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TEST SERIES-5 (II)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Match List-I (Landform types) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

a)

. West-Pacific Ocean

1.

Mariana trench

b)

Indian Ocean

2.

Sunda trench

c)

Atlantic Ocean

3.

Pureto Rico trench

d)

Arabian Sea

4.

Carlsberg ridge

2.

Match List-I (Ridges) with List-II (Oceans) and select the codes given below the lists:

a)

Arctic Ocean

1.

Mendelevav

b)

Indian Ocean

2.

Kerguelen

c)

South Pacific Ocean

3.

San Felix-Juan

d)

South Atlantic Ocean

4.

San Felix-Juan

3.

Match List-I (Ocean Current) with List -II (Name of Ocean) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

a)

Indian Ocean

1.

Agulhas current

b)

South Pacific

2.

EI Nino current

c)

.North Pacific

3.

Kuroshio current

d)

South Atlantic

4.

Benguela current

4.

The highest salinity is found in

a)

Lake Van

b)

Lake Chad

c)

Lake Chad

d)

Red Sea

5.

Sea water is saltier than rain water because

a)

sea animals are salt producing

b)

the air around the sea is saltish

c)

river wash away salts from earth and pour them into the sea

d)

sea beds have salt producing mines.

6.

Assertion (A) : Oceanic salinity is higher along Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn. Reason (R) : Increased evaporation coupled with relatively more insolation along these latitudes causes higher oceanic salinity.

a)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

d)

(A) is false, but (R) is true

7.

Assertion (A) : The amount of salinity in the tropical coasts of continents. Reason (R) : The trade wind causes upwelling of water in the Western coasts and the water is piled up in the Eastern coasts of continents.

a)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

d)

(A) is false, but (R) is true

8.

Assertion (A) : Despite low evaporation and stable stratification of the atmosphere, salinity is high in polar regions. Reason (R) : Sea water freezes leaving the remaining water saline than before.

a)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

d)

(A) is false, but (R) is true

9.

Assertion (A) : Average ocean salinity generally decreases from equator the pole but tropical zone (20-30º) is characterised by maximum salinity. Reason (R) : The tropical zone owes its high salinity to high temperature, high evaporation and significantly low rainfall.

a)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b)

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

d)

(A) is false, but (R) is true

10.

Consider the following conditions: 1. Anticyclone conditions with static air and high temperature 2. Cyclonic conditions with unstable air3. High precipitatioin with low evaporation 4. Low precipitation with high evaporation High salinity of ocean waters is associated with

a)

1 and 4

b)

2 and 3

c)

1 and 3

d)

2 and 4

11.

Consider the following statements: Salinity of water in the equatorial oceans decrease because 1. large rivers like Amazon and Congo enter into the sea. 2. evaporation is less. 3. waters from Arctic and Antarctic mix with the waters of Equator. 4. of heavy rainfall. Which of these statements are correct?

a)

1 and 2

b)

3 and 4

c)

1 and 3

d)

1 and 4

12.

Which of the following sea has maximum salinity?

a)

Red sea

b)

Baltic se

c)

Dead sea

d)

White sea

13.

Neap tides occur during which of the following phases of the moon?

a)

First quarter only

b)

First and third quarter

c)

Second and third quarter

d)

Fourth quarter only

14.

Spring tide means

a)

higher high tide, higher low tide

b)

higher high tide, lower low tide

c)

lower high tide, lower low tide

d)

lower high tide, higher low tide

15.

The oceanic tidal wave that moves upto 200 MPH and is up to 1000 feet high

a)

Scour

b)

Tsunami

c)

Stream

d)

Stream

16.

Which one of the following is the tide produced as a consequence of moon and sun pulling the earth in the same direction?

a)

Spring tide

b)

Neap tide

c)

High tide

d)

High tide

17.

Tidal range denotes the

a)

rise of sea water and its movement toward the coast

b)

fall of sea water and its movement toward the sea

c)

rise and fall of sea water due to gravitational forces

d)

difference between high and low tide

18.

Regular oscillations in the water surface of large water bodies are formed because of

a)

Gravitational effect of Moon

b)

Difference in temperature of sea water and the air above

c)

Rotation of Earth

d)

Friction of wind on the water surface

19.

Consider the following statements: 1 Neap tides occur when the moon, earth and sun are collinear. 2. When an intense storm passes near the shore during a spring tide, the waves at high tide may cause tidal waves. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)

Only 1

b)

Only 2

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

Neither 1 nor 2

20.

A tide situated near the mouth of a coastal inlet

a)

Current

b)

Dominant wave

c)

Mill

d)

Stream

21.

Match List-I (Genetic Phase) with List-II (Resultant Tide) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

a)

Neap tide in a straight line

1.

The Sun and the Moon

b)

Spring tide angles with are at right the Earth

2.

The Sun, the Moon and the Earth are

c)

Perigean tide

3.

The Moon is nearest from the Earth

d)

Apogean tide

4.

The Moon is farthest from the Earth

22.

Pelagic deposits are in the form of liquid mud known as ooze. They occur

a)

on the deep ocean floor

b)

on the floor of enclosed sea

c)

off large river months

d)

None of the above

23.

Benthos is the name given to those organisms which live

a)

at the bottom of the ocean

b)

in enclosed sea

c)

in the upper layers of ocean

d)

along the shore

24.

Abundant organic life is present in

a)

shallow seas adjoining the shore

b)

on the deep ocean floor

c)

zone of upwelling of cold water

d)

tropical parts of ocean

25.

Pelagic deposits are mainly found below the depth of

a)

1000 fathoms

b)

100 fathoms

c)

600 fathoms

d)

200 fathoms

26.

Which of the following kinds of organisms are the diatoms?

a)

Unicellular algae

b)

Protozoans

c)

Free floating bryophytes

d)

Detritivores

27.

Radiolarian oozes occur in the depths of

a)

600 to 1200 fathoms

b)

1500 to 2000 fathoms

c)

2000 to 5000 fathoms

d)

5000 to 6000 fathoms

28.

The most classes of the organisms line only in the salt marine water such organisms are

a)

Frontline

b)

Euryhalines

c)

Stenohalines

d)

All of these

29.

Oozes are associated with

a)

volcanic deposits

b)

terrigenous deposits

c)

pelagic deposits

d)

coral reefs

30.

Pelagic deposits consist of

a)

Terrigenous materials

b)

Cosmic materials

c)

Inorganic materials

d)

Organic ooze materials

31.

A very fine textured pelagic deposit

a)

Ooze

b)

Aquatic

c)

Molluses

d)

None of the above

32.

Consider the following statements: 1. Globigerina ooze is a calcareous pelagic deposit. 2. Globigerina ooze is found mostly in the tropical and temperate zones of the Atlantic Ocean. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a)

Only 1

b)

Only 2

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

Neither 1 nor 2

33.

Consider the following statements: 1. Hydrogenous deposits are formed very slowly. 2. Phosphorites are found either in the form of nodules or in the form of thin crust. 3. Glauconite is a biogenous sediment. Which of these are correct?

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

1 and 3

d)

1, 2 and 3

34.

In vertical distribution of ocean deposits, which is the correct sequence (from oceanic sea towards bottom) of the following deposits? 1. Calcareous oozes 2. Siliceous oozes 3. Terrigenous deposits 4. Red clay Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

3, 1, 2, 4

c)

3, 2, 1, 4

d)

4, 3, 2, 1

35.

Match List-I (Deposits) with List-II (Locations) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

a)

Continental slopes

1.

. Silt

b)

Oceanic deeps

2.

Red day

c)

Oceanic plains

3.

Ooze

d)

Continental shelves

4.

Gravel

36.

Match List-I (Sediment type) with List-II (Example) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

a)

Quartz and clay

1.

Terrigenous

b)

Calcareous oozes

2.

Biogenous

c)

Manganese nodules

3.

Hydrogenous

d)

Tektite spheres

4.

Comogenous

37.

Match List-I (Ocean Deposit of Organic Remain) with List-II (Origin of Organic Remain) and select the correct answer using the code given

a)

Dead skeletons of marine animals and plants

1.

Neritic remains

b)

Microscopic plant shells

2.

Pelagic remains

c)

Shells of Planktonic mollusks

3.

Pteropod ooze

d)

A type of algae

4.

Pteropod ooze

38.

The bottoms of trenches lie

a)

Deep upto 3500 to 5000 miles

b)

Deep upto 2000 to 3500 miles

c)

Deep upto 2000 to 3500 miles

d)

Deep upto 500 to 8000 miles

39.

Drift plain are formed by

a)

Deposition of dust by wind

b)

Debris brought by streams

c)

Deposits of continental glaciations

d)

None of the above

40.

Which one of the following plate movements is responsible for the formation of mid-ocean ridge?

a)

Divergent movement

b)

Convergent movement

c)

Transform fault movement

d)

Parallel movement

41.

Fiord originate as a result of

a)

Glacial erosion

b)

Soil erosion

c)

Land slide

d)

Rock formation

42.

The marked slope from the edge of continental shelf to the deep sea or Abyssal plain is known as

a)

Continental foot

b)

Continental slope

c)

Continental shelf

d)

Continental sea

43.

Continental sea

a)

Continental sea

b)

It is wall built at right angles to the shorelines made of small rocks

c)

It is a wall built at right angles to the shorelines made of igneous rocks

d)

None of the above

44.

Abyssal plains are

a)

Small and unproductive plains caused by the turbidity curents

b)

Vast and flat plains caused by the turbidity currents

c)

Vast but unusually rough terrained plains caused by the turbidity currents

d)

All of the above

45.

Delta shoreline is

a)

Built of material brought out of stream system

b)

Built material brought out of glacial system

c)

Built of a material brought out of river system

d)

Built of a material brought out of river system

46.

What is a coastal plains?

a)

It is created by a continental shelf exposed by submergence

b)

It is created by continental shelf exposed by emergence

c)

It is created by a continental shelf exposed by tidal waves

d)

None of the above

47.

Consider the following by statement: 1. The Rhine rift valley stretches for more than 800 km. 2. The floor of Dead Sea is more than 1100 m below sea level. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a)

Only 1

b)

Only 2

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

Both 1 and 2

48.

Assertion (A) : The continents are considered as floating on the denser layers of rocks.

Reason (R) : The continents are made up of lighter rocks.

a)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b)

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

d)

(A) is false, but (R) is true

49.

Seamounts may be

a)

Mountain abruptly rising from the ocean floor

b)

Mountains resulting out of diastrophic activity from the ocean floor

c)

Mountains resulting from the changes inside the ocean floor

d)

None of the above

50.

Assertion (A) : Explosive type of volcanic eruptions are associated with the destructive or convergent plate boundaries in which the heavier plate is subducted beneath the lighter plate. Reason (R) : Materials of the upper mantle lying below the mid-oceanic ridges are melted and move upward in the form of lava during volcanic eruptions.

a)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b)

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c)

A) is true, but (R) is false

d)

(A) is false, but (R) is true