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Buck and Boost Converters Quiz

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A buck converter is used to…

a)

Step up DC voltage

b)

Step down DC voltage

c)

Convert AC to DC

d)

Provide isolation

2.

In a buck converter, the output voltage is always…

a)

Greater than input voltage

b)

Equal to input voltage

c)

Less than input voltage

d)

Zero

3.

The output voltage of an ideal buck converter is given by:

a)

Vo=D× Vin

b)

Vo=Vin D

c)

Vo=D2×Vin

d)

Vo=D×Vin

4.

The duty cycle (D) of a buck converter lies between…

a)

0 and 2

b)

0 and 1

c)

–1 and +1

d)

1 and 10

5.

Which component stores energy when the switch is ON?

a)

Output capacitor

b)

Free wheeling diode

c)

Inductor

d)

Load resistor

6.

When the switch of a buck converter is OFF, the inductor current flows through…

a)

Switch

b)

Capacitor only

c)

Diode

d)

Source

7.

Buck converter operation is based on…

a)

Voltage boosting

b)

Energy transfer through inductor

c)

Transformer action

d)

Zener effect

8.

The ripple in the output voltage of a buck converter is reduced by…

a)

Inductor

b)

Diode

c)

Switch

d)

Capacitor

9.

A buck converter is widely used in:

a)

LED drivers

b)

SMPS

c)

Voltage regulators in microcontrollers

d)

All of the above

10.

A boost converter is used to…

a)

Step down DC voltage

b)

Step up DC voltage

c)

Convert AC to DC

d)

Regulate AC voltage

11.

In an ideal boost converter, the output voltage is given by:

a)

Vo=D×Vin

b)

Vo=Vin/(1−D)

c)

Vo=D2×Vin

d)

Vo=(1−D)×Vin

12.

In a boost converter, the output voltage is always…

a)

Less than input voltage

b)

Equal to input voltage

c)

Greater than input voltage

d)

Zero

13.

The role of the diode in a boost converter is to…

a)

Charge the inductor

b)

Prevent reverse current

c)

Reduce ripple

d)

Provide switching

14.

The output voltage ripple in a boost converter is minimized by…

a)

Diode

b)

Inductor

c)

Capacitor

d)

Switch

15.

Boost converters are commonly used in…

a)

LED drivers

b)

Battery-powered devices

c)

Renewable energy systems (solar PV)

d)

All of the above

16.

A buck–boost converter can provide an output voltage that is…

a)

Only greater than input

b)

Only less than input

c)

Either greater or less than input

d)

Always equal to input

17.

The output voltage of an ideal buck–boost converter is:

a)

Vo=D×Vin

b)

Vo=Vin/(1−D)

c)

Vo=−D/(1−D)Vin

d)

Vo=D×Vin

18.

A buck–boost converter is also known as…

a)

Step-up only converter

b)

Step-down only converter

c)

Inverting DC–DC converter

d)

Non-isolated flyback converter

19.

Buck–boost converters are used in…

a)

Battery charging

b)

SMPS

c)

Solar power systems

d)

All of the above

20.

The main disadvantage of a buck–boost converter is…

a)

Complex control

b)

High output ripple

c)

Polarity inversion

d)

Low efficiency

21.

If D = 0.5 in an ideal buck–boost converter, the gain is

a)

−0.5

b)

−1

c)

−2

d)

+1

22.

The output voltage magnitude increases when

a)

Input voltage decreases

b)

Duty cycle increases

c)

Switching frequency decreases

d)

Inductor value decreases

23.

The main function of an inverter is to convert

a)

AC to DC

b)

DC to AC

c)

AC to AC

d)

DC to DC

24.

The output of a single-phase inverter is usually

a)

Pure DC

b)

Pure sinusoidal AC

c)

Square wave or PWM AC

d)

Pulsating DC

25.

A half-bridge inverter requires

a)

1 switch

b)

2 switches

c)

4 switches

d)

6 switches

26.

A full-bridge (H-bridge) inverter uses

a)

2 switches

b)

3 switches

c)

4 switches

d)

6 switches

27.

In an inverter, the switching devices commonly used are

a)

Diodes

b)

SCRs

c)

MOSFETs/IGBTs

d)

BJTs

28.

A basic square-wave inverter output contains

a)

Only fundamental

b)

Only DC

c)

Fundamental + harmonics

d)

No harmonics

29.

PWM inverters are used to

a)

Increase cost

b)

Increase harmonics

c)

Reduce harmonics

d)

Increase DC voltage

30.

The frequency of an inverter output is controlled by

a)

Duty cycle

b)

Switching frequency

c)

Input DC voltage

d)

Load resistance

31.

In a single-phase full-bridge inverter, switches operate

a)

All at once

b)

In complementary pairs

c)

Randomly

d)

Without dead time

32.

Harmonics in inverters are reduced by

a)

Low switching frequency

b)

High switching frequency

c)

Load resistance

d)

Input filters

33.

A single-phase inverter typically produces

a)

90° phase shift

b)

120° phase shift

c)

180° phase shift

d)

0° shift

34.

A 3-phase inverter uses **

a)

2 switches

b)

4 switches

c)

6 switches

d)

8 switches

35.

In a 3-phase full-bridge inverter, line voltage waveform is generally

a)

DC

b)

Square

c)

Quasi-square

d)

PWM

36.

Inverters used in UPS systems provide

a)

Pulsating AC

b)

Pure sine wave

c)

Triangular wave

d)

Square wave always

37.

The voltage control in an inverter can be achieved by

a)

PWM techniques

b)

Increasing DC input voltage

c)

Both a and b

d)

None

38.

In high-power inverters, the most widely used device is

a)

MOSFET

b)

IGBT

c)

Diode

d)

BJT

39.

Inverters are used in

a)

Solar PV systems

b)

UPS

c)

Motor drives

d)

All of the above

40.

A cycloconverter converts

4 lines
41.

dely used device is

a)

MOSFET

b)

IGBT

c)

Diode

d)

BJT

42.

Inverters are used in

a)

Solar PV systems

b)

UPS

c)

Motor drives

d)

All of the above

43.

A cycloconverter converts

a)

DC to AC

b)

AC to DC

c)

AC of one frequency to AC of another frequency

d)

DC to DC

44.

Cyclo converters are also known as

a)

AC regulators

b)

Step-up transformers

c)

Frequency changers

d)

Rectifiers

45.

Cyclo converters are mainly used for

a)

High-frequency applications

b)

High-power, low-speed AC drives

c)

DC motor drives

d)

Lighting loads

46.

A step-down cycloconverter produces output frequency

a)

Higher than input

b)

Lower than input

c)

Equal to input

d)

Zero

47.

A step-up cyclo converter produces output frequency

a)

Greater than input

b)

Less than input

c)

Equal to input

d)

Zero

48.

A single-phase to single-phase cycloconverter uses

a)

2 thyristors

b)

4 thyristors

c)

6 thyristors

d)

8 thyristors

49.

A three-phase to single-phase cycloconverter requires

a)

2 thyristors

b)

4 thyristors

c)

6 thyristors

d)

6 or more thyristors

50.

Cycloconverters use which device mainly?

a)

MOSFET

b)

IGBT

c)

BJT

d)

SCR (Thyristor)

51.

Cycloconverters are used in

a)

Cement mills

b)

Rolling mills

c)

Ship propulsion

d)

All of the above

52.

In cycloconverter operation, positive and negative converters are

a)

Operated together

b)

Operated alternately

c)

Not required

d)

Operated randomly

53.

The cycloconverter output voltage depends on

a)

Firing angle of SCRs

b)

Load only

c)

Transformer

d)

Input DC voltage

54.

Converter I in a dual converter usually operates in

a)

Rectification mode

b)

Inversion mode

c)

Both

d)

None

55.

Converter II in a dual converter usually operates in

a)

Rectification mode

b)

Inversion mode

c)

Both

d)

None

56.

Dual converter is also known as

a)

Bidirectional converter

b)

Buck converter

c)

Boost converter

d)

Cycloconverter

57.

In dual converter, if Converter I firing angle is α, Converter II firing angle is

a)

α

b)

α/2

c)

(180° – α)

d)

(360° – α)

58.

Dual converters are used in

a)

Traction control

b)

Steel rolling mills

c)

Paper mills

d)

All of the above

59.

A linear power supply typically uses which component to step down AC voltage?

a)

MOSFET

b)

Transformer

c)

Inductor

d)

Capacitor

60.

The function of a rectifier in a linear power supply is to:

a)

Boost the voltage

b)

Convert AC to DC

c)

Regulate DC output

d)

Filter the noise

61.

Which device is commonly used for voltage regulation in linear power supplies?

a)

SCR

b)

IGBT

c)

Zener diode / Linear regulator (7805 etc.)

d)

TRIAC

62.

The output ripple in a linear power supply is mainly reduced by:

a)

MOSFET

b)

Capacitor filter

c)

Inductor coil

d)

Heat sink

63.

SMPS stands for:

a)

Switched Mode Phase Supply

b)

Switch Mode Power Supply

c)

Simple Mode Power System

d)

Static Mode Power Source

64.

The switching device commonly used in SMPS is:

a)

BJT

b)

TRIAC

c)

MOSFET

d)

Zener diode

65.

A sudden increase in voltage lasting less than one cycle is called:

a)

Spike

b)

Sag

c)

Swell

d)

Interruption

66.

Harmonics in a power system are mainly caused by:

a)

Induction motors

b)

Linear loads

c)

Non-linear loads

d)

Transformers

67.

A UPS system primarily protects against:

a)

Harmonics

b)

Power interruptions

c)

Voltage fluctuations only

d)

Earth faults

68.

Which device is used to eliminate voltage spikes?

a)

Stabilizer

b)

MOV (Metal Oxide Varistor)

c)

Transformer

d)

Filter capacitor

69.

Power line conditioners are used to:

a)

Increase power consumption

b)

Reduce power factor

c)

Improve power quality

d)

Increase frequency

70.

A blackout is a:

a)

Temporary voltage dip

b)

Complete loss of power

c)

Increase in frequency

d)

Harmonic disturbance

71.

Which device maintains constant output voltage despite input fluctuations?

a)

AVR (Automatic Voltage Regulator)

b)

SMPS

c)

MOV

d)

Capacitor filter

72.

. Noise in power lines is measured in:

a)

Watts

b)

Hertz

c)

Decibels

d)

Microfarads

73.

. A brownout refers to:

a)

Complete loss of electricity

b)

Prolonged low-voltage condition

c)

Very high frequency disturbance

d)

Short circuit

74.

A DC motor drive primarily controls:

a)

Power factor

b)

Speed and torque

c)

Frequency

d)

Phase angle

75.

Which braking method returns power to the supply?

a)

Plugging

b)

Dynamic braking

c)

Regenerative braking

d)

Mechanical braking

76.

The most commonly used AC motor in variable-speed drives is:

a)

Synchronous motor

b)

Induction motor

c)

Universal motor

d)

Reluctance motor

77.

V/f control method is used in:

a)

DC motor drives

b)

Induction motor drives

c)

Servo motor drives

d)

Stepper motor drives

78.

In a V/f control drive, keeping V/f constant maintains:

a)

Starting torque

b)

Flux

c)

Speed

d)

Frequency

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