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Final Exam Review Ch 10, 12-15

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What happens to a molecule when it absorbs a photon?

a)

It moves to a lower energy state.

b)

It remains in the ground state.

c)

It is raised to an excited state and gains more energy.

d)

It releases a photon.

2.

What is the primary role of ATP synthase in the process of photophosphorylation as depicted in the diagram?

a)

Transport of electrons through the thylakoid membrane

b)

Splitting of water molecules to release oxygen

c)

Coupling the formation of ATP to the movement of protons back into the stroma

d)

Transfer of energy from photon to electron

3.

Which molecule acts as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain shown in the diagram?

a)

Oxygen

b)

ATP

c)

NADP+

d)

Carbon dioxide

4.

According to the diagram, what is the source of the oxygen (O2) released during photophosphorylation?

a)

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

b)

Water (H2O)

c)

NADPH

d)

ATP

5.

What is the function of the proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane in photophosphorylation?

a)

It helps in the synthesis of sugars

b)

It drives the synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi

c)

It assists in the transport of electrons to photosystem I

d)

It facilitates the reduction of NADP+ to NADPH

6.

What is the final outcome of the cyclic electron transport process as shown in the diagram?

a)

Production of NADPH

b)

Reduction of oxygen

c)

Synthesis of ATP

d)

Release of carbon dioxide

7.

According to the diagram, what allows the cyclic electron transport reactions to start again?

a)

The absorption of light by chlorophyll

b)

The reduction of ferredoxin

c)

The electron flow to photosystem II

d)

The last reduced electron carrier passing electrons to electron-deficient chlorophyll

8.

What is the primary function of the Calvin Cycle?

a)

Synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi

b)

Conversion of light energy into chemical energy

c)

Synthesis of sugars from carbon dioxide

d)

Breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water

9.

In the Calvin Cycle, what molecule acts as the initial acceptor of CO2?

a)

3PG

b)

G3P

c)

RuBP

d)

ATP

10.

What happens to the G3P molecules in the Calvin Cycle?

a)

All are used to regenerate RuBP.

b)

All are converted into sugars.

c)

One-sixth are used to make sugars, and the rest help regenerate RuBP.

d)

They are all released as CO2.

11.

What is a characteristic feature of model organisms used in genetic studies?

a)

Difficult to grow in the laboratory

b)

Long generation times

c)

Easy to manipulate genetically

d)

Produce a small number of progeny

12.

Why are model organisms with short generation times preferred in genetic studies?

a)

They are more complex genetically

b)

They require less laboratory space

c)

They allow for faster experimental results

d)

They are harder to manipulate genetically

13.

What does Mendel's law of segregation state about the copies of a gene during gamete formation?

a)

Each gamete receives two copies of a gene.

b)

Each gamete receives only one copy of a gene.

c)

Each gamete receives no copies of a gene.

d)

Each gamete randomly selects copies of a gene.

14.

What does Mendel's second law, also known as the law of independent assortment, state about the behavior of genes during gamete formation?

a)

Genes located on the same chromosome segregate together.

b)

Copies of different genes assort independently.

c)

All genes are linked and do not assort independently.

d)

Genes assort randomly without any specific pattern.

15.

In the context of meiosis, how is Mendel's second law interpreted?

a)

Chromosomes duplicate and remain linked.

b)

Chromosomes align randomly at the metaphase plate.

c)

Chromosomes segregate independently during the formation of gametes.

d)

Chromosomes do not undergo crossing over.

16.

What is the genotype of the gametes produced by the F1 generation plants in Mendel's explanation of inheritance?

a)

RR, Rr, rr

b)

R, r

c)

RR, rr

d)

Rr, rr

17.

According to Mendel's explanation, what phenotypic ratio appears in the F2 generation?

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

3:1

d)

4:1

18.

What is the result when a plant homozygous for R is crossed with one homozygous for r?

a)

All offspring are Rr

b)

All offspring are RR

c)

All offspring are rr

d)

Offspring are either RR or rr

19.

What is the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation in a dihybrid cross as shown in the diagram?

a)

1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1

b)

9:3:3:1

c)

3:1

d)

1:1:1:1

20.

What process allows F1 plants to produce different gamete types in equal frequencies?

a)

Mutation

b)

Independent assortment

c)

Segregation

d)

Recombination

21.

What is the concept of codominance in genetics?

a)

A) A single allele being responsible for a trait

b)

B) Alleles producing phenotypes only present in homozygotes

c)

C) Alleles producing phenotypes that are both present in the heterozygote

d)

D) Alleles that do not produce any observable phenotypes

22.

How many different alleles are involved in the ABO blood group system?

a)

A) Two

b)

B) Three

c)

C) Four

d)

D) Five

23.

What does a filled symbol (square or circle) typically represent in a pedigree chart for dominant inheritance?

a)

Unaffected individual

b)

Affected individual

c)

Heterozygous individual

d)

Individual not included in the study

24.

In a pedigree chart, what does a half-filled symbol represent in the context of dominant inheritance?

a)

Unaffected individual

b)

Affected individual

c)

Heterozygous individual with an unaffected phenotype

d)

Mating between relatives

25.

Who prepared crystallographs from DNA samples that suggested the structure of DNA as a double-stranded helix?

a)

James Watson

b)

Francis Crick

c)

Maurice Wilkins

d)

Rosalind Franklin

26.

What did Rosalind Franklin's images suggest about the structure of DNA?

a)

Single-stranded helix with 10 nucleotides per turn

b)

Double-stranded helix with 10 nucleotides per turn

c)

Triple-stranded helix with 15 nucleotides per turn

d)

Double-stranded helix with 15 nucleotides per turn

27.

According to Rosalind Franklin's findings, what must be on the outside of each DNA strand?

a)

Nitrogenous bases

b)

Sugar-phosphate backbone

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Amino acids

28.

What component of the DNA molecule attaches to the 5' carbon of the sugar in the sugar-phosphate backbone?

a)

Base

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Nitrogenous base

29.

What is the function of DNA polymerase in the pre-replication complex?

a)

It unwinds the double helix.

b)

It synthesizes a primer.

c)

It elongates both DNA strands.

d)

It keeps the template strands separated.

30.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the double helix in the pre-replication complex?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Primase

c)

DNA helicase

d)

Single-stranded binding proteins

31.

What role do single-stranded binding proteins play in DNA replication?

a)

They elongate the DNA strands.

b)

They synthesize RNA primers.

c)

They unwind the DNA helix.

d)

They keep the template strands separated.

32.

Where are Okazaki fragments found in the pre-replication complex?

a)

On the leading strand

b)

On the lagging strand

c)

On both strands

d)

Outside the replication fork

33.

What are the repetitive sequences at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes called?

a)

Centromeres

b)

Telomeres

c)

Histones

d)

Nucleosomes

34.

What is the sequence of the telomeres in human chromosomes?

a)

ACGT-5'

b)

TTAGGG-3'

c)

GATC-3'

d)

CCGG-5'

35.

What role do the proteins bound to the repeats in telomeres play?

a)

They help in DNA replication

b)

They add nucleotides to the DNA strand

c)

They prevent the DNA repair system from recognizing chromosome ends as breaks

d)

They facilitate chromosome pairing during meiosis

36.

Where in a eukaryotic cell does transcription occur?

a)

In the cytosol

b)

Inside the nucleus

c)

On the ribosome

d)

Within the mitochondria

37.

What is the primary product of transcription?

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

c)

mRNA

d)

Polypeptide

38.

Where does translation take place within a cell?

a)

Nuclear envelope

b)

Cytosol

c)

Inside the nucleus

d)

Golgi apparatus

39.

Which molecule is responsible for carrying amino acids to the ribosome during translation?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

DNA

40.

What is the role of ribosomes in protein synthesis?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Lipid synthesis

41.

What happens to pre-mRNA during RNA processing as shown in the diagram?

a)

It is translated into a polypeptide

b)

It is transcribed from DNA

c)

It undergoes capping, poly A tail addition, and intron removal

d)

It binds to ribosomes

42.

Where does translation occur in the process of gene expression?

a)

Inside the nucleus

b)

At the promoter region

c)

At the splice sites

d)

Outside the nucleus

43.

What is the role of the promoter in the transcription of a eukaryotic gene as depicted in the diagram?

a)

It adds a poly A tail to mRNA

b)

It signals the start of transcription

c)

It removes introns from pre-mRNA

d)

It terminates transcription

44.

What is the amino acid encoded by the codon AUG?

a)

Methionine

b)

Leucine

c)

Valine

d)

Serine

45.

Which codon acts as a stop codon?

a)

UAA

b)

CCG

c)

GUC

d)

AAG

46.

What amino acid is encoded by the codon GGA?

a)

Glycine

b)

Alanine

c)

Glutamine

d)

Arginine

47.

Which of the following codons encodes for Tyrosine (Tyr)?

a)

UAU

b)

UAC

c)

UAA

d)

UAG

48.

What type of chromosomal rearrangement is characterized by the loss of a chromosome segment?

a)

Duplication

b)

Inversion

c)

Deletion

d)

Reciprocal translocation

49.

Which chromosomal rearrangement involves the swapping of segments between two non-homologous chromosomes?

a)

Duplication

b)

Deletion

c)

Inversion

d)

Reciprocal translocation

50.

In which chromosomal rearrangement is a segment reversed before being reinserted into the chromosome?

a)

Duplication

b)

Deletion

c)

Inversion

d)

Reciprocal translocation

51.

What occurs in a duplication chromosomal rearrangement?

a)

A chromosome segment is lost

b)

A chromosome segment is reversed

c)

A chromosome segment is repeated

d)

Segments are swapped between non-homologous chromosomes

52.

What is a transition mutation in DNA?

a)

Substitution of a purine for a pyrimidine

b)

Substitution of one purine for another or one pyrimidine for another

c)

Substitution of a pyrimidine for a purine

d)

Removal of a purine and addition of a pyrimidine

53.

What is a transversion mutation in DNA?

a)

Substitution of a purine for a pyrimidine or vice versa

b)

Substitution of one purine for another

c)

Substitution of one pyrimidine for another

d)

Removal of a pyrimidine and addition of a purine

54.

Which of the following is a correct example of a transition mutation?

a)

Adenine (A) to Guanine (G)

b)

Adenine (A) to Thymine (T)

c)

Cytosine (C) to Adenine (A)

d)

Guanine (G) to Thymine (T)

55.

Which of the following is a correct example of a transversion mutation?

a)

Thymine (T) to Cytosine (C)

b)

Guanine (G) to Adenine (A)

c)

Adenine (A) to Cytosine (C)

d)

Cytosine (C) to Thymine (T)