual cost.

a)

1, 3 and 4 only

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

3 and 4 only

d)

None of the statements are correct

108.

The inventory value for the financial statements of Global Co for the year ended 30 June 20X3 was based on a inventory count on 7 July 20X3, which gave a total inventory value of $950,000.

Between 30 June and 7 July 20X6, the following transactions took place.

Purchase of goods                                          11,750

Sale of goods (mark up on cost at 15%)     14,950

Goods returned by Global Co to supplier     1,500

What figure should be included in the financial statements for inventories at 30 June 20X3?

a)

$952,750

b)

$949,750

c)

$926,750

d)

$958,950

109.

he financial year of Mitex Co ended on 31 December 20XI. An inventory count on January 4 20X2 gave a total inventory value of $527,300.

The following transactions occurred between January I and January 4

 

Purchases of goods                                                          7,900

Sales of goods (gross profit margin 40% on sales)    15,000

Goods returned to a supplier                                             800

What inventory value should be included in Mitex Co's financial statements at 31 December 20X1?

a)

$525,400

b)

$527,600

c)

$529,200

d)

$535,200

110.

The information below relates to inventory item Z.

March 1                  50 units held in opening inventory at a cost of $40 per unit

           17                 50 units purchased at a cost of $50 per unit

           31                 60 units sold at a selling price of $100 per unit

Under AVCO, what is the value of inventory held for item Z at the end of March 31?

(Câu này đáp trùng test nhân phẩm^_^)

a)

$4,000

b)

$1,800

c)

$2,000

d)

$2,000

111.

A ledger:

a)

contains only asset and liability accounts

b)

should show accounts in alphabetical order

c)

is a collection of the entire group of accounts maintained by a company

d)

is a book of original entry

112.

Posting:

a)

normally occurs before journalizing

b)

transfers ledger transaction data to the journal

c)

is an optional step in the recording process

d)

transfers journal entries to ledger accounts

113.

Which of the following statements about a journal is false?

a)

It is not a book of original entry

b)

It provides a chronological record of transactions

c)

It helps to locate errors because the debit and credit amounts for each entry can be readily compared

d)

It discloses in one place the complete effect of a transaction

114.

We can say that the business is in profit, when:

a)

Assets exceed Expenditure

b)

Income exceeds Liabilities

c)

Income exceeds Expenditure

d)

Income exceeds Liabilities

115.

When a Liability is reduced or decreased, it is recorded on the:

a)

Left or credit side of the account

b)

Right or debit side of the account

c)

Right or credit side of the account

d)

Left or debit side of the account

116.

Which of the following is NOT an example of intangible assets?

a)

Franchise rights

b)

Goodwill

c)

Patents

d)

Land

117.

Which of the following is an example of business liability?

a)

Building

b)

Cash

c)

Creditors

d)

Land

118.

What is depreciation?

a)

Cost of a fixed asset

b)

Cost of a fixed asset's repair

c)

The residual value of a fixed asset

d)

Portion of a fixed asset's cost consumed during the current accounting period

119.

Under which depreciation method the amount of depreciation expenses remains same throughout the useful life of a fixed asset?

a)

Straight line method

b)

Reducing balance method

c)

Number of units produced method

d)

Machine hours method

120.

What is the accumulated deprecation?

a)

Sum of all depreciation expenses of a fixed asset

b)

Depreciation expenses

c)

Cost of depletion of assets

d)

Future value of fixed asset

121.

Which of the following is a double entry for depreciation expenses?

a)

Accumulated depreciation debit and depreciation expenses Credit

b)

Depreciation expenses Debit and accumulated depreciation Credit

c)

Cash Debit and depreciation expenses Credit

d)

Depreciation expenses Debit and cash Credit

122.

Cost of a fixed asset - Accumulated depreciation expenses of the fixed asset=?

a)

Book value of a fixed asset

b)

Market value of a fixed asset

c)

Historical cost of a fixed asset

d)

Recoverable amount of a fixed asset

123.

The purchase price of a software that will be used for more than 12 months should be regarded as:

a)

a revenue expenditure

b)

a capital expenditure

c)

a long term expense

d)

an accounting period expense

124.

XYZ firm has imported a machine from abroad. Which of the following is NOT the element of machine's cost?

a)

Purchase price of machine

b)

Import duty

c)

Demurrage charges

d)

Refundable tax

125.

Which of the following fixed assets is not depreciated in the ordinary circumstances?

a)

Plant and machinery

b)

Building

c)

Land

d)

Equipments

126.

Under which method of depreciation the amount of depreciation expenses remains constant throughout the useful life of a fixed asset?

a)

Reducing balance method

b)

Unit of activity method

c)

Straight line method

d)

None of these

127.

Which of the following is a biological asset?

a)

Environment

b)

Building

c)

Land

d)

Living plants and animals

128.

W Co bought a new printing machine from abroad. The cost of the machine was $80,000. The installation costs were $5,000 and the employees received training on how to use the machine, at a cost of $2,000. Before using the machine to print customers' orders, preproduction safety testing was undertaken at a cost of $1,000.

What should be the cost of the machine in W Co's statement of financial position?

a)

$85,000

b)

$86,000

c)

$82,000

d)

$81,000

129.

At the end of its financial year, Tanner Co had the following non-current assets:

Land and buildings at cost $10 4 million

Land and buildings: accumulated depreciation SO 12 million

Tanner Co decided to revalue its land and buildings at the year-end to $15 million.

(chưa có đáp)

a)

$4.70 million

b)

$4.71 million

c)

$4.72 million

d)

$4.73 million

130.

A company purchased a vehicle for $6000. I will be used for 5 years and its residual value is expected to be $1000. What is the annual amount of deprecation using straight line method of depreciation?

a)

$1,000

b)

$52,000

c)

$3,000

d)

$3,300

131.

A fixed asset was bought for $5000. Its accumulated depreciation is $3000 and rate of depreciation is 20% Calculate its depreciation expenses for the current accounting period using reducing balance method?

a)

$600

b)

$2,000

c)

$300

d)

$400

132.

A company purchased a new machine for $500,000 and machine's test run was started to make sure that machine works properly. There was expense of $5000 incurred on test run, however the sale proceeds of test production were $2000. You are required to find out the total cost of machine?

a)

$500,000

b)

$505,000

c)

$503,000

d)

$495,000

133.

A car was purchased for $5500. Its residual value was estimated to be $500 while its monthly depreciation expenses are $100 using straight line method. Which of the following is the annual rate of depreciation?

a)

20%

b)

24%

c)

21%

d)

25%

134.

A fixed asset having book value of $2000 was sold for $1500. Which of the following is the gain or loss on the sale of fixed asset?

a)

$500 gain

b)

$1500 loss

c)

$500 loss

d)

$1000 gain

135.

Book value of a fixed asset equals to market value or sale proceeds of a fixed asset if:

a)

Gain on sale=0

b)

Loss on sale=0

c)

Gain or loss on sale=0

d)

Gain loss on sale

136.

At the end of XYZ firm's accounting period, the closing stock was found to be $10,000. However, it was realized that a fixed asset of cost $1000 was included in the stock count. Which of the following is the correct amount of ending inventory or stock?

a)

$10,000

b)

$11,000

c)

$9,000

d)

$8,000

137.

NRV or net realizable value of inventory is the expected selling price or market value less:

a)

Carry value of the inventory

b)

Expenses necessary to complete sale

c)

Cost of the stock

d)

Replacement cost

138.

Cost of an item in the closing inventory is $100 whereas the net realizable value is $85. At which one of following amounts the item should be shown in the financial statement?

a)

$100

b)

$115

c)

$85

d)

$185

139.

An item of inventory was purchased for $100 It can be sold for $125 and company can replace the item with the new one at the cost of $105. Which of the following is the historical cost of that item?

a)

$105

b)

$115

c)

$100

d)

$185

140.

Financial statements are prepared mainly for:

a)

Internal users of financial information

b)

External users of financial informaiton

c)

Creditors of the business

d)

Managers of the business

141.

Identify the external user of financial information or financial statements

a)

Management of the business

b)

CFO of the business

c)

Employees of the business

d)

Investors of the business

142.

A statement or report that records the fluctuation in business's capital is referred as

a)

Balance sheet

b)

Income statement

c)

Cash flow statement

d)

Statement of changes in equity

143.

Financial statements mainly help in

a)

Assumption of economic events

b)

Anticipation of economic events

c)

Recording of economic events

d)

Communication of economic events

144.

Which of the following financial statements shows the financial position of a business at a specific date?

a)

Balance sheet

b)

Income statement

c)

Cash flow statement

d)

Statement of changes in equity

145.

Which of the following financial reports shows the profitable of a business?

a)

Balance sheet

b)

Income statement

c)

Cash flow statement

d)

Statement of changes in equity

146.

Which of the following financial statements shows the movement of cash and cash equivalents in during an accounting period?

a)

Balance sheet

b)

Income statement

c)

Cash flow statement

d)

Statement of changes in equity

147.

Which of the following does not appear in Balance sheet?

a)

Building

b)

Cash

c)

Rent expense

d)

Goodwill

148.

The expenses related to the main operations of business are referred as:

a)

Administration expense

b)

Non-administration expense

c)

Selling expenses

d)

Operating expenses

149.

Assets minus liabilities equal to

a)

Goodwill

b)

Working capital

c)

Net income

d)

Capital

150.

Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Only tangible assets (ie, those with physical substance) are recognised in the financial statements.

(2) Faithful representation means that the commercial effect of a transaction must always be shown in the financial statements even if this differs from legal form.

(3) Businesses only report transactions, events and balances that are material to users of the financial statements.

a)

All of them

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

2 only

d)

2 and 3 only

151.

Which one of the following statements best explains the sales account?

a)

It is credited with the total of sales made, including sales tax

b)

It is credited with the total of sales made, excluding sales tax

c)

It is credited with the total purchases made, including sales tax

d)

It is credited with the total expenses, excluding sales tax

152.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

Carriage inwards and carriage outwards are both accounted for as an expense in the statement of profit or loss.

b)

Carriage inwards and carriage outwards are both accounted for as income in the statement of profit or loss.

c)

Carriage inwards is treated as an expense and carriage outwards is treated as income in the statement of profit or loss.

d)

Carriage inwards is treated as income and carriage outwards is treated as an expense in the statement of profit or loss.

153.

Which of the following might appear as an item in a company's statement of changes equity?

1 Profit on disposal of properties

2 Surplus on revaluation of properties

3 Equity dividends proposed after the reporting date

4 Issue of share capital

a)

1, 3 and 4 only

b)

2 and 4 only

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

3 and 4 only

154.

Which of the following are required as disclosures by IAS 2 Inventories?

1 The amount of write-downs of inventories in the period that have been recognised as an expense

2 The original cost of inventories that are carried at net realisable value

3 The carrying amount of inventories classified by type (for example, raw materials, work in progress)

a)

1 and 2 only

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

1, 2 and 3

155.

Where, in a set of financial statements complied in accordance with international accounting standards, would you expect to find dividends paid?

(1) Statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income

(2) Statement of financial position

(3) Statement of cash flows.

(4) Statement of changes in equity.

a)

(1) and (3)

b)

 (2) and (3)

c)

(1) and (4)

d)

 (3) and (4)

156.

Which of the following would be a suitable accounting policy note for disclosure in the financial statements relating to inventory?

a)

Inventory is valued at the lower of total cost and total net realisable value.

b)

Inventory is valued at the lower of cost and net realisable value for each separate product or item.

c)

Inventory is valued at the higher of cost and net realisable value for each separate product or item

d)

Inventory is valued at cost for each separate product or item.

157.

In relation to non-current assets, which of the following items should be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements?

(1) Reconciliation of carrying amounts of non-current assets at the beginning and end of

(2) Useful lives of assets or depreciation rates used period

(3) Increases in asset values as a result of revaluations in the period.

(4) Depreciation expense for the period.

a)

(1) and (2) only

b)

(1) and (3) only

c)

(2), (3) and (4) only

d)

(1), (2), (3) and (4)

158.

How are intangible assets disclosed in the statement of financial position?

a)

Cost only without any recognition of amortisation or impairment

b)

Cost or valuation-amortisation - impairment Carrying amount

c)

The amortisation amount only

d)

At the disposal proceeds value

159.

Which one of the following statements is true in relation to disclosure requirements?

a)

Disclosure requirements consist only of monetary disclosures

b)

Disclosure requirements consist only of narrative disclosures

c)

Disclosure requirements consist of both monetary and narrative disclosures

d)

Disclosure notes do not form part of the annual financial statements