WorksheetsScience 1.2
Total questions: 101
Worksheet time: 51mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Why do ionic lattice networks form?
a)
Most ionic substances exist as solids at room temperature, decreasing distance between ions, allowing them to form a lattice.
b)
Larger anions alternate with smaller cations, reducing distance and increasing attraction strength.
c)
Ions have a sea of electrons which attract more cations, creating a lattice network.
d)
Ions create charges that extend in all directions, attracting multiple neighboring ions.
e)
Atoms can share electrons with multiple other atoms.
2.
Which of the following substances exists as a covalent network solid?
a)
caffeine
b)
brass
c)
methane
d)
table salt
e)
diamond
3.
To how many other atoms is each carbon atom in diamond joined?
a)
1.0
b)
2.0
c)
4.0
d)
3.0
e)
5.0
4.
Why can metals be bent, hammered into sheets, or pulled into wires?
a)
Metals exhibit translational motion, so constituent atoms can move rather freely.
b)
Metallic bonds have layers of atoms that can slide over each other easily.
c)
Metals have weak intermolecular forces, so the molecules are easier to separate.
d)
Metals experience a clustering effect, so they can flex without breaking.
e)
Metallic bonds require less energy than other intramolecular forces to change physically.
5.
Which type of motion MOST determines a substance's state of matter?
a)
translational motion
b)
vibrational motion
c)
rotational motion
d)
oscillational motion
e)
transformational motion
6.
Which change MUST take place for a solid to melt?
a)
broken intramolecular bonds
b)
increased electronegativity
c)
added energy
d)
decreased velocity
e)
reduced dipoles
7.
A substance's temperature is a measure of its
a)
molecular acceleration
b)
molecular motion
c)
current
d)
potential energy
e)
wavelength
8.
Which of the following substances is MOST likely to be a liquid at room temperature?
a)
NaCl
b)
SiO2
c)
CH4
d)
H2O
e)
CO2
9.
If a compound has only dispersion forces,
a)
its electron clouds are not polarizable
b)
it exists in a network structure
c)
it never has induced dipoles
d)
it has no permanent dipoles
e)
it has a high bond energy
10.
When a substances changes from a solid directly to a gas, it has
a)
recombined
b)
deposited
c)
evaporated
d)
condensed
e)
sublimated
11.
Which of the following statements about water's bonding is FALSE?
a)
Its O-H bonds are strong covalent bonds.
b)
Each water molecule can form up to four hydrogen bonds.
c)
It has 2 O-H bonds per molecule.
d)
Hydrogen bonds cause adjacent water molecules to adjoin.
e)
Hydrogen bonds constitute its intramolecular bonds. SCIENCEFOCUSED QUIZ 10MOLECULAR MODELS - VALENCE BOND CONCEPT, PP. 22-23
12.
Why are some incorrect scientific models retained?
a)
There is not enough evidence to offer strong alternative hypotheses.
b)
They are too prominent to cease using them.
c)
Not all scientists agree on the models' inaccuracy.
d)
They may still be useful in making predictions.
e)
They are less time consuming to create.
13.
In which institution did Gilbert Lewis work?
a)
the University of Chicago
b)
the University of Pennsylvania
c)
the University of California
d)
the University of Michigan
e)
the University of Wisconsin
14.
How do modern understandings of chemistry conflict with Gilbert Lewis's model of compounds?
a)
Scientists today know that electrons have negative charges.
b)
Scientists today do not visualize electrons as dots.
c)
Scientists today reject the idea that electrons exist in discrete locations.
d)
Scientist today disagree that electrons are uniformly spread out.
e)
Scientists today dispute the presumption that electrons are stationary.
15.
Valence electrons are the
a)
additional transferred electrons in an anion
b)
electrons that always form bonds
c)
electrons that have the potential to form bonds
d)
innermost electrons in an atom
e)
electrons that never form bonds
16.
How many chlorine atoms bond with a carbon atom in one molecule of carbon tetrachloride?
a)
3.0
b)
1.0
c)
4.0
d)
5.0
e)
2.0
17.
In Lewis structures, a dash represents a(n)
a)
neutron
b)
nucleus
c)
orbital
d)
proton
e)
bond
18.
Which of the following statements regarding bonding electrons is TRUE?
a)
There are usually fewer electrons involved in bonding than there are in the whole atom.
b)
The number of bonding electrons in an atom is equivalent to the number of neutrons.
c)
The ratio of bonding electrons to total electrons varies with ionization energy.
d)
There are usually equally many electrons involved in bonding than there are in the whole atom.
e)
There are usually more electrons involved in bonding than there are in the whole atom.
19.
Electron orbitals represent maps of
a)
electron quantity
b)
electron quality
c)
electron conductivity
d)
electron density
e)
electron velocity
20.
Which of the following forces occurs when two orbitals overlap?
a)
a covalent bond
b)
an ionic bond
c)
a double covalent bond
d)
a dispersion force
e)
an on-dipole force
21.
Electron pairs that are NOT involved in bonding are known as
a)
lone pairs
b)
shared pairs
c)
valance pairs
d)
antibonding pairs
e)
inert pairs
22.
How many electrons are transferred during the bonding of NaCl?
a)
1.0
b)
7.0
c)
5.0
d)
2.0
e)
6.0
23.
How many outer shell electrons does one chlorine atom have?
a)
7.0
b)
8.0
c)
2.0
d)
4.0
e)
1.0
24.
The original Lewis structure model did NOT consider the existence of
a)
multiple bonds
b)
orbitals
c)
nonbonding pairs
d)
octets
e)
oxidation states
25.
How many electrons compose the bonds in CO2?
a)
4.0
b)
16.0
c)
6.0
d)
2.0
e)
8.0
26.
Each molecule of nitrogen contains
a)
one double bond
b)
two single bonds
c)
one triple bond
d)
one single bond
e)
three single bonds FOCUSED QUIZ 11 SCIENCE HYBRIDIZATION OF ATOMIC ORBITALS - FORMATION OF MOLECULAR ORBITALS, PP. 23-25
27.
Chemists developed the concept of hybridization when the interaction of atomic orbitals did not always predict the correct molecular
a)
resonance
b)
shape
c)
energy
d)
spectra
e)
radius
28.
In the context of atomic orbitals, hybridization means that two or more
a)
metals combine to form a unique metal with desirable qualities
b)
electron orbitals combine to form new orbitals with a different shape
c)
molecules form a different and unique compound
d)
subatomic particles combine to form a new subatomic particle with different properties
e)
electron pairs combine to form double or triple bonds
29.
One s and three p orbitals combine to form
a)
four s3p orbitals
b)
three sp4 orbitals
c)
one sp3 orbital
d)
four s3p3 orbitals
e)
four sp3 orbitals
30.
The positions of bonding electrons in bonds are modeled as
a)
seas
b)
ellipses
c)
waves
d)
lines
e)
ripples
31.
The formation of two sp orbitals results from the combination of
a)
2 s orbitals and 1 p orbital
b)
1 s orbital and 1 2p orbital
c)
2 s orbitals and 2 p orbitals
d)
1 s orbital and 1 p orbital
e)
1 s orbital and 2 p orbitals
32.
In chemistry, MO stands for
a)
multiple orbitals
b)
model orbitals
c)
mapped orbitals
d)
molecular orbitals
e)
mixed orbitals
33.
How do sigma and pi bonds differ?
a)
In a sigma bond, electrons are concentrated along an imaginary axis in the x-direction, whereas in pi bonds, electrons are concentrated along an imaginary axis in the y-direction.
b)
In a sigma bond, electrons are concentrated along an imaginary axis connecting the atoms, whereas in pi bonds, electrons are concentrated between the atoms but away from the center line.
c)
In a sigma bond, electrons are concentrated along an imaginary axis in the x-direction, whereas in pi bonds, electrons are concentrated along an imaginary axis in both the x and y-directions.
d)
In a sigma bond, electrons are concentrated along an imaginary axis in the y-direction, whereas in pi bonds, electrons are concentrated along an imaginary axis in the x-direction.
e)
In a sigma bond, electrons are concentrated between the atoms but away from the center line, whereas in pi bonds, electrons are concentrated along an imaginary axis connecting the atoms.
34.
A sigma bond forms from
a)
1 s orbital and 1 p orbital
b)
2 2p orbitals
c)
2 s orbitals and 1 p orbital
d)
1 s orbital and 2 p orbitals
e)
2 s orbitals
35.
In a pi bond, how must the atomic orbitals align?
a)
in the y-coordinate direction
b)
in the direction of the line y = -x
c)
in the x-coordinate direction
d)
in the direction of the line y = x
e)
in the z-coordinate direction
36.
How many valence electrons does one molecule of F2 have?
a)
10.0
b)
16.0
c)
14.0
d)
8.0
e)
12.0
37.
O2 forms
a)
one sigma bond
b)
one pi bond and two sigma bonds
c)
one pi bond
d)
one sigma bond and two pi bonds
e)
one sigma bond and one pi bond
38.
How many electrons are shared in 1 molecule of N2?
a)
4.0
b)
6.0
c)
2.0
d)
1.0
e)
3.0
39.
In addition to non-bonding and bonding, orbitals can be
a)
trans-bonding
b)
un-bonding
c)
anti-bonding
d)
semi-bonding
e)
reverse-bonding
40.
How many electron pairs exist between the carbon atom and 1 oxygen atom in CO2?
a)
8.0
b)
1.0
c)
2.0
d)
3.0
e)
4.0
41.
How many total valence electrons does 1 molecule of CO2 have?
a)
14.0
b)
16.0
c)
10.0
d)
12.0
e)
8 SCIENCEFOCUSED QUIZ 12OXIDATION STATES – VSEPR MODEL, PP. 25-26
42.
Oxidation states are values that signify a change in
a)
electron affinities
b)
ionization energies
c)
electronegativities
d)
electrons
e)
ionic potentials
43.
If an atom has 3 electrons and loses 1, its oxidation state is
a)
=+1
b)
-1.0
c)
=+4
d)
=+2
e)
-2.0
44.
The oxidation number of an oxygen atom in H2O is
a)
-2.0
b)
-1.0
c)
=+1
d)
=+2
e)
-3.0
45.
If the total oxidation state for all atoms in a molecule sums to zero, the molecule MUST be
a)
charged
b)
hybridized
c)
resonant
d)
neutral
e)
linear
46.
The oxidation number of N in NH4+ is
a)
=+4
b)
-4.0
c)
=+3
d)
-3.0
e)
=+1
47.
Each H in NH4+ has an oxidation number of
a)
-4.0
b)
-1.0
c)
-3.0
d)
=+1
e)
=+4
48.
If in PO43-, each O atom has an oxidation number of -2, the oxidation number of P must be
a)
=+4
b)
-3.0
c)
=+8
d)
=+5
e)
-5.0
49.
What is the oxidation number of S in H2S if hydrogen's oxidation number is +1?
a)
=+1
b)
-1.0
c)
-3.0
d)
=+2
e)
-2.0
50.
The VSEPR model aims to predict
a)
orbital hybridization
b)
electron geometry
c)
molecular geometry
d)
oxidation number
e)
atomic radius
51.
The VSEPR model depends upon
a)
inert-pair effects
b)
electron pair repulsion
c)
relative atom size
d)
resonance structure
e)
lone pair location
52.
The MAIN difference between the VSEPR model and Lewis structures is that the VSEPR model
a)
represents molecules in two dimensions rather than three
b)
considers only lone pairs and not bonding electrons
c)
considers lone pairs in addition to bonding electrons
d)
represents molecules in three dimensions rather than two
e)
considers only bonding electrons and not lone pairs
53.
Which of the following molecules has tetrahedral geometry?
a)
BF3
b)
PF5
c)
ClF4-
d)
SF6
e)
CH4
54.
Which of the following molecules has linear geometry?
a)
H2O
b)
SF6
c)
BF3
d)
BeF2
e)
PF5
55.
How many nonbonding electrons does BF3 have?
a)
12.0
b)
24.0
c)
16.0
d)
6.0
e)
18.0
56.
How many total electrons comprise the bonds of SF6?
a)
18.0
b)
10.0
c)
36.0
d)
30.0
e)
12 FOCUSED QUIZ 13 SCIENCE RESONANCE CONCEPT MODEL - PROPERTIES AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE, PP. 26-27
57.
The resonance model was introduced due to experimental findings that bond properties were equal even in the presence of
a)
delocalized electrons
b)
multiple bond types
c)
irregular molecular geometry
d)
insufficient valence electrons
e)
London dispersion forces
58.
How many oxygen atoms make up one ozone molecule?
a)
5.0
b)
3.0
c)
6.0
d)
4.0
e)
2.0
59.
How many valence electrons does one molecule of ozone have?
a)
14.0
b)
18.0
c)
16.0
d)
10.0
e)
12.0
60.
How many resonance structures does ozone have?
a)
3.0
b)
1.0
c)
5.0
d)
2.0
e)
4.0
61.
The term "resonance" came from the idea that
a)
ionic compounds can form lattices
b)
orbitals combine to form new hybrid orbitals
c)
electrons can delocalize
d)
compounds can have multiple isomers
e)
a molecule oscillates between two models
62.
The bond total between an atom on sulfur and an atom of oxygen in SO3 is
a)
1 1/2
b)
2.0
c)
1 1/3
d)
1 1/4
e)
3.0
63.
Why was the resonance model replaced?
a)
It does not explain the presence of nonbonding electrons.
b)
It does not explain all the known types of molecular geometries.
c)
It does not explain molecules with non-integer bond values.
d)
It does not explain sigma and pi bond formation and "delocalized" orbitals.
e)
It does not explain equal bond properties in cases of incomplete octets.
64.
How many bonds does each side of an ozone molecule contain?
a)
2.0
b)
1 1/2
c)
1 1/4
d)
1 1/3
e)
1.0
65.
How many nonbonding valence electrons are in one molecule of SO3?
a)
12.0
b)
18.0
c)
16.0
d)
14.0
e)
10.0
66.
Which theory has replaced the resonance model?
a)
Lewis theory
b)
molecular orbital theory
c)
spin-coupled theory
d)
VSEPR theory
e)
valence bond theory
67.
A molecule whose bond dipoles do not cancel will MOST likely have
a)
hybridized orbitals
b)
multiple resonance structures
c)
a significant dipole moment
d)
irregular geometry
e)
symmetry
68.
Which type of geometry do methane molecules have?
a)
trigonal planer
b)
linear
c)
square planar
d)
tetrahedral
e)
trigonal pyramidal
69.
The bond angle in a molecule of methane is MOST nearly
a)
90°
b)
107°
c)
105°
d)
109.5°
e)
120°
70.
The structure of a CO2 molecule is
a)
tetrahedral
b)
bent
c)
linear
d)
t-shaped
e)
trigonal planar
71.
Which molecule will have the LOWEST melting and boiling points?
a)
HF, a polar covalent molecule
b)
CCl4, a nonpolar covalent molecule
c)
N2, a diatomic molecule
d)
Cu, a metal
e)
NaCl, an ionic compound FOCUSED QUIZ 14 SCIENCE NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY – FISSION AND FUSION REACTIONS, PP. 28-29
72.
Which of the following equations BEST represents an atom's mass number?
a)
A=N/Z
b)
A=AZ+AN
c)
A = f1M1 + f2M2 + … + fnMn
d)
A = Z x N
e)
A=Z+N
73.
Which of the following changes occurs during alpha decay?
a)
A beta minus particle is emitted.
b)
A hydrogen nucleus is lost.
c)
A proton transforms into a neutron.
d)
A helium nucleus is lost.
e)
A neutron transforms into a proton.
74.
An electron may also be known as a(n)
a)
beta minus particle
b)
positron
c)
beta plus particle
d)
antineutrino
e)
alpha particle
75.
Radioactive decay occurs due to unstable
a)
nuclides
b)
neutrons
c)
antineutron
d)
neutrinos
e)
nuclei
76.
Alpha decay is MOST likely to occur if a nucleus is larger than
a)
radium
b)
mercury
c)
xenon
d)
bismuth
e)
ruthenium
77.
How does a neutrino differ from an electron?
a)
Neutrinos have positive charge and larger mass.
b)
Neutrinos have negative charge and larger mass.
c)
Neutrinos have no charge and very small mass.
d)
Neutrinos have positive charge and very small mass.
e)
Neutrinos have no charge and larger mass.
78.
Plutonium-240 undergoes alpha decay to form
a)
U-235
b)
U-236
c)
Ba-141
d)
Th-234
e)
Pu-239
79.
In beta decay, if there are too few neutrons,
a)
electrons are emitted
b)
neutrons are attracted
c)
neutrinos are emitted
d)
positrons are emitted
e)
protons are attracted
80.
22Na undergoes beta decay to form
a)
22Ne
b)
14C
c)
21F
d)
14N
e)
10C
81.
The symbol ν represents a(n)
a)
antineutrino
b)
beta particle
c)
neutrino
d)
positron
e)
alpha particle
82.
During beta-plus decay, carbon-10 forms
a)
fluorine-10
b)
oxygen-10
c)
beryllium-10
d)
nitrogen-10
e)
boron-10
83.
Who showed that the bombardment of nitrogen atoms with alpha particles created oxygen atoms?
a)
Henry Cavendish
b)
Antoine Lavoisier
c)
Ernest Rutherford
d)
Linus Pauling
e)
John Dalton
84.
During the fission of uranium, it is hit by a free
a)
positron
b)
proton
c)
neutron
d)
electron
e)
neutrino
85.
In nuclear fission reactions, energy production occurs as a result of the
a)
release of neutrons
b)
heat used to drive the reaction
c)
release of electrons
d)
production of a reactive nuclide
e)
products flying apart
86.
Why is large scale fusion for electric power NOT feasible?
a)
The equipment necessary for fusion is prohibitively expensive.
b)
Large scale fusion requires exceedingly large facilities.
c)
Too much energy is needed to overcome the repulsion of two positive forces.
d)
The necessary isotopes rarely occur naturally.
e)
Large scale fusion produces hazardous byproducts. SCIENCEFOCUSED QUIZ 15SECTION I SUMMARY, PP. 29 - 31
87.
Elements are distinguished by their number of
a)
protons
b)
neutrinos
c)
neutrons
d)
electrons
e)
positrons
88.
Atomic masses are defined relative to the mass of an isotope of
a)
helium
b)
hydrogen
c)
calcium
d)
oxygen
e)
carbon
89.
Who formulated the law of partial pressures?
a)
Antoine Lavoisier
b)
Henry Cavendish
c)
John Dalton
d)
Joseph Louis Proust
e)
Linus Pauling
90.
Which equation represents the law of partial pressures?
a)
PTotal = PA + PB
b)
PV = nRT
c)
Pa = mN2
d)
V1P1 = V2P2
e)
V1 = V2
91.
Which value orders elements in the periodic table?
a)
electronegativity
b)
atomic mass
c)
atomic number
d)
electron affinity
e)
atomic radius
92.
Which of the following forces are NOT intermolecular?
a)
dipole-induced dipole forces
b)
ion-dipole forces
c)
metallic bonds
d)
London dispersion forces
e)
hydrogen bonds
93.
Polar bonds occur due to differences in
a)
electronegativity
b)
atomic radius
c)
ionization potential
d)
ionization energy
e)
electron affinity
94.
Which of the following properties are intermolecular forces MOST likely to influence?
a)
atomic radius
b)
electron affinity
c)
atomic mass
d)
physical state
e)
electronegativity
95.
Hydrogen bonds are a specific type of
a)
ion-induced dipole forces
b)
London dispersion forces
c)
dipole-induced dipole forces
d)
dipole-dipole forces
e)
ion-dipole forces
96.
Who FIRST described hydrogen's properties and identified it as an element distinct from other gases?
a)
Paracelsus
b)
Henry Cavendish
c)
Robert Boyle
d)
John Dalton
e)
Antoine Lavoisier
97.
How many electrons comprise a covalent bond, according to Gilbert Lewis?
a)
8.0
b)
4.0
c)
2.0
d)
6.0
e)
3.0
98.
Molecular orbitals can be sigma bonds or
a)
gamma bonds
b)
psi bonds
c)
phi bonds
d)
delta bonds
e)
pi bonds
99.
VSEPR theory is used to predict molecules'
a)
molar masses
b)
shapes
c)
melting points
d)
conductivities
e)
solubilities
100.
A molecule's shape can be used to predict its
a)
stability
b)
solubility
c)
polarity
d)
conductivity
e)
electronegativity
101.
As radioactive decay occurs, a nucleus
a)
excites
b)
expands
c)
dissolves
d)
stabilizes
e)
combusts
100 %
