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2.2 PTA

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the passive causes of Type 1 scapular dyskinesia?

a)

Passive: Stiffness pec major/anterior capsule

b)

Passive: stiffness serratus anterior / posterior capsule

c)

Passive: stiffness pec minor/posterior capsule

2.

What are the active causes of Type 1 scapular dyskinesia?

a)

Muscular imbalance between lower traps and Serratus anterior

b)

Muscular imbalance between upper traps and serratus anterior

c)

Muscular imbalance upper traps and lower traps

3.

What can the WOSI questionnaire be used for?

a)

Elbow fracture

b)

Shoulder Instability

c)

Hip Instability

4.

What is TUBS?

a)

A traumatic, Unidirectional, Bankart, and Surgery

b)

Atraumatic, multidirectional, bilateral, rehab, and inferior capsular shift

c)

Trauma, unidirectional, Bankart, surgery

5.

What can Acquired Instability Overstress Surgery lead to?

a)

Minimal or partial rupture of the posterior, superior capsular ligament structures of the shoulder.

b)

Complete rupture of the anterior, inferior capsular ligament structures of the shoulder.

c)

Minimal or partial rupture of the anterior, inferior capsular ligament structures of the shoulder.

6.

What is scapular dyskinesia type 1?

a)

Visible Angolus Inferior

b)

Visible Margo Medialis

c)

Excessive superior border elevation

7.

What is scapular dyskinesia type 2?

a)

Visible Angolus Inferior

b)

Visible Margo Medialis

c)

Excessive superior border elevation

8.

What is scapular dyskinesia type 3?

a)

Visible Angolus Inferior

b)

Visible Margo Medialis

c)

Excessive superior border elevation

9.

What is the Canadian C-Spine used for?

a)

Determine if someone requires radiography

b)

Determines if someone has a fracture

c)

Determine if someone has cervical instability

10.

The Cluster of Wainner does NOT include which of the following tests?

a)

Upper limb tension test

b)

Spurling test

c)

Sharp Purser test

11.

Which is NOT a region specific red flag for the shoulder?

a)

Scapular deformity

b)

Double sided shoulder complaints

c)

Radiating Pain

d)

Chest Pain

12.

In most cases, wearing a cast for a long period of time can cause what?

a)

Loss of strength in extensors and atrophy in flexors

b)

Loss of strength and atrophy in extensors

c)

Loss of strength in the flexors and atrophy in extensors

13.

What treatments are not recommended for neck complaints?

a)

Combine exercise therapy with cervical and/or thoracic mobilization or manipulation

b)

Dry needling, electro therapy, ultrasound/shockwave and laser

c)

Tailored exercise therapy to the patients needs, limitation and goals

14.

What is vestibulo-occular reflex?

a)

Stabilize the head in space

b)

The following of moving objects

c)

Head position with respect to the trunk

d)

Stabilizing the body in space

15.

What is vestibulo-colli reflex?

a)

Stabilize the head in space

b)

The following of moving objects

c)

Head position with respect to the trunk

d)

Stabilizing the body in space

16.

What is vestibulo-spinal reflex?

a)

Stabilize the head in space

b)

The following of moving objects

c)

Head position with respect to the trunk

d)

Stabilizing the body in space

17.

What is cervical-colli reflex?

a)

Stabilize the head in space

b)

The following of moving objects

c)

Head position with respect to the trunk

d)

Stabilizing the body in space

18.

What is the most reliable test to test use for ACL?

a)

McMurrays

b)

Spurling

c)

Lachmans

19.

What is the l’hermitte sign?

a)

Electrical sensation from the neck to the back and into the limbs

b)

Electrical sensation from the neck and back to the legs

c)

Electrical sensation from the arms to the neck and back

20.

What can be the reason for l’hermitte sign?

a)

Myelation of the spinal cord (ex. Multiplex clerosis)

b)

Demyelation of the spinal cord (ex. Multiplex clerosis)

c)

Myelation of the transverse process of the spine (ex. Multiplex clerosis)

21.

What is the criteria after an elbow injury to start the intermediate phase regarding RoM?

a)

Post Operation RoM is equal to Pre Operation RoM

b)

>15 weeks after operation

c)

Post Operation RoM is <20* difference from Pre-Operation

22.

How long does the remodeling phase last in the ankle?

a)

11-21 days

b)

2 months

c)

2-7 days

23.

What is “Symptomatic abnormal motion of glenohumeral joint which can present as pain or a sense of displacement (subluxation or dislocation)”

a)

Definition of Shoulder Instability

b)

Head of the humerus in relation to shoulder instability

c)

Synovial shoulder joint

24.

What tendon inserts to the shoulder labrum?

a)

The bicep short head

b)

The bicep long head

c)

The Pectoralis minor

25.

What ligament DOES NOT attach to the shoulder labrum?

a)

The Medial (MGHL)

b)

Inferior (IGHL)

c)

Glenohumeral Ligament

d)

Coracoclavicular Ligaments

26.

The labrum is …

a)

Poorly Vascularized

b)

One of the best vascularized

c)

Normal vascularized

27.

Tear of the labrum due to dislocation or subluxation of the GH joint. Usually in an anterior direction (anterior instability)

a)

Bankart Lesions

b)

Slap Tear

c)

Hill-sachs lesion

28.

Compression fracture of posterior numeral head after a shoulder luxation

a)

Bankart Lesions

b)

Slap Tear

c)

Hill-sachs lesion

29.

Common with overhead sports, or falling on elbow. Damage to labrum and bicep tendon (Superior Instability)

a)

Bankart Lesions

b)

Slap Tear

c)

Hill-sachs lesion

30.

What is the force couple of the scapula?

a)

Upper and Lower trapezius and the Serratus Anterior

b)

Serratus Anterior and Lower Trapezius

c)

Lower Trapezius and Infraspinatus

31.

What is this?

a)

Triad Triangle

b)

Inguinal Traingle

c)

Unhappy Traid

d)

Bayley’s Triangle

32.

Muscles that … the humerus in space (M. Deltoid and M. Supraspinatus)

a)

Preparators

b)

Pivoters

c)

Protectors

d)

Positioners

e)

Propellors

33.

Muscles of the trunk and lower extremities. Energy is transferred from the lower extremities and trunk to the upper extremities via the scapula.

a)

Preparators

b)

Pivoters

c)

Protectors

d)

Positioners

e)

Propellors

34.

Muscles with a big cross section that are responsible for movement (should be trained in the end stages) (M. Pectoralis Minor and M. Triceps)

a)

Preparators

b)

Pivoters

c)

Protectors

d)

Positioners

e)

Propellors

35.

Local muscles that centralize the caput humeri. (Rotator Cuff Muscles)

a)

Preparators

b)

Pivoters

c)

Protectors

d)

Positioners

e)

Propellors

36.

Scapula fixators, Responsible for … off the scapula. (Muscles: M. Serratus Anterior, Mm. Rhomboidei, M. Trapezius)

a)

Preparators

b)

Pivoters

c)

Protectors

d)

Positioners

e)

Propellors

37.

Accleration

- IR and adductors concentric contraction

a)

3rd phase of throwing

b)

4th phase of throwing

c)

5th phase of throwing

d)

6th phase of throwing

38.

Late cocking

- More ER

- Rotator cuff stabilizes the GH joint

- Scapulothoracic muscles stabilize scapula

- Eccentric Contraction of subscapularis and Pectoralis minor

a)

1st phase of throwing

b)

2nd phase of throwing

c)

3rd phase of throwing

d)

4th phase of throwing

39.

Wind up

- Preparation for throwing

a)

1st phase of throwing

b)

2nd phase of throwing

c)

3rd phase of throwing

d)

4th phase of throwing

40.

Follow through

a)

3rd phase of throwing

b)

4th phase of throwing

c)

5th phase of throwing

d)

6th phase of throwing

41.

Early Cocking

- ER of shoulder

- Contraction of the supraspinatus and the deltoid

a)

1st phase of throwing

b)

2nd phase of throwing

c)

3rd phase of throwing

d)

4th phase of throwing

42.

Deceleration

- Eccentric contraction of the shoulder and scapula muscles to slow down the movement

a)

3rd phase of throwing

b)

4th phase of throwing

c)

5th phase of throwing

d)

6th phase of throwing

43.

DOHA agreement

a)

A classification system with 3 major subheadings of the structures causing groin pain in athletes

b)

A classification system with 4 major subheadings of the structure causing groin pain in athletes

c)

An agreement for hip related injuries in elderly people

44.

White Fiber Type 1

a)

- Fast Fibers

- Lots of mitochondria

- Many Capillaries

- Efficient, but less powerful

- Low resistance to fatigue

- Anaerobic metabolism

b)

- Fast fibers

- Little mitochondria

- Tired quickly

- Limited aerobic metabolism

- High anaerobic capacity

- Largest and fastest muscle fibers

- A lot of power, not efficient

c)

- Slow Fibers

- Lots of mitochondria

- Many Capillaries

- Efficient, but less powerful

- high resistance to fatigue

- Aerobic metabolism

45.

White Fiber Type 2B

a)

- Fast Fibers

- Lots of mitochondria

- Many Capillaries

- Efficient, but less powerful

- Low resistance to fatigue

- Anaerobic metabolism

b)

- Fast fibers

- Little mitochondria

- Tired quickly

- Limited aerobic metabolism

- High anaerobic capacity

- Largest and fastest muscle fibers

- A lot of power, not efficient

c)

- Slow Fibers

- Lots of mitochondria

- Many Capillaries

- Efficient, but less powerful

- high resistance to fatigue

- Aerobic metabolism

46.

Type 3 Radial Head Fracture

a)

Minimally displaced fx, no mechanical block to rotation, intra-articular displacement <2 mm

b)

Radial head fracture with elbow dislocation

c)

Comminuted and displaced fx, mechanical block to motion

d)

Displaced >2 mm or ambulate, possible mechanical block to forearm rotation

47.

Type 2 Radial Head Fracture

a)

Minimally displaced fx, no mechanical block to rotation, intra-articular displacement <2 mm

b)

Radial head fracture with elbow dislocation

c)

Comminuted and displaced fx, mechanical block to motion

d)

Displaced >2 mm or ambulate, possible mechanical block to forearm rotation

48.

Type 4 Radial Head Fracture

a)

Minimally displaced fx, no mechanical block to rotation, intra-articular displacement <2 mm

b)

Radial head fracture with elbow dislocation

c)

Comminuted and displaced fx, mechanical block to motion

d)

Displaced >2 mm or ambulate, possible mechanical block to forearm rotation

49.

Type 1 Radial Head Fracture

a)

Minimally displaced fx, no mechanical block to rotation, intra-articular displacement <2 mm

b)

Radial head fracture with elbow dislocation

c)

Comminuted and displaced fx, mechanical block to motion

d)

Displaced >2 mm or ambulate, possible mechanical block to forearm rotation

50.

Active Lumbar instability

a)

Is controlled with information from passive and active structures. With this information, it mainly controls active structures (motor control)

b)

The different musculature (Global and Local Stabilizers)

c)

Passive structures (ligament, disc and vertebrae)

51.

Passive Lumbar instability

a)

Is controlled with information from passive and active structures. With this information, it mainly controls active structures (motor control)

b)

The different musculature (Global and Local Stabilizers)

c)

Passive structures (ligament, disc and vertebrae)

52.

Neural Lumbar instability

a)

Is controlled with information from passive and active structures. With this information, it mainly controls active structures (motor control)

b)

The different musculature (Global and Local Stabilizers)

c)

Passive structures (ligament, disc and vertebrae)

53.

LBP is very common but lumbar radiculopathy is only … % of cases.

a)

8-10%

b)

15-20%

c)

3-5%

d)

1-2%

54.

The Start Back Screening Tool classifies patient into 3 groups based on the risk of poor prognosis, low, medium, and high. What does this classify as?

a)

Low-risk

b)

Medium-risk

c)

High-risk

55.

The Start Back Screening Tool classifies patient into 3 groups based on the risk of poor prognosis, low, medium, and high. What does this classify as?

a)

Low-risk

b)

Medium-risk

c)

High-risk

56.

The Start Back Screening Tool classifies patient into 3 groups based on the risk of poor prognosis, low, medium, and high. What does this classify as?

a)

Low-risk

b)

Medium-risk

c)

High-risk

57.

Ankle injuries highest chance of injury falls between the age of …

a)

18-25

b)

25-35

c)

18-34

d)

34-55