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CSCT prep

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What do you expect to see on an ECG with hypothermia?

a)

Osborn waves (lateral Precordial leads)

b)

Tachycardia

c)

LVH

d)

Prolonged PR, QT and QRS intervals

e)

Bradycardia

2.

When trying to increase sensitivity for Brugada syndrome, what should you do?

a)

Remove V1 ad V2 from chest

b)

Reverse V1 and V2

c)

Move V1 and V2 lower on the chest

d)

Move V1 and V2 to 2nd intercostal spaces

3.

What is the Proper Gain?

a)

20 mm/mV

b)

15 mm/mV

c)

10 mm/mV

d)

5 mm/mV

4.

ECG findings with COPD

a)

RAD

b)

LVH

c)

RBBB

d)

RVH

e)

MAT

5.

Some Signs of PE on ECG

a)

S1Q3T3

b)

Tachycardia

c)

RAE

d)

LAE

e)

Right ventricular Strain pattern

6.

Sinus Arrest is a problem with the ______________________________ where sinus block is a problem with the ___________________________________

a)

Automaticity , Conductivity

b)

Conductivity ,

Automaticity

c)

Automaticity ,

Contractility

d)

Contractility ,

Conductivity

7.

RAE main 4 causes

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Pulmonary hypertension

c)

pulmonary emboli

d)

COPD

e)

mitral, tricuspid, pulmonary valve disease

8.

3 causes of RAD

a)

Adolescents in children

b)

LAH

c)

Dextrocardia

d)

LVH

e)

RVH

9.

LAE can be caused by

a)

Severe systemic hypertension

b)

Left ventricular failure

c)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

d)

Tricuspid regurgitation

e)

Aortic or mitral valve disease

10.

What is the most common cause of P-mitrale (LAE)

a)

LV failure

b)

Tricuspid regurgitation

c)

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

d)

Aortic or mitral valve disease

e)

Severe systemic Hypertension

11.

Which of the following is incorrect when discussing WPW syndrome:

a. shortened PR always present

b. widened QRS > 0.11 seconds

c. delta waves present

d. associated with ST-T wave abnormalities

e. associated with paroxysmal tachycardias

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

12.

Type A WPW refers to

a)

Right sided Bundle of kent and is negative in V1

b)

Left sided Bundle of kent and is negative in V1

c)

Left sided Bundle of kent and is positive in V1

d)

Right sided Bundle of kent and is positive in V1

13.

In what sided WPW can mimic inferior old MI

a)

WPW type A due to positive delta waves in inferior leads (left sided)

b)

WPW type B due to negative delta waves in inferior leads (right sided)

14.

What is the name of the bypass tract associated with LGL syndrome?

a)

James Fibers

b)

Bundle of kent

c)

Purkinjie Fibers

d)

AV node

15.

The first electrocardiographic sign of an inferior MI is:

a. ST elevation in II, III, and aVF

b. ST elevation in I and aVL

c. Downward sloping ST depression in II, III, and aVF

d. Downward sloping ST depression in aVL

e. None of the above

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

16.

Hyperkalemia occurs commonly in patients with what underlying disorder?

a)

Right sided heart failure

b)

End stage renal disease

c)

Left sided heart failure

d)

Liver failure

17.

Hypocalcemia is associated with:

a. shortened QT interval

b. prolonged QT interval

c. none of the above

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

18.

In RBBB ______should have ST depression and T wave inversion

a)

V2-V4

b)

V1-V2

c)

V1-V3

d)

V2-V5

19.

Which Drug is best for Atrial Fib with rap rate in WPW?

a)

Procainamide

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Adenosine

d)

Beta Blockers

20.

If a Patients diastolic pressure never stops expect

a)

Aortic regurgitation

b)

Tricuspid regurgitation

c)

Mitral Stenosis

d)

Aortic stenosis

e)

Pulmonary edema

21.

Myocardial Oxygen Demand is determined by

a)

HR

b)

Contractility

c)

Wall tension

d)

BP

22.

A Drop of ______ mmHg of Systolic BP during Stress is indicative of CAD

a)

5mmHg

b)

15mmHg

c)

10mmHg

d)

20mmHg

23.

Stress Test Hypertensive response

a)

>210/100

b)

<190/90

c)

<200/85

d)

<210/100

24.

What is Lewis Lead useful for

a)

Afib

b)

WPW

c)

WAP/MAT

d)

AVNRT

25.

What is Vectormagnetocardiogram used for and what are the leads?

a)

Used for 3D visualization and computer analysis

-Frank XYZ

b)

Used for 2D visualization and computer analysis

Lewis Lead system

c)

Used for strain visualization and computer analysis

V1, V2, V3

26.

What are Fontaine leads used for

a)

To look at LVH

b)

To look at Brugada Syndrome

c)

To look at Epsilon waves in ARVD

d)

To look at Osborn waves in hypothermic patients

27.

A Q wave in which lead is a normal finding

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

28.

Goal 3 weeks post MI in METS

a)

2 METS

b)

10 METS

c)

4 METS

d)

3 METS

29.

Most used pharm stress test agent

a)

Thallium 201

b)

Persantine

c)

Aminophylline

d)

Dobutamine

30.

What are two contraindications for Ambulatory Monitoring?

a)

Dementia

b)

Chest Pain

c)

Intolerance of patients skin to skin pre products

d)

Syncope

31.

When is ST depression greatly associated with CAD

a)

1.5mm or Greater with less than 100bpm or 5 METS

b)

2mm or Greater with less than 120bpm or 6 METS

c)

1mm with less than 120bpm or 4 METS

d)

1.5 mm with less than 130bpm or 6 METS

32.

How long is the recovery stage for Stress testing

a)

3 minutes

b)

6 minutes

c)

4 minutes

d)

1 minutes

33.

______ or more PVCs in a minute stops the test

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

2

34.

How to identify ventricular aneurysm

a)

ST elevations 1 week after MI is most common

b)

ST depression 2 weeks after MI is most common

c)

ST elevations 2 weeks after MI is most common

d)

ST depression 3 weeks after MI is most common

35.

Causes of LBBB

a)

CAD

b)

LVH

c)

LAE

d)

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

e)

HTN

36.

What can cause RVH with strain

a)

Posterior MI

b)

RAE

c)

Pulmonary Embolism

d)

RBBB

37.

What is considered low fitness level in terms of METS

a)

10-15

b)

3.0-5.0

c)

4.0-6.9

d)

2.0-7

38.

Normal QRS duration

a)

0.08-0.12 seconds

b)

0.06-0.12 seconds

c)

0.12-0.20 seconds

39.

What is the normal rage of the PR interval

a)

0.06-0.12 seconds

b)

0.12-0.20 seconds

c)

0.08-0.20 seconds

40.

What is considered normal axis range

a)

-30 to +90 degrees

b)

-60 to +30 degrees

c)

+90 to +180 degrees

41.

During ETT, how far past the J point is the ST segment measured?

a)

100 ms

b)

90 ms

c)

80 ms

d)

70 ms

42.

Max QT interval in seconds

a)

0.20 seconds

b)

0.30 seconds

c)

0.40 seconds

d)

0.50 seconds

43.

first downward deflection (PQRST)

a)

P wave

b)

Q wave

c)

R wave

d)

S wave

44.

first upward deflection (PQRST)

a)

P wave

b)

Q wave

c)

R wave

d)

S wave

45.

P waves should always be negative in what lead?

a)

V1

b)

Lead I

c)

Lead II

d)

aVR

46.

Brings next beat back into sync with preceding ones?

a)

Compensatory pause

b)

Non Compensatory pause

47.

Succeeding beats that do not fall back in sync?

a)

Compensatory pause

b)

Non-Compensatory pause

48.

What could be used to diagnose and correct SVT caused by reentry

a)

Carotid message

b)

Beta Blockers

c)

Vagal maneuver

d)

Atropine

49.

What is Tetralogy of Fallot?

a)

VSD

b)

Overriding aorta

c)

LVH

d)

RVH

e)

Pulmonary Stenosis

50.

Disease of the heart muscle that causes the heart to become enlarged and to pump less strongly

a)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

b)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

c)

Hypertrophic ccardiomyopathy

51.

Heart muscle hardens, restricting the expansion of the heart, thus limiting the amount of blood it can pump to the rest of the body

a)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

b)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

c)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

52.

Heart muscle becomes enlarged and blocks blood flow

a)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

b)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

c)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

53.

An abnormal opening between the pulmonary artery and the aorta caused by failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth

a)

Ebstein's anomaly

b)

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

c)

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

d)

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

54.

What chamber forms most of the anterior surface of the heart?

a)

Right ventricle

b)

Right atrium

c)

Left atrium

d)

Left ventricle

55.

Degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole

a)

Afterload

b)

Preload

56.

The amount of resistance to ejection of blood from the ventricle

a)

Afterload

b)

Preload

57.

What is the best tx for torsades resulting from bradycardia induced long QT syndrome

a)

Pacemaker

b)

ICD

c)

Beta Blockers

d)

Amiodarone

58.

Why is a 15 lead ECG done

a)

Anterior MI

b)

Septal MI

c)

Posterior MI

d)

Lateral MI

59.

Septal depolarization in LBBB is

a)

Right to Left

b)

Left to Right

60.

Septal depolarization in RBBB is

a)

Right to Left

b)

Left to Right

61.

Will vagal maneuvers be effective in WPW?

a)

Yes

b)

No

62.

Will WPW respond to cardioversion?

a)

Yes

b)

No

63.

What is underlying heart conditions are associated with aortic stenosis?

a)

MR

b)

CHF

c)

RAE

d)

LVH

e)

RVH

64.

What pharmacological agent produces ST depression?

a)

Digitalis

b)

Beta Blockers

c)

CCB

d)

Atropine

65.

The first heart sound, heard when the atrioventricular (mitral and tricuspid) valves close

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

66.

The second heart sound, heard when the semilunar (aortic and pulmonic) valves close

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

67.

"Ventricular gallop" an abnormal heart sound detected early in diastole as resistance is met to blood entering either ventricle; most often due to volume overload associated with heart failure

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

68.

"Atrial Gallop" an abnormal heart sound detected late in diastole as resistance is met to blood entering either ventricle during atrial contraction; most often caused by hypertrophy of the ventricle, history of an MI

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

69.

Where can you hear S1 the best?

a)

Mitral area

b)

Tricuspid area

c)

Aortic area

d)

True Apex

70.

True or False S3 is a normal finding in children?

a)

True

b)

False

71.

The ability of the heart to generate and conduct electrical impulses on its own.

a)

Conductivity

b)

Exciatability

c)

Automaticity

d)

Contractility

72.

Respond to external stimulus, chemical, mechanical, electrical.

a)

Excitability

b)

Automaticity

c)

Conductivity

d)

Contractility

73.

Receive an electrical signal and transmit it to another cardiac cell

a)

Excitability

b)

Automaticity

c)

Contractility

d)

Conductivity

74.

Ability to contract in response to an electrical stimulus

a)

Excitability

b)

Automaticity

c)

Contractility

d)

Conductivity

75.

Sodium channel blockers

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

76.

beta blockers "lol" drugs

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Cass IV

77.

Potassium channel blockers-Amiodarone-Ibutilide

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

78.

Calcium channel blockers-diltiazem-verapamil

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

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