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NDI Block 6 Study

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 20hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The internal configuration of the bonded test part must be understood by the ___.

a)

sergeant

b)

operator

c)

engineers

d)

T.O.

2.

What may harm the material under evaluation?

a)

Grease pencils, chalk, or other marking device

b)

Tap hammer

c)

USN-60/EPOCH 650

d)

Grease pencils, tap hammer, or other marking device

3.

What is NOT a variable consideration?

a)

accessibility (one skin or both skin available)

b)

underlying structure- core material, thickness of core, cell size, etc.

c)

probe- side skin material and thickness

d)

adhesive type and thickness

e)

two or more objects or parts coherence

4.

What is NOT an underlying structure?

a)

foam adhesive and steps in skins

b)

core material, thickness of core

c)

cell size and thickness of cell wall

d)

far-side skin material and thickness

e)

adhesive type and thickness

5.

What is bond?

a)

Voids in foam adhesive or unbonds between the adhesive and a closure member at core-closure member joints

b)

An area within a bonded interface between two adherents in which the intended bonding action failed to take place (Type I, II, IV and strandards)

c)

Separation at an adhesive bond line in a bonded joint (Type I, II, IV)

d)

A substance or agent that causes two or more objects or parts to cohere

6.

What is disbond?

a)

Delaminations or voids between layers of a laminate

b)

An area within a bonded interface between two adherents in which the intended bonding action failed to take place (Type I, II, IV and strandards)

c)

Separation at an adhesive bond line in a bonded joint (Type I, II, IV)

d)

A substance or agent that causes two or more objects or parts to cohere

7.

What is unbond?

a)

Voids at the adhesive-to-core interface

b)

An area within a bonded interface between two adherents in which the intended bonding action failed to take place (Type I, II, IV and strandards)

c)

Separation at an adhesive bond line in a bonded joint (Type I, II, IV)

d)

A substance or agent that causes two or more objects or parts to cohere

8.

A delamination is a separation in layers of laminate (Type III)

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What is a Type I bonded defect?

a)

Voids in foam adhesive or unbonds between the adhesive and a closure member at core-closure member joints

b)

Delaminations or voids between layers of a laminate

c)

Unbonds or voids in an outer skin-to-adhesive interface

d)

Unbonds or voids at the adhesive-to-core interface

e)

Water in the core

10.

What is a Type II bonded defect?

a)

Voids in foam adhesive or unbonds between the adhesive and a closure member at core-closure member joints

b)

Delaminations or voids between layers of a laminate

c)

Unbonds or voids in an outer skin-to-adhesive interface

d)

Unbonds or voids at the adhesive-to-core interface

e)

Water in the core

11.

What is a Type III bonded defect?

a)

Voids in foam adhesive or unbonds between the adhesive and a closure member at core-closure member joints

b)

Delaminations or voids between layers of a laminate

c)

Unbonds or voids in an outer skin-to-adhesive interface

d)

Unbonds or voids at the adhesive-to-core interface

e)

Water in the core

12.

What is a Type IV bonded defect?

a)

Voids in foam adhesive or unbonds between the adhesive and a closure member at core-closure member joints

b)

Delaminations or voids between layers of a laminate

c)

Unbonds or voids in an outer skin-to-adhesive interface

d)

Unbonds or voids at the adhesive-to-core interface

e)

Water in the core

13.

What is a Type V bonded defect?

a)

Voids in foam adhesive or unbonds between the adhesive and a closure member at core-closure member joints

b)

Delaminations or voids between layers of a laminate

c)

Unbonds or voids in an outer skin-to-adhesive interface

d)

Unbonds or voids at the adhesive-to-core interface

e)

Water in the core

14.

When is visual inspection routinely performed?

a)

during in-work process and final part inspection

b)

at the start of the process and final part inspection

c)

at the final part inspection

15.

What are magnifying glass, microscopes, flashlights, and borescopes used for?

a)

visual tools to repair damage and defects

b)

ultrasonic methods to inspect defects

c)

tapping tools to listen for audible changes

d)

visual tools to inspect damage and defects

16.

What are some visual reliability degradations/limitations?

a)

human factors, surface coatings, and contaminations

b)

mechanical properties and contaminations

c)

human factors and mechanical failures

d)

confined surface defects manifested at the surface

17.

What method can be seen when surface defects and some subsurface defects are manifested at the surface?

a)

bondmaster 600

b)

tap hammer method

c)

visual

d)

radiography

18.

Which inspection method provides a simple dependable method for detecting unbonds, disbonds, or delaminations that must propagate near the surface?

a)

EPOCH 650

b)

tap hammer method

c)

visual

d)

radiography

19.

For the Tap Hammer Method, a good bond will produce a ___ ___ sound, a bad area will produce a ___ ___ noise.

a)

sharp distinct; dull /rattling

b)

dull /rattling; sharp distinct

c)

sharp distinct; sharp quiet

d)

rattling /sharp; dull loud

20.

Which method is used to locate structural members, repaired areas, core damage and may be required to determine core damage in honeycomb and detect moisture?

a)

through transmission

b)

tap hammer method

c)

visual

d)

radiography

21.

Entrapped water in honeycomb cells usually appears as a

a)

smooth, consistent, light density area

b)

grainy or porous appearance

c)

smooth and grainy

d)

porous, consistent, dark density area

22.

Which is NOT a EPOCH 650 bond testing method?

a)

Ultrasonic High Resolution

b)

Ultrasonic Ring Pattern

c)

Resonance

d)

Through Transmission

23.

Which is NOT a Bondmaster 600 bond testing method?

a)

Through Transmission

b)

Pitch/Catch Swept - Impulse

c)

Resonance

d)

Mechanical Impedance Analysis

24.

Ultrasonic Ring Pattern (1 - 10 MHz) method is used to detect which type of bonded defect?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

25.

Why is Ultrasonic Ring Pattern (1 - 10 MHz) method not able to inspect a Type II or another layer of skin/doubler?

a)

due to frequency being too high

b)

due to test part being too large inspect

c)

due to EPOCH 650 incapability

d)

due to attenuation of the signal in the adhesive

26.

Which bond test method uses screen saturation and may dampening to test for multiple echoes?

a)

Resonance

b)

Ultrasonic Ring Pattern

c)

Ultrasonic High Resolution

d)

Through Transmission

27.

Which EPOCH 650 bond test method tests for thickness measurement from .005-inch to several feet?

a)

Resonance

b)

Ultrasonic Ring Pattern

c)

Ultrasonic High Resolution

d)

Through Transmission

28.

Ultrasonic High Resolution (15 MHz) method is used to detect which type of bonded defect of graphite face sheets?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

29.

Which is true about Ultrasonic High Resolution bond test method?

a)

Has a delay line for better near surface resolution

b)

Minimum size flaw dependent on receiver search unit/transducer

c)

Has an initial pulse (IP) and back reflection (BR)

d)

Able to find exact location of flaw depth

30.

Which EPOCH 650 bond test method tests for thickness measurement from .005-inch to several feet?

a)

Resonance

b)

Ultrasonic Ring Pattern

c)

Ultrasonic High Resolution

d)

Through Transmission

31.

Through Transmission (2.25 or 5 MHz) method is applicable to structures with multiple layers with or without honeycomb and has minimum size flaw dependent on the ___ search unit/transducer?

a)

receiving

b)

transmitting

c)

defective

d)

new

32.

Using Through Transmission method, transducer misalignment will cause a bond response

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which EPOCH 650 bond test method has sound energy that travels through homogenous materials with no appreciable loss until a discontinuity is encountered?

a)

Resonance

b)

Ultrasonic Ring Pattern

c)

Ultrasonic High Resolution

d)

Through Transmission

34.

Through Transmission method is not able to indicate the depth of a flaw and needs access to both sides of the part for inspection

a)

True

b)

False

35.

How does the Through Transmission (2.25 or 5 MHz) method reflect defects?

a)

Produces an indication between the IP and BR

b)

Produces a partial or total loss of received signal (No BR)

c)

Reflected by screen saturation

d)

Produces an expanded circular type display

36.

How does the Ultrasonic High Resolution (15 MHz) method reflect defects?

a)

Produces an indication between the IP and BR

b)

Produces a partial or total loss of received signal (No BR)

c)

Reflected by screen saturation

d)

Produces an expanded circular type display

37.

Which Bondmaster 600 bond test method tests for bond line/separation and thickness measurement?

a)

Resonance

b)

Pitch/Catch Impluse

c)

Mechanical Impedance Analysis (MIA)

d)

Pitch/Catch Swept

38.

What type of frequency does Resonance use?

a)

single frequency

b)

range of frequencies

c)

low frequency

d)

continuous wave of energy frequency

39.

Which bond testing method uses the flying dot for thickness testing?

a)

Resonance

b)

Pitch/Catch Impluse

c)

Mechanical Impedance Analysis (MIA)

d)

Pitch/Catch Swept

40.

Which bond test method use dual tip, single frequency?

a)

Resonance

b)

Mechanical Impedance Analysis (MIA)

c)

Pitch/Catch Impulse

d)

Pitch/Catch Swept

41.

Which bond test method use dual tip, dual element?

a)

Resonance

b)

Mechanical Impedance Analysis (MIA)

c)

Pitch/Catch Impulse

d)

Pitch/Catch Swept

42.

Pitch/Catch Impulse (2.5 to 70 kHz) method is used to detect which type of bonded defect?

a)

Type I and III

b)

Type II, III, V

c)

Type III, IV

d)

Type I, II, III, IV

43.

When using Pitch/Catch Impulse (2.5 - 70 kHz), the minimum dimension of a detectable flaw is the ___ of the probe tip spacing

a)

5 inches

b)

test area

c)

height

d)

width

44.

What type of frequency does Pitch/Catch Swept use?

a)

single frequency

b)

range of frequencies

c)

low frequency

d)

continuous wave of energy frequency

45.

Which bond test method reflects both phase and amplitude simultaneously displayed as a form of circular patterns on one x-y screen?

a)

Resonance

b)

Mechanical Impedance Analysis (MIA)

c)

Pitch/Catch Impulse

d)

Pitch/Catch Swept

46.

Which bond test method use a single tip, dual element?

a)

Resonance

b)

Mechanical Impedance Analysis (MIA)

c)

Pitch/Catch Impulse

d)

Pitch/Catch Swept

47.

Mechanical Impedance Analysis (MIA) stiffness and mass of the material are measured by the ___ sensor, and displayed in terms of both phase and amplitude values?

a)

receiving

b)

transmitting

c)

dual

d)

refined

48.

Mechanical Impedance Analysis (MIA) has a small contact area so it can be used on stiff irregular or curved surfaces

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Mechanical Impedance Analysis (MIA) would work well with flexible composites

a)

True

b)

False

50.

What are most suitable for detecting damage associated with honeycomb core when using Mechanical Impedance Analysis (MIA)?

a)

skin-to-core disbonds

b)

severely corroded aluminum core

c)

buckled/crushed core

d)

All of the above

51.

What is the purpose of inspections from inspector to inspector?

a)

ensure hazards

b)

ensure consistency

c)

ensure errors

d)

ensure refence standard calibrations

52.

Why are bonded/composite standards important when inspecting test parts?

a)

sets sensitivity levels

b)

ensure repeatability

c)

check equipment performance

d)

all of the above

53.

How many minute intervals should all inspections rescan the calibration standard to ensure instrument remains within calibration limits?

a)

5-minute intervals

b)

10-minute intervals

c)

20-minute intervals

d)

40-minute intervals

54.

As an option, what type of specimen should be used to represent the respective different areas of the test part?

a)

bicycle test specimen

b)

abstract test specimen

c)

irregular test specimen

d)

simple test specimen

55.

If using a simple test specimen as a reference standard, it must be bonded using the adhesive and cure cycle prescribed for the test part

a)

True

b)

False

56.

When using a simple test specimen as a reference standard, it must be ___ to the test part with respect to material, geometry, and thickness and equal to the size of the ___ rejectable unbonds.

a)

similar; minimum

b)

identical; same

c)

opposite; greater

d)

same; same

57.

Producing unbonds by use of grease, vinyl's and other foreign materials not covered in the T.O. 33B-1-1 is

a)

lawful

b)

prohibited

c)

acceptable

d)

unprohibited

58.

Where are bonded structures found?

a)

Thermal insulations, rocket nozzles (tactical and launch vehicles), and heat shields

b)

Aircraft primary and secondary flight control surfaces and aircraft interiors

c)

Wheels and tires of the landing gear

d)

RF/microwave insulations, reflectors and signature control surfaces

59.

What is a structure consisting of two skin facings separated by a lightweight core material

a)

Thermoplastics

b)

Laminated Structure

c)

Matrix

d)

Sandwich Structure

60.

Which structure has the highest strength-to-weight and rigidity-to-weight ratios and creates honeycomb cores (most common design)?

a)

Aramid Structure

b)

Laminated Structure

c)

Advanced Composites

d)

Sandwich Structure

61.

What are some Sandwich Structure core materials?

a)

foam

b)

natural (balsa)

c)

glass

d)

plastic

e)

aluminum

62.

Sandwich structures thickness density and orientation can be tailored through proper selection of skin and core materials due to its

a)

permeability

b)

flexibility and versatility

c)

stiffness and inflexibility

d)

moisture absorption

63.

Which structure may be in the form of sheet or bar, composed of two or more metal layers bonded together using heat, adhesive and pressure?

a)

Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastics (CFRP)

b)

Laminated Structure

c)

Advanced Composites

d)

Sandwich Structure

64.

What are some types of laminated structures?

a)

metal-to-metal

b)

fiber-reinforced plastics-to-metal

c)

carbon reinforced plastic

d)

laminate-to-laminate structures

e)

All of the above

65.

What is an advanced composite material made of fibrous material embedded in a matrix (adhesive/glue), generally laminated with fibers to give strength and stiffness?

a)

Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastics (CFRP)

b)

Laminated Structure

c)

Advanced Composites

d)

Sandwich Structure

66.

What is Matrix?

a)

The adhesive (glue) that bonds the fibers to each other and gives side-to-side support, and maintains their position

b)

Sheet or bar composed of two or more metal layers bonded together using heat, adhesive and pressure

c)

Honeycomb structures used for aircraft parts

d)

When a beautiful stranger leads computer hacker Neo to a forbidding underworld, he discovers a shocking truth

67.

What is Thermosetting Resins?

a)

Take an origami shape when cured

b)

Take a permanent set or shape when cured

c)

Can be reshaped or reformed after the part has been processed or consolidated

d)

Can be arched and resume original shape

68.

What is Thermoplastics?

a)

Adhesive glue that bonds fibers to each other

b)

Take a permanent set or shape when cured

c)

Can be reshaped or reformed after the part has been processed or consolidated

d)

Sheet or bar composed of two or more metal layers bonded together

69.

What are the principle load-carrying materials in a composite?

a)

Boron

b)

Graphite

c)

Aramid

d)

Aluminum

70.

Which fiber material has a high tensile and compression strength and lack of galvanic corrosion (making it popular for repairs to cracked metallic structures)?

a)

Boron

b)

Graphite (Carbon)

c)

Aramid (Kevlar)

d)

All of the above

71.

What are the disadvantages of Boron?

a)

moisture absoprtion

b)

too stiff

c)

high cost

d)

difficult to form into odd and curved shapes

72.

Which fiber material has become the material of choice and has strength-to-weight ratios and impact resistance, offering greater design flexibility and better resistance to chemicals and corrosion?

a)

Boron

b)

Graphite (Carbon)

c)

Aramid (Kevlar)

d)

All of the above

73.

Which fiber material have a high potential for causing galvanic corrosion when used with metallic fasteners and structures?

a)

Boron

b)

Graphite (Carbon)

c)

Aramid (Kevlar)

d)

All of the above

74.

Which fiber material has low compression strength and difficult to cut because of fuzzing?

a)

Boron

b)

Graphite (Carbon)

c)

Aramid (Kevlar)

d)

Steel

75.

Which fiber material has exceptional tensile strength and vibration dampening capabilities and outstanding toughness (often used for ballistic body armor)?

a)

Boron

b)

Graphite (Carbon)

c)

Aramid (Kevlar)

d)

Balsa

76.

Which fiber material is known for moisture absorption which will break down the matrix?

a)

Boron

b)

Graphite (Carbon)

c)

Aramid (Kevlar)

d)

Nomex Paper

77.

All fibrous materials has strength ___ to the fiber direction and lack of strength ___ to the fiber direction.

a)

perpendicular; parallel

b)

parallel; parallel

c)

perpendicular; perpendicular

d)

parallel; perpendicular

78.

Matrix type, fiber type, ply orientation, and processing methods are all part of which property of composites?

a)

Moving Properties

b)

Mechanical Properties

c)

Material Properties

d)

Standing Properties

79.

Strength-to-density ratio exceeding aluminum and steel, and fatigue advantage over metals are all part of which property of composites?

a)

Moving Properties

b)

Mechanical Properties

c)

Material Properties

d)

Active Properties

80.

What are advantages of composites?

a)

lightweight

b)

fatigue resistant

c)

free-form and tailored design characteristics

d)

special handing required

e)

outstanding strength/weight and stiffness/weight ratio

81.

What are disadvantages of composites?

a)

moisture absorption

b)

more prone to low velocity impact damage

c)

free-form and tailored design characteristics

d)

expensive and special handing required

e)

repair procedures are lengthy and complex