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Final exam review

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

First pass metabolism affects which of the following properties of drugs?

a)

Bioavailability

b)

Color

c)

Taste

d)

Duration of effect

2.

Which of these are extravascular routes of drug administration ? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Intramuscular testosterone injection

b)

Propofol injection in the veins

c)

Digoxin injection in the heart

d)

Insulin inhaler

3.

Fentanyl is more potent and efficacious than tramadol.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Maximum volume of an injection that can be given subcutaneously is?

a)

5 mL

b)

1 mL

c)

10 mL

d)

0.2 mL

5.

Drug from which of the following dosage forms will show the fastest absorption?

a)

Powder

b)

Tablet

c)

Capsule

d)

Transdermal patch

6.

........................... mixture is a homogeneous mixture that has a melting point lower than those of the constituents.

a)

eutectic

b)

hygroscopic

c)

efflorescent

d)

deliquescent

7.

Which of the following statement is most accurate about hard and soft gelatin capsules. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Soft gelatin cannot be compounded, hard ones can be

b)

Hard gelatin have less moisture than soft gelatin

c)

Hard and soft gelatin both can encapsulate aqueous liquids

d)

Both should not be stored in the bathroom

8.

The largest capsule size is

a)

0

b)

5

c)

8

d)

000

9.

Which of the following type of tablets dissolve and release the drug over time?

a)

Buccal

b)

Lozenges

c)

Effervescent

d)

Sublingual

10.

Enteric coated tablets disintegrate in the stomach so the drug can be absorbed at the acidic pH

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which of the following excipients aid in the breaking of the tablet in the body ?

a)

Glidant

b)

Binder

c)

Surfactant

d)

Disintegrant

12.

Which of the following cannot be included as a sweetener in a patient with phenylketonuria and has IBS? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Sorbitol

b)

Saccharin

c)

Aspartame

d)

Dextrose

13.

Which of the following statements is most accurate about brand vs generic tablets?

a)

Brands are always covered by insurance, while generics are not

b)

Brands are always cheaper than generics

c)

Both has the same API but could have a different packaging

d)

Brands are always more efficacious than generic ones

14.

For which of the following drug scenarios would you think of developing a modified release tablet? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Drug with half life of 17 h

b)

Drug for chronic pain

c)

Not very narrow therapeutic index

d)

Drug with an immediate release tablet dose of 650 mg, given 4 times a day

15.

Which of the following is true regarding ghost tablets?

a)

One that has partial amount of drug within the shell

b)

Empty shell and no drug in it

c)

All modified release tablets are ghost tablets

d)

These are placebo tablets

16.

Which of the following types of modified release tablets show a zero order drug release pattern?

a)

Drug embedded in a hydrophilic matrix

b)

Drug embedded in a plastic matrix

c)

Osmotic tablets

d)

Ion-exchange resins

17.

Which of the following best describes the role of disodium EDTA in a liquid solution?

a)

Vehicle

b)

Preservative

c)

Sweetener

d)

Chelator

18.

An ideal suspension has which of the following properties? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Settles slowly

b)

Caking

c)

REdispersability

d)

Particles of wide range of size

19.

Which of the following will decrease the rate of settling in a suspension?

a)

Increasing particle size

b)

Increasing dispersion medium viscosity

c)

Increasing particle density

d)

Decreasing dispersion medium viscosity

20.

To formulate a o/w emulsion, which of the following emulsifying agents can be used based on their HLB?

a)

HLB of 10

b)

HLB of 20

c)

HLB of 1

d)

HLB of 4

21.

With regards to the 4:2:1 methods for preparing emulsions with fixed oils, which of the following are accurate? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Refers to the ratio of oil, water, and gum to prepare primary emulsion

b)

Applies to both, dry and wet gum method

c)

If 30 g oil is used, 2 g of water and 1 g of gum will be used

d)

If 60 g oil is used, 30 g of water and 15 g of gum will be used

22.

Which of the following excipients is essentially required for preparation of emulsions using oil and water?

a)

Flocculating agent

b)

Emulsifier

c)

Chelating agent

d)

Anti-oxidants

23.

Which of the following is the primary factor that determines the BUD of a product?

a)

Water activity

b)

Presence of an oil

c)

Area of application

d)

Sterilization method used

24.

Which of the following are biocides? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

Sanitizer

b)

Hand wash

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Sodium benzoate

25.

If a biocides's concentration is increased 2 fold, how will the rate of kill change if its concentration exponent is 3

a)

Increase 8 times

b)

Decrease 4 times

c)

Remain unchanged

d)

Increase 9 times

26.

Which of the following are ways to prevent contamination of parenterals in the manufacturing area? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Use of clean rooms

b)

HEPA filters

c)

Sterilization

d)

Maintaining positive air pressure

27.

Which of the following options are correct regarding the comparison of single-dose and multiple dose vials? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

Both contain preservatives

b)

Multiple dose are made of bacteriostatic water for injection

c)

Both are hermetically sealed

d)

Single dose are always sterilized by autoclaving, while multiple dose by dry heat

28.

3-in-1 TPN consists of one bag that has a milky appearance.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Which of the following is true about the clean room specifications. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

Higher the ISO number, cleaner the room

b)

ISO #5 = class 100 area (US Federal Standards)

c)

Lower the ISO number, higher the number of particles allowed

30.

Which of the following may be used when a product cannot be decontaminated at the end?

a)

Sterility assurance test

b)

Terminal sterilization

c)

Reverse osmosis

d)

Aseptic manufacturing

31.

Which of these is true about ophthalmic preparations? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

Are always sterile

b)

Sodium chloride may be added for isotonicity adjustment

c)

Can not be made in a suspension form

d)

Formulated at a pH of 7.4

32.

Which of the following is true with regards to the pH of the otic, ophthalmic, and nasal preparations.

a)

Eye drops must have a pH of 7.4 if possible; alkaline pH is better handled by the eye

b)

Nasal preparations must have a pH of 5.5-6.5

c)

Ear drops must have a pH of 3-4

d)

All the other are true

33.

Which of the following routes can be used to deliver the drug, locally as well as systemically? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Nasal

b)

Ophthalmic

c)

Inhalational

d)

Otic

34.

Which of the following is true regarding application of nasal and ear products. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

Pump based nasal sprays are applied with head bent forward.

b)

Nasal drops are applied to the patient lying flat on the back and head tilted back

c)

It is acceptable to use ear drops in the eyes.

d)

For children more than 4 years old, the ear is pulled downwards and backwards.

35.

Which of the following is true about nasal sprays?

a)

Higher surface tension, higher viscosity and droplet size

b)

More viscosity, finer mist

c)

Short aerosol plumes are better for nasal deposition

36.

Which of the following inhalational devices are propellant-based? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

MDI

b)

Soft-mist inhaler

c)

Nebulizer

d)

Dry powder inhaler

37.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding metered dose inhalers and nebulizers?

a)

Spacer devices may be needed with a nebulizer

b)

Coordination between breathing in and actuation of the device is important for MDIs, but not nebulizers

c)

MDIs may be preferred more for pediatrics than a nebulizer

d)

Nebulizers use propellants, MDIs use external compressor

38.

Lipophilic drugs must be incorporated in cocoa butter suppositories?

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which of the following can be used as a primary vehicle/base for making ointments as well as suppositories?

a)

Polyethylene glycol

b)

glycerin

c)

Propylene glycol

d)

Gelatin

40.

Which of the following patient counseling points are important when dispensing suppositories? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Remove the foil and then insert

b)

Appropriate storage conditions

c)

Won't be any need to remove from the body as the suppositories will melt over time

d)

Not for ORAL use

41.

Which of the following methods for compounding suppositories involves melting the base and calibration of molds ?

a)

Hand rolling

b)

Double casting

c)

Fusion method

d)

Compression

42.

Topical drug delivery= localized drug action

Transdermal drug delivery= ?

a)

Lymphatic

b)

Systemic

c)

Muscular

d)

Subcutaneous

43.

The outermost layer of the skin which also acts as a barrier to drug delivery is?

a)

Stratum basale

b)

Stratum corneum

c)

Dermis

d)

Hypodermis

44.

Which of the following are correct regarding commercially available transdermal patches? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Scopolamine patches are worn for 3 days

b)

7 day clonidine patches are available

c)

Used fentanyl patches must be flushed down the toilet

45.

All transdermal patches can be cut.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which of the following techniques make micron sized channels in the skin? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Microneedles

b)

Laser

c)

Iontophoresis

d)

Chemical enhancers

47.

Which of the ointment bases are the least cosmetically appealing?

a)

absorption

b)

water-removable bases

c)

water-soluble bases

d)

oleaginous

48.

Which of the following topical products can be applied preferably to the scalp?

a)

Ointments

b)

Gels

c)

w/o creams

d)

o/w creams

49.

It is acceptable to apply an occlusive dressing on a topical glucocorticoid.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Mixing of the ingredients in parts for uniform mixing while compounding ointments is referred to as?

a)

Trituration

b)

Levigation

c)

Pulverization

d)

Geometric dilution

51.

Which of the following are accurate regarding augmented topicals? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

Contain glycerin

b)

contain propylene glycol

c)

Penetrate deeper than regular versions

d)

Are less irritating

52.

Which of the following phenomenon are indicative of instabilities in gels?

a)

syneresis

b)

swelling

c)

change in color

d)

All the above

53.

Which of the following drugs may be able to passively cross the stratum corneum?

a)

Dibenzoylmethane (log P of 4)

b)

Baclofen (log P is -0.78)

c)

Diclofenac (Log P: 4.5)

d)

Tenofovir (log P of 2.2)

54.

Topical delivery system that tends to show a Newtonian rheological flow is which of the following?

a)

Creams

b)

Lotions

c)

Gels

d)

Ointments