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bio final

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 27hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Between the years from 1970 to 2017, the annual costs of invasives doubled every ______ years.

a)

6

b)

2

c)

10

d)

4

2.

What has helped the spread of invasive species around the globe?

a)

Agricultural expansion

b)

Increased deforestation

c)

global trade

d)

crypto currency

3.

What do invasives do in the habitats they move into?

a)

combat other pests

b)

transmit new diseases

c)

devastate crops

d)

eat crucial infrastructure

4.

It costs more exterminating an invasive species than it does to prevent it from infesting.

a)

true

b)

false

5.

Rats cause more damage than the rest of the top 9 invasive species.

a)

true

b)

false

6.

Fire ants are native to Africa and arrived in the USA through boat shipments.

a)

false

b)

true

7.

Most research is focused on tropical equatorial areas in Africa and South America.

a)

true

b)

false

8.

Agriculture pests tend overrepresent other forms of invasives in research. 

a)

true

b)

false

9.

The Aedes mosquito spreads what infectious disease(s)?

a)

zika

b)

yellow fever

c)

chikungunya

d)

dengue

10.

The Aedes mosquito spreads what infectious disease(s)?

a)

theory

b)

law

c)

testament

d)

hypothesis

11.

what is not an example of placebo

a)

water

b)

sugar pill

c)

empty capsule

d)

vitamin c

12.

If an atom has a charge, it is actually called an ...

a)

ion

b)

atom

c)

isotope

d)

allotrope

13.

The proton number gives the element’s …

a)

atomic mass

b)

atomic number

c)

ionic charge

d)

electronegativity

14.

protons are found in the

a)

nucleus

b)

cloud

c)

space

15.

Protons have a _________ charge.

a)

positive

b)

neutral

c)

negative

16.

Special molecules that help regulate all chemical reactions in a cell are …

a)

enzymes

b)

steroids

c)

covalents

17.

The element that all life is based from on this planet is …

a)

carbon

b)

oxygen

c)

hydrogen

18.

Which is NOT a form of lipid?

a)

phospholipid

b)

nucleotide

c)

steroid

d)

fat

19.

Which of the following is NOT true for bases?

a)

more H+ ions

b)

has ions

c)

example is ammonia

d)

pH > 7

20.

___ are “bad” products formed from normal cell processes.

a)

vitamin

b)

mineral

c)

free radical

d)

antioxidant

21.

__ are made of long chains of sugars.

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Fats

22.

What is the organelle NOT found in animal cells?

a)

cell wall

b)

Vacuole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Golgi Apparatus

23.

Cytoplasm is made of ____________ and organelles.

a)

plasma

b)

cytosol

c)

cell goo

d)

water

24.

Humans lose __________ Liters of water a day.

a)

3

b)

1.5

c)

5

d)

0.5

25.

___ is the movement of materials out of a cell.

a)

 

Endocytosis

b)

Pinocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Phagocytosis

26.

Antioxidants fight ____________

a)

Antibodies

b)

Free Radicals

c)

  Antigens

d)

toxins

27.

Saturated fats have as many ____________ atoms attached as possible.

a)

hydrogen

b)

carbon

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

28.

Which is NOT a reason that mammals store fat below their skin?

a)

protect vital organs

b)

insulate the body

c)

provide osmoregulation

d)

store for famine

29.

The movement of water across a cell membrane without the use of energy is called ____________

a)

active transport

b)

passive transport

c)

osmosis

d)

diffusion

30.

What is the organelle that assembles protein?

a)

ribosomes

b)

chromosomes

c)

lysosomes

d)

chlorosomes

31.

The disease caused by the lack of Vitamin C is called ____________

a)

measles

b)

scurvy

c)

rickets

d)

mumps

32.

is the condition when the female body stops menstruating because of the lack of body fat.

 

a)

Menorrhagia

b)

menopause

c)

amenorrhea

d)

menarche

33.

All enzyme names end with the suffix ____________

a)

-ose

b)

-gen

c)

-ase

d)

-ide

34.

Which is NOT a part of an ATP molecule?

a)

rubisco

b)

adenosine

c)

ribose (sugar)

35.

The average basal m

a)

1680

b)

1700

c)

1740

d)

1720

36.

What is it called when a person purges food after consumption?

a)

osteoporosis

b)

atherosclerosis

c)

bulimia

d)

anorexia

37.

Respiration is identical with reactants and products (in the same place) as

a)

combustion (burning)

b)

global warming

c)

photosynthesis

38.

Which part of cellular respiration produces the most energy (ATP)?

a)

 

citric acid cycle

b)

glycolysis

c)

Calvin cycle

d)

electron transport chain

39.

All the energy in our body comes from the movement of …

a)

electrons

b)

enzymes

c)

atoms

d)

carbon

40.

The addition of an enzyme to a reaction causes the …

a)

 

lowering of the total energy

b)

 

products to have more energy

c)

reduction of activation energy

d)

reactants to have more energy

41.

Anaerobic respiration in the body produces what product?

a)

alcohol

b)

sugar

c)

oxygen

d)

lactic acid

42.

ATP contains what three anions (charged polyatomics)?

a)

Phosphide

b)

 

Nitride

c)

Nitrite

d)

Phosphate

43.

Which is an aerobic (uses oxygen) reaction?

a)

lactic acid formation

b)

respiration

c)

fermentation

44.

Which is NOT a step in cellular respiration?

a)

calvin cycle

b)

cirtic acid cycle

c)

glycolysis

45.

__ is the most common protein on Earth.

a)

rubisco

 

b)

tryptophan

c)

  glycine

d)

  DNA

46.

What is the most efficient (and abundant) type of photosynthesis?

a)

CAM

b)

C2

c)

C4

d)

C3

47.

The “carbon cycle” tells us that …

a)

volcanoes do not add additional carbon to the atmosphere

b)

burning fossil fuels are releasing elements not previously experienced

c)

the elements on this planet have remained constant since its formation

48.

There is a documented increase of all gasses except …

a)

ozone (O3)

b)

methane (CH4)

c)

nitrous oxide (NO2)

d)

carbon dioxide (CO2)

49.

What is the total amount of energy in a substance called?

a)

osmosis

b)

temp

c)

heat

d)

cold

50.

Which is NOT a type of photosynthesis?

a)

CAM

b)

C2

c)

C3

51.

What is the most common protein on Earth?

a)

DNA

b)

glycine

c)

rubisco

52.

The presence of an extra chromosome is called …

a)

nondisjunction

b)

immortality

c)

monosomy

d)

trisomy

53.

To be considered cured from cancer, a patient must show no signs for _____ years.

a)

5

b)

20

c)

1

d)

10

54.

What are molecules produced naturally by the body (and in higher amounts in carcinogens) that remove electrons from other molecules?

a)

free radicals

b)

Carcinogens

c)

Lymph

d)

Antioxidants

55.

What is a highly magnified photograph of chromosomes aligned in pairs?

a)

blood type

b)

phenotype

c)

genotype

d)

karyotype

56.

Which is NOT a checkpoint to control cell mutation?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Growth I

c)

Prophase

d)

Growth II

57.

Which is NOT a phase of interphase?

a)

Growth I

b)

Synthesis

c)

Growth II

d)

Cytokinesis

58.

Which is NOT a treatment method for cancer?

a)

Surgery

 

b)

Radiation

c)

biopsy

d)

chemo

59.

Which of the following are NOT true for cancer?

a)

Cells can move to other locations in the body.

 

b)

Cells divide when they should not.

c)

Cells invade surrounding tissue.

d)

Cells complete their normal functions.

60.

Blood type was found accidently by

a)

transferring blood between soldiers on the battlefield

b)

observing the second baby in monkeys being born stillborn

c)

finding a male calico cat and testing his blood

d)

calculating the genetic ratios of pea plants

61.

During the construction of DNA in PCR, __________ is used to synthesize codons into chains.

a)

electrophoresis

b)

polymerase

c)

ligase

d)

rubisco

62.

In a Punnett square, the recessive allele for a trait is always found by …

a)

using the first letter, in lowercase form, of the dominant allele

b)

using the first letter, in lowercase form, of the described trait

c)

using the first letter, in capital form, of the described trait

d)

using the first letter, in lowercase form, of the recessive trait

63.

What is the universal acceptor blood type?

a)

A

b)

AB

c)

B

d)

O

64.

Which is NOT necessary for polymerase chain reaction?

a)

template

b)

primer

c)

Taq polymerase

d)

ATP

65.

Prokaryotes do not have a(n)

a)

nucleus

b)

vacuole

c)

ribosome

d)

lysosome

66.

rBGH is given to what animal?

a)

cow

b)

goat

c)

sheep

d)

mouse

67.

SCID stands for what?

a)

static cancer intrusion disease

b)

severe combined immune deficiency

c)

safe chemistry indigenous development

d)

stored cells inclusive division

68.

What does Bacillus thuringiensis do in the process of making GMOs?

a)

kills the corn borer

b)

extends the life of a plant

c)

imitates infectious agents

d)

degrades plant cell walls

69.

What does GRAS stand for?

a)

generally regarded as safe

b)

green reduced amino source

c)

gastric restricted applied symptom

d)

global recombinant agriculture substance

70.

What does the lowercase “r” mean in front of substance, as in rBGH?

a)

recombinant

b)

regular

c)

reversed

d)

resistant

71.

What is a string of three nucleotides called?

a)

polypeptide

b)

recombinant

c)

codon

d)

plasmid

72.

What is the circular DNA called in bacteria?

a)

nucleus

b)

plasmid

c)

chromatid

d)

chromatin

73.

What is the process called that changes DNA to RNA?

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

transcription

74.

What is the process called that changes DNA to DNA?

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

75.

What was the animal’s name that brought cloning to public attention?

a)

stephen

b)

dolly

c)

liz

d)

bob

76.

what is the reason for GMOS?

a)

better nutrition

b)

longer shelf life

c)

higher yield

d)

increased nutrition

77.

Which is NOT a type of RNA?

a)

messenger

b)

transfer

c)

ribosomal

d)

polymer

78.

Which is NOT an example of a codon?

a)

CAG

b)

AUG

c)

GUD

d)

CUU

79.

Darwin spent ____ year(s) building up facts, data, and proof for his book.

a)

30

b)

20

c)

25

d)

10

80.

Darwin studied all of the following organisms EXCEPT …

a)

monkey

b)

prickly pear

c)

tortoise

d)

finch

81.

darwin traveled on a ship called the HMS

a)

beagle

b)

finch

c)

dolly

d)

monkey

82.

In primates, a ____ percent change in DNA takes 5-6 million years?

a)

10

b)

1

c)

100

d)

20

83.

What are the calcified remains of living organisms called?

a)

fossils

b)

geodes

c)

stalagmites

d)

rocks

84.

What does natural selection cause?

a)

evolution

b)

confusion

c)

mutations

d)

disorders

85.

What is consilience?

a)

concurrence from observations derived from multiple sources

b)

current organs/ tissues that have no noticeable function

c)

less obvious structures that show relationships

d)

distribution of various species across Earth’s habitats

86.

What is NOT a type of support for homology in evolution?

a)

atomic

b)

molecular

c)

devlopmental

d)

physical

87.

What does vestigial mean?

a)

current organs/ tissues that have no noticeable function

b)

less obvious structures that show relationships

c)

concurrence from observations derived from multiple sources

d)

distribution of various species across Earth’s habitats

88.

Which of the following is FALSE for the binomial names for organisms?

a)

the genus name is written with the first letter as a capital

b)

 

the names are written in italics

c)

the species name is written with the first letter as a capital

d)

the names have a Latin context or meaning

89.

An example of “no perfect fit” in the common misunderstandings of natural selection is …

a)

crocodiles have a strong gripping jaw

b)

geckos can climb walls and glass

c)

chicks contain genes from rooster and hen

d)

 

flamingoes have phenotypic variations

90.

What is “consumption” when referring to disease?

a)

naturally selecting food stuffs

b)

 

cell decomposition and degradation

c)

ingesting a pathogenic organism

d)

slowly eroding body and health

91.

What was the name of Darwin’s book about evolution?

a)

evolutionary practices

b)

origin of species

c)

evolve or die

d)

scientific dogma

92.

Where was Typhoid Mary born?

a)

ireland

b)

usa

c)

england

d)

slovakia

93.

Which is NOT a reason for the increased amount of MRSA infections?

a)

extended use of antibiotics for human ailments

b)

inability to create more types of antibiotics

c)

antibiotics have been included in animal diet

d)

 

antibiotics have been given to treat viruses

94.

Canola is a new species formed from turnip and …

a)

kale

b)

canola

c)

rye

d)

leafs

95.

How long ago did our ancestors, Homo sapiens, show up in the fossil record?

a)

150,000 years ago

b)

250,000 years ago

c)

10,000 years ago

d)

1,800,000 years ago

96.

What does “assortative meeting” mean?

a)

eliminating undesirable mating partners

b)

mating with individuals like themselves

c)

choosing the best mate from a group

d)

leaving an area with inappropriate mates

97.

What does “genetic drift” mean?

a)

allele frequency change in a chromosome

b)

allele frequency change in a population

c)

mutations that occur in a chromosome

d)

mutations that occur in a population

98.

What is the same form that arises from different species lineages?

a)

contingence

b)

  divergence

c)

convergence

 

d)

submergence

99.

What is the type of pre-fertilization barrier where the species have different mating times?

a)

behavioral

b)

incompatible

c)

spatial

d)

temporal

100.

Which is/are true for lighter skinned individuals?

a)

sun can do less damage

b)

allows less vitamin d absorption

c)

more melanin in upper skin tissue

d)

uv light can make it through skin easier

101.

Which is NOT a type of population dispersion?

a)

clumped

b)

segmented

c)

random

d)

uniform

102.

Which is NOT a type of population dispersion?

a)

r

b)

n

c)

J

d)

K

103.

Which is NOT a density dependent factor for population growth?

a)

food supplies

b)

climatic change

c)

toxicity levels

d)

infectious disease

104.

What is the estimated carrying capacity of our planet?

a)

10.9 bil

b)

13.5 bil

c)

11.7 bil

d)

12.4 bil

105.

How long would it take a human population to stabilize if every couple on the planet had two children?

a)

20 years

b)

200 years

c)

60 years

d)

5 years

106.

Which of the following countries has a negative population growth?

a)

usa

b)

mexican

c)

spain

d)

germany

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