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Worksheets

KT 2.2 (1)

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 2hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What's the most profound muscle in the abdomen?

a)

m. quadratus lumborum

b)

m. transversus abdominus

c)

m. obliquus internus

d)

m. rectus abdominus

2.

What stretch of connective tissue runs the length of the rectus abdominis?

a)

Lineum hibernum

b)

Linea alba

c)

Ligamentum flavum

d)

rectus abdominis tendon

3.

Which doesn't form a border of Hesselbach's triangle?

a)

Rectus abdominis

b)

Inguinal ligament

c)

Epigastic vessels

d)

m. sartorius

4.

Which muscle runs through the lacuna musculorum?

a)

m. sartorius

b)

m. gracilis

c)

m. iliopsoas

d)

m. gluteus medius

5.

Which muscles form the Sharpey fibres?

a)

External oblique and contralateral adductor longus

b)

Rectus femoris and iliopsoas

c)

Iliopsoas and rectus abdominis

d)

Rectus abdominis and adductor longus

6.

What nerve runs through the cubital tunnel?

a)

Sciatic nerve

b)

Femoral nerve

c)

Ulnar nerve

d)

Median nerve

7.

Which muscles in the abdomen contract before movement in feedforward mechanism?

a)

Transversus abdominis

b)

Obliquus internus

c)

Diaphragm

d)

Multifidus

8.

Which muscles insert on the linea aspera?

a)

Vastus medialis and lateralis

b)

Both heads of gastrocnemius

c)

Supraspinatus and deltoids

d)

Pectoralis major and minor

9.

What's the common origin of the hamstrings?

a)

The ischial tuberosity

b)

The sacrum

c)

The femoral tuberosity

d)

The ilium

10.

What is the name of the common insertion point on the medial knee?

a)

Columba pollicem

b)

Pes anserinus

c)

Collum anatis

d)

Porci aurem

11.

Which collateral ligament has a connection with the meniscus?

a)

Medial collateral ligament

b)

Lateral collateral ligament

12.

What can a longitudinal meniscal tear progress to?

(a)  

13.

What's the name of the fat pad between the patella ligament and the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia?

a)

Kager's fat pad

b)

Hoffa's fat pad

c)

Genu fat pad

d)

Gluteal fat pad

14.

What's the more common term for pes planus?

a)

Flat foot

b)

Plantar fasciitis

c)

Twisted ankle

d)

Webbed feet

15.

Which vertebra has no vertebral body?

a)

C6

b)

C2

c)

C1

d)

C0

16.

On which vertebra is the dens located?

a)

C1

b)

C2

c)

S1

d)

S5

17.

Which ligament connects the dens to the occiput?

a)

Nuchal ligament

b)

Ligamentum flavum

c)

Annular ligament

d)

Alar ligament

18.

In which type of trauma is permanent cervical quadriplegia most likely to happen?

a)

Direct trauma to the cranium from ventral to dorsal

b)

Axial load

c)

Axial load with 30 flexion

d)

Axial load with full flexion

19.

What does the modified sharp purser test screen for?

a)

Instability of the atlas transverse ligament

b)

Tear of the alar ligament

c)

Fracture of the dens

d)

Damage within the spinal canal

20.

What is responsible for primary elbow stability?

a)

The wrist extensors and bones

b)

The joint capsule and wrist extensors

c)

The joint capsule and bones

d)

The lateral and medial collateral ligaments and the bones

21.

Which structures form the neural arch in the spine?

a)

The vertebral body and transverse process

b)

The pedicle and laminae

c)

The vertebral foramen and spinous process

d)

The vertebral foramen and pedicle

22.

Which part of the intervertebral disc is made from lamellae?

a)

Annulus fibrosis

b)

Vertebral endplate

c)

Nucleus pulposus

d)

Vertebral foramen

23.

Where would you find a meniscoid?

a)

In the pelvis

b)

In the facet joints of the spine

c)

In the knee

d)

In the acromioclavicular joint

24.

Which ligament prevents hyperflexion of the spine?

a)

Fascia thoracolumbaris

b)

Ligamentum flavum

c)

Posterior longitudinal ligament

d)

Anterior longitudinal ligament

25.

Which is the larger meniscus?

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

26.

What is the possible progression of a horizontal meniscal tear?

a)

Flap tear

b)

Bucket handle tear

c)

Radial tear

d)

Parrot beak tear

27.

What is pronator teres syndrome?

a)

Muscular imbalance of pronator and supinator muscles

b)

Fracture of the olecranon

c)

Chronic tear of m. pronator teres

d)

Entrapment of the median nerve

28.

What's the relation between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland?

a)

The hypothalamus measures the level of hormones in the blood and informs the pituitary

b)

There's no relation

c)

The hypothalamus controls the pituitary gland

d)

They both perform the same function, the hypothalamus creates larger amounts

29.

What's another name for the lobes of the pituitary gland?

a)

Frontal: adenohypophysis

Posterior: neurohypophysis

b)

Frontal: neurohypophysis

Posterior: adenohypophysis

c)

Frontal: contrasyreni

Posterior: ipsisyreni

d)

Frontal:

ipsisyreni Posterior: contrasyreni

30.

Which type of hormones are made from cholesterol?

a)

Insulin like hormones

b)

Peptide hormones

c)

Amine hormones

d)

Steroids

31.

Which types of hormones aren't water soluble?

a)

Amine hormones

b)

Steroids

c)

Gonadotropic hormones

d)

Thyroid hormones

32.

What's the primary supply of energy?

a)

Intramuscular supply of ATP

b)

Muscle glycerol

c)

Liver glycerol

d)

Supply of carbohydrates

33.

How long can you run on your ATP store?

a)

90 seconds

b)

1.5 seconds

c)

2 minutes

d)

6 seconds

34.

What system uses creatine phosphate?

a)

The phosphogen energy system

b)

The oxidative system

c)

The lactate system

35.

What happens to lactate during exercise at low intensity?

a)

It gets flushed out of the body

b)

It forms a barrier to prevent raising the intensity

c)

It gets oxidated by surrounding tissues

d)

It gathers until exercise ends

36.

What's the function of insulin?

a)

Promoting fuel storage in a fed state

b)

Mobilising fuel in a fasted state

c)

Moving energy to muscles

d)

Moving energy from muscles

37.

Which hormone has the opposite effect to insulin?

a)

Noradrenaline

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Cortisol

d)

Glucagon

38.

What's the effect of adrenaline/noradrenaline?

a)

Mobilising fuel during exercise

b)

Mobilising fuel during a stressed state

c)

Moving fuels directly to muscles

d)

Promoting fuel storage

39.

What's the training effect of creatine?

a)

It improves recovery

b)

It increases training capacity

c)

It promotes muscle growth

d)

It has no effect on training

40.

How does caffeine enhance performance?

a)

It encourages fat oxidation

b)

It prevents fatigue

c)

It slows glycogen depletion

d)

It decreases time from muscle excitation to contraction

41.

In the Tanner classification which stage is the start of puberty?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

42.

What type of hormones inititate puberty?

a)

Gonadotropic hormones

b)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

c)

Luteinizing hormone

d)

Prolactin

43.

Energy availability, bone density and menstrual regularity are all part of what?

a)

The female athlete triad

b)

The terrible triad

c)

The unhappy triad

d)

The female energy triad

44.

When the nervous system declines in age what are the effects?

a)

A decrease in conduction velocity

b)

A decrease in the number of axons

c)

A decrease in synaptic connections

d)

A increased synaptic cleft

45.

Where in the body is strength lost fastest with age?

a)

In the upper body

b)

In the lower body

c)

In the trunk

d)

It's lost equally everywhere

46.

Which muscle fibre type deteriorates fastest with age?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

No difference

47.

What's the proven effect of training strength and hypertrophy in the elderly?

a)

50% decrease in falls

b)

Increase in independence

c)

Better mental health

d)

30% increase in ADL activites

48.

Which ISN'T a rule for training with the elderly?

a)

Progress slower

b)

More variability

c)

Functional exercises

d)

Lower the repetitions needed

49.

What's the effect of sports tape on perception of pain?

a)

Heightens awareness of pain

b)

Reduces pain perception

c)

No effect on pain

d)

Reduces pain in the short term, increases long term sensitivity

50.

Which systems does effleurage have an effect on?

a)

Parasympathetic system

b)

Lymphatic system

c)

Musculoskeletal system

d)

Respiratory system

51.

What type of massage is cupping used for?

a)

Swedish massage

b)

Sports massage

c)

Connective tissue massage

d)

Relaxing massage

52.

Which biochemical is released in massage to increase relaxation?

a)

Mast cells

b)

Histamines

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

Noradrenaline

53.

What enzyme is released during intermittent movement?

a)

Aromatase

b)

Dehydrogenase

c)

Vasopressin

d)

Collagenase

54.

Which is worse for cartilage? Underloading or Overloading?

a)

Underloading

b)

Overloading

55.

When would you advise a patient with cartilage problems to swim?

a)

Always

b)

When they have an above normal BMI

c)

When they have inflammation problems

d)

When it's a problem other than the knee

56.

What's the benefit of relative rest rather than just rest for athletes?

a)

They would lose athletic ability with rest

b)

They are tougher than most people and can work through pain

c)

They are more likely to stick to the recovery plan

d)

You shouldn't use relative rest, only full rest

57.

How long does training have to be to count as aerobic?

a)

30 minutes

b)

40 minutes

c)

20 minutes

d)

5 minutes

58.

What stimulus needs to be achieved to train strength?

a)

Protein breakdown

b)

Maximum effort

c)

Heaviest weight possible

d)

Muscle failure

59.

What valve is between the right atrium and ventricle?

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

Bicuspid valve

c)

Mitral valve

d)

Semilunar valve

60.

What's the name of the valve between left atrium and ventricle?

a)

Mitral

b)

Semilunar

c)

Bicuspid

d)

Tricuspid

61.

What's the function of the chordae tendineae?

a)

Holding valves in place

b)

Maintaining the shape of the heart chambers

c)

Maintaining pressure in the heart

d)

Preventing the heart from collapsing during contraction

62.

In the early graft healing phase of the ACL what is the weakest point?

a)

The insertions

b)

The midpoint

c)

The entire graft is weak

d)

It varies

63.

Why is the reconstructed ACL thicker than the original?

a)

Most people will slightly damage it during recovery

b)

To make proprioception easier

c)

Because the rest of the knee will be weaker

d)

To allow for necrosis

64.

Which substances improve visual memory?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Dopamine

c)

Noradrenaline

d)

Cortisol

65.

Is the regulation of blood glucose levels a positive or negative feedback loop?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

66.

What is acromegaly?

a)

Increased levels of growth hormone causing enlarged hands and feet

b)

Naturally high insulin production causing hypoglycemia

c)

Decreased ability to produce adrenaline

d)

Chronically elevated cortisol levels damaging the immune response

67.

What's the effect of erythropoietin (EPO)?

a)

Increased red blood cell production

b)

Improved lung capacity

c)

Increased ATP availability

68.

How can proteoglycans be stimulated?

a)

With rest

b)

With compression/loading

c)

With physical touch

d)

With impact

69.

How does eccentric training affect collagen?

a)

From type 1 -> type 2

b)

From type 1 -> type 3

c)

From type 3 -> type 1

d)

From type 2 -> type 3

70.

Which by-product of exercise was found to be the most effective at improving motor memory?

a)

Sweat

b)

Lactate

c)

CO2

d)

Water

71.

When can you heal by primary intention?

a)

When the wound edges are touching

b)

When the trauma is only one skin layer deep

c)

When the wound is clean/not infected

d)

When the wound doesn't cross a joint

72.

Which of these can cause fatigue?

a)

Levels of calcium release

b)

Blood acidity

c)

Levels of lactate

d)

Ammonia accumulation

73.

What time post op is the acl at its weakest?

a)

6-8 weeks

b)

Immediately post op

c)

The first week

d)

Up until one month later

74.

What are primary bacterial infections caused by?

a)

Infection from a wound

b)

Flora already inside you

c)

Infection as a result of diet

d)

A change in internal state

75.

What is erysipelas?

a)

An infection caused by staphylococcus

b)

A side effect of encephalitis

c)

A harmless infection caused by clostridioides difficile

d)

Another name for a stomach ulcer

76.

Tinea pedis is also known as...

a)

Flat foot

b)

Ear worms

c)

Athlete's foot

d)

Stomach ulcers

77.

What's the recovery time for a child's broken bone?

a)

1 month

b)

6 weeks

c)

2 months

d)

Several months

78.

Bone, skin and soft tissue infections can be treated with what?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Streptomycin

c)

azithromycin

d)

benzathine penicillin G

79.

What does the EMV score test?

a)

Consciousness

b)

Head trauma

c)

Concussion

d)

Ability to play sport

80.

What is otorrhea?

a)

The production of mucus to fight infection

b)

When the eye tears up to expel something on the eyeball surface

c)

The leaking of cerebrospinal fluid out of the ears

d)

The expulsion of mucus via the mouth

81.

Why would you administer blood products and/or oxygen post head trauma?

a)

To protect the remaining brain matter

b)

To stop the patient bleeding out

c)

To encourage tissue healing

d)

To protect the patient's heart

82.

Which disorder commonly gets peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Diabetes

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

83.

What is the Miasmatic theory?

a)

The idea that diseases came from bad smells

b)

The first name for germ theory

c)

The idea that bacteria evolve to continually beat our immune system

d)

The theory that some bacteria are becoming antibiotic resistant

84.

Which of these isn't in the ABCDE of head trauma?

a)

Airways

b)

Breathing

c)

Concussion

d)

Disability

e)

Exposure

85.

What's the acronym used for diagnosing Parkinson's patients?

a)

TRAP

b)

CRATE

c)

BEDS

d)

SHOE

86.

What is Colle's fracture?

a)

The distal radius snaps off

b)

The first rib becomes dislocated

c)

A longitudinal fracture of the patella

d)

When the clavicle breaks closer to the sternum than the humerus

87.

What's the most dangerous type of arrhythmia?

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Ventricular fibrillation

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Bradycardia