WorksheetsQuiz_LTCS_TSN-APP-Radar_2021_BKL-Checked
Total questions: 224
Worksheet time: 7hrs 28mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Mây Tào Gun Firing Exercise is:
a)
VVD30
b)
VVD31
c)
VVD32
d)
VVD33
2.
Vertical limitation of Tan An airforce training area (VVD36) is:
a)
From 400m up to 3000m
b)
From 400m up to 6000m specified altitude (be provided by ATC unit)
c)
From ground up to 3000m
d)
From ground up to unlimited
3.
According to Radar Vectoring Altitude Chart in Tan Son Nhat TMA, the minimum altitude shall be ........ in the area between 000° radial and 100° radial ; and in the range of 65 km and 110 km from TSN VOR.
a)
1050 m
b)
1200 m
c)
1500 m
d)
2100 m
4.
According to Radar Vectoring Altitude Chart in Tan Son Nhat TMA, the minimum altitude shall be ........ in the area between 100° radial and 150° radial ; and in the range of 45 km and 110 km from TSN VOR.
a)
450 m
b)
600 m
c)
900 m
d)
1200 m
5.
According to Radar Vectoring Altitude Chart in Tan Son Nhat TMA, the minimum altitude shall be ........ in the area between 150° radial and 310° radial ; and in the range of 110 km from TSN VOR.
a)
450 m
b)
600 m
c)
950 m
d)
1500 m
6.
Minimum sector altitude in TSN is:
a)
850m in North West sector , 600m in South East sector
b)
850m in West sector , 600m in East sector
c)
850m in North West sector , 600m in South East sector
d)
850m
7.
Airspace of Vũng Tàu is defined:
a)
A circle with radius of 10km from VTV VOR and from GND/Water level up to 1500m.
b)
A circle with radius of 10km from VTV VOR and from GND/Water level up to 900m.
c)
A circle with radius of 10km from XVL NDB and from GND/Water level up to 1500m.
d)
A circle with radius of 10km from XVL NDB and from GND/Water level up to 900m.
8.
TSN TMA is a circle with radius … centred on TSN DVOR/DME, except the Airspace within PhnomPenh FIR.
a)
25 NM (46 KM)
b)
40 NM (75 KM)
c)
60 NM (111 KM)
d)
80NM (148 KM)
9.
TSN TMA has upper limit:
a)
FL 100
b)
FL 110
c)
FL 120
d)
FL 165
10.
TSN TMA has lower limit:
a)
From Ground
b)
From 300 M
c)
From 450 M
d)
From 600 M
11.
N500’s track (segment from TSN DVOR/DME to BAOMY):
a)
77
b)
86
c)
128
d)
135
12.
R468’s track (segment from TSN DVOR/DME to SAPEN):
a)
295
b)
250
c)
240
d)
231
13.
W1’s track (segment from TSN DVOR/DME to AC)
a)
78
b)
85
c)
128
d)
135
14.
W8’s track (segment from TSN DVOR/DME to MISAN)
a)
294
b)
250
c)
241
d)
231
15.
W9’s track (segment from TSN DVOR/DME to LATHA)
a)
294
b)
250
c)
240
d)
182
16.
W9’s minimum flight altitude is:
a)
300 M
b)
450 M
c)
600 M
d)
2150M
17.
W16’s minimum flight altitude is:
a)
300 M
b)
450 M
c)
600 M
d)
1200M
18.
W16’s track (segment from TSN DVOR/DME to KANTA)
a)
294
b)
250
c)
233
d)
181
19.
W19’s track (segment from TSN DVOR/DME to VUNGTAU DVOR/DME)
a)
128
b)
136
c)
181
d)
215
20.
The establishment and operation of airways shall be approved by:
a)
The Prime Minister
b)
The Minister of Transport
c)
General Director of VATM
d)
The Minister of Nation Defense
21.
Who shall decide to establish the prohibited and restricted areas in the territory of VietNam?
a)
The Ministry of National Defense
b)
The Ministry of Transport
c)
The Prime Minister
d)
The Ministry of Foreign Affairs
22.
Fuel dumping area in TSN APP TMA is:
a)
Named Rang Rang, minimum altitude in area is 600m, and required approval from Biên Hòa commander
b)
Named Rang Rang, minimum altitude in area is 1500m, and required approval from Biên Hòa commander
c)
Named Rang Rang, minimum altitude entering in the area is 600m, and required approval from ATC
d)
Named Rang Rang, minimum altitude entering in the area is 1500m, and required approval from Biên Hòa commander
23.
Fuel dumping area in TSN APP TMA is:
a)
Distance 44km, bearing 220 from TD NDB, Radius 5km
b)
Distance 62km, bearing 220 from LG NDB, Radius 5km
c)
Distance 44km, bearing 2090 to TD NDB, Radius 5km
d)
Distance 62km, bearing 2090 to SG NDB, Radius 5km
24.
CHIPO holding area has inbound track and minimum holding altitude:
a)
208°; FL140
b)
218°; FL100
c)
128°; FL 145
d)
028°; FL 050
25.
LATHA holding area has inbound track and minimum holding altitude:
a)
001°; FL 100
b)
010°; FL 050
c)
181°; FL 145
d)
020°; FL 140
26.
BITIS holding area has inbound track and minimum holding altitude:
a)
035°; FL100
b)
305°; FL100
c)
215°; FL050
d)
135°; FL145
27.
BASON holding area has inbound track and minimum holding altitude:
a)
250°; FL100
b)
070°; FL100
c)
025°; FL050
d)
085°; FL145
28.
Air traffic services include:
a)
Flight administration service, ATC service, air traffic consultancy service and alarming service.
b)
Flight administration service, flight information service, air traffic consultancy service and alarming service.
c)
Flight management service, flight information service, air traffic consultancy service and alarming service.
d)
Flight administration service, flight information service, air traffic advisory service and alarming service.
29.
According to Decision of CAAV number 141/QĐ-CHK, visual departure can be made:
a)
On pilot’s request or ATC suggestion at night time only, and the WX is in VMC on rolling and climb-out segment
b)
On pilot’s request at day time only and the WX is in VMC on rolling and climb-out segment
c)
On pilot’s request or ATC suggestion at day time only.
d)
None of the above
30.
According to Decision of CAAV number 141/QĐ-CHK, ATC must be responsible:
a)
Ensure the limit clearance of visual DEP not lower than MSA in concerned sector
b)
Ensure the limit clearance of visual DEP not lower than MVA in concerned sector
c)
Ensure the limit clearance of visual DEP not higher than MSA in concerned sector and monitored by radar.
d)
None of the above
31.
Flight permission granted to flights arriving and departing at the airports of Viet Nam shall become effective at 12 (twelve) hour prior to and until … hours after the ETA, ETD indicated in the permission.
a)
6
b)
12
c)
18
d)
24
32.
Over-flight permission shall become effective 03(three) hours prior to and until … hours after estimated over-flight time indicated in the flight permission.
a)
12
b)
24
c)
48
d)
72
33.
In Decree 125/2015 / ND-CP, domestic routes are used for:
a)
Dommestic flights only
b)
International flights only
c)
International flights only
d)
None of the above
34.
In Decree 125/2015 / ND-CP, international routes are used for:
a)
Dommestic flights only
b)
Dommestic and international flights
c)
International flights only
d)
None of the above
35.
When VIP arrives, airport operation will be restricted:
a)
05 minutes before landing time of VIP flight, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear
b)
05 minutes before landing time of VIP flight, all RWYs should be clear
c)
05 minutes after VIP flight lands, that RWY can resume normal operation
d)
None of the above
36.
When VIP departs, airport operation will be restricted:
a)
05 minutes before VIP flight lines up, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear
b)
05 minutes before departure time of VIP flight, all RWYs should be clear.
c)
05 minutes after VIP flight takes off, that RWY can resume normal operation
d)
None of the above
37.
When VIP arrives, the reserved RWY for VIP flight will be available:
a)
When VIP flight stops at the parking
b)
After VIP flight vacates the RWY
c)
05 minutes after VIP flight lands
d)
None of the above
38.
When VIP departs, the reserved RWY for VIP flight will be available:
a)
03 minutes after VIP flight takes off
b)
After VIP flight is airborne
c)
05 minutes after VIP flight takes off
d)
None of the above
39.
The Identification of ILS system RWY 25L is:
a)
SGN
b)
TSN
c)
HCM
d)
XVL
40.
The distance between GP of ILS RWY 25R and the center line of RWY 25R/07L is:
a)
120m to the north
b)
120m to the south
c)
114m to the north
d)
114m to the south
41.
The distance between GP of ILS RWY 25L and the center line of RWY 25L/07R is:
a)
114m to the north
b)
112m to the south
c)
112m to the north
d)
120m to the north
42.
The Identification of ILS RWY 07R is:
a)
TSN
b)
ITS
c)
IST
d)
SGN
43.
The distance from LOC of ILS RWY 07R on extended RWY center line to the threshold RWY 25L is:
a)
315m
b)
320m
c)
325m
d)
330m
44.
What is the category of GP/DME ILS RWY 07R?
a)
CAT I
b)
CAT II
c)
CAT III
d)
CAT III/a
45.
The distance between GP/DME of ILS RWY 07R and the center line of RWY 07R/25L is:
a)
120m
b)
114m
c)
112m
d)
120m to the south
46.
The distance between GP/DME of ILS RWY 07R and the displace threshold of RWY 07R/25L is:
a)
300m
b)
310m
c)
320m
d)
314m
47.
The frequency of ATIS TSN is:
a)
128.25 KHz
b)
. 128.0 KHz
c)
128.25 MHz
d)
128.0 MHz
48.
What is the category of ILS system RWY 25R ?
a)
I
b)
II
c)
III
d)
None of above
49.
The Glide slope of GP RWY 25R is:
a)
2°
b)
2.5°
c)
3°
d)
5°
50.
NDB stands for:
a)
No_directional Beacon
b)
Non_directional Beacon
c)
1 and 2
d)
None of above
51.
AFTN stands for:
a)
Aerodrome fixed Telecommunications Network
b)
Aerodrome fixed Telephone Network
c)
Aeronautical fixed Telephone Network
d)
Aeronautical fixed Telecommunications Network
52.
VCCS stands for:
a)
Voice Communication Control System
b)
Voice Control Communication System
c)
Virtual Control Communication System
d)
Virtual Communication Control System
53.
VOR stands for:
a)
Very omnidirectional Range
b)
Very high omnidirectional Radio Range
c)
Very high omnidirectional Range
d)
VHF omnidirectional Radio Range
54.
The frequency of NDB/SG is:
a)
358 MHz
b)
326 MHz
c)
343 KHz
d)
326 KHz
55.
The distance from the threshold RWY 07L to LOC of ILS system 25R is:
a)
340m
b)
314m
c)
280m
d)
300m
56.
The distance from the threshold RWY 07R to LOC of ILS system 25L is:
a)
300m
b)
268m
c)
314m
d)
180m
57.
The distance from the threshold RWY 25R to NDB/TD is:
a)
10301m
b)
10103m
c)
9770m
d)
10 km
58.
The distance from the threshold RWY 25L to NDB/SG is:
a)
9770m
b)
10301m
c)
9670m
d)
9 km
59.
STCA function’s purpose of ATM system is:
a)
Warning aircraft the risk of collision with terrain
b)
Warning aircraft the risk of collision with another aircraft
c)
Warning aircraft that deviates from the assigned route
d)
a b c
60.
Transfering identification radar between ACC HCM and APP TSN is considered to be finished when accepting ATC conducts the function “-----” on ATM display and see the colour change of the target:
a)
HND
b)
Accept
c)
ACC
d)
None of above
61.
Within APP TSN airspace, an aircraft is considered to maintain a FL when mode C display is within “-----” compared with the assigned FL.
a)
± 300ft
b)
± 150ft
c)
± 200ft
d)
± 400ft
62.
What is the rotation speed of SMR TSN antenna ?
a)
60 rounds per minute
b)
70 rounds per minute
c)
80 rounds per minute
d)
90 rounds per minute
63.
The frequency of TSN walkie talkie is:
a)
142.825 KHz
b)
142.825 MHz
c)
142.285 KHz
d)
142.285 Mhz
64.
Ram function ‘s purpose of ATM system is:
a)
Inform Pilot when aircraft is under minimum safety altitude
b)
Inform Pilot when aircraft is deviated from the assigned route
c)
Inform Pilot when aircraft enter the prohibited area
d)
None of above
65.
When losing radar identification, which function button do ATC use to display the last position of aircraft ?
a)
LOW
b)
LAST
c)
LOST
d)
None of above
66.
The coverage of TSN SMR is:
a)
5 Km
b)
4 Km
c)
6 Km
d)
7 Km
67.
The primary communication frequency of TSN TWR is:
a)
118.7 MHz
b)
118.7 KHz
c)
118.6 MHz
d)
118.6 KHz
68.
The secondary communication frequency of TSN TWR is:
a)
130.0 KHz
b)
130.0 MHz
c)
130.2 MHz
d)
130.2 KHz
69.
The primary communication frequency of TSN APP is:
a)
125.5 MHz
b)
125.5 KHz
c)
128.0 MHz
d)
128.0 KHz
70.
The secondary communication frequency of TSN APP is:
a)
125.5 MHz
b)
125.5 KHz
c)
126.35 MHz
d)
126.35 KHz
71.
The primary communication frequency of TSN GCU is:
a)
125.5 MHz
b)
125.5 KHz
c)
121.9 MHz
d)
121.9 KHz
72.
The secondary communication frequency of TSN GCU is:
a)
121.6 MHz
b)
121.6 KHz
c)
121.9 MHz
d)
121.9 KHz
73.
According toTSN MANOP, radar service is provided when:
a)
Aircraft is within TSN APP airspace
b)
Identification signal is stable
c)
Identification signal is table and update sufficiently
d)
1, 2 and 3
74.
According to TSN MANOP, Which mode does ATC use when providing radar service?
a)
Low multi
b)
Norm
c)
Main multi
d)
Low
75.
According to TSN MANOP, Which mode does transfering ATC use to transfer Identification?
a)
Transfer
b)
ACC
c)
HND
d)
JUR
76.
According to TSN MANOP, Which mode does accpepting ATC use to accept identification?
a)
TRANSFER
b)
ACC
c)
HND
d)
JUR
77.
According to TSN MANOP, How does ATC dertermine the distance between two aircraft using SSR mode in ATM system?
a)
Between the furthest edges of two targets
b)
Between the center of two targets
c)
Between the nearst edges of two targets
d)
1, 2 and 3
78.
According to TSN MANOP, How does ATC determine the distance between tow aircraft using PSR mode in ATM system?
a)
between the furthest edges of two targets
b)
between the nearest edges of two targets
c)
between the center of two targets
d)
1, 2 and 3
79.
According to TSN MANOP, except the aircraft within holding area, Radar ATC can apply merging target to all identified aircraft when:
a)
aircraft is at FL190 or above
b)
aircraft is at FL 110 or above
c)
aircraft is at FL 120 or above
d)
aircraft is at FL 130 or above
80.
According to TSN MANOP, International flight departing from airports within HCM FIAR will be assigned a code:
a)
From 5500 to 5577 and 5600-5677
b)
From 4100 to 4177 and 4600-4677
c)
From 5700 to 5777 and 6000-6077
d)
From 5501 to 5577 and 5601-5677
81.
According to TSN manop, Domestic flight departing from airports within HCM FIR will be assigned a code:
a)
From 5500 to 5577 and 5600-5677
b)
From 4100 to 4177 and 4600-4677
c)
From 5700 to 5777 and 6000-6077
d)
From 5701 to 5777 and 6001-6077
82.
According to TSN MANOP, mode c displayed on radar monitor is considered accurately if it is within:
a)
200ft or less
b)
300ft or less
c)
200ft or more
d)
300 ft or more
83.
The position of ILS/GP- DME RWY 25L is:
a)
300m from the right of RWY 25L centerline and 112m from threshold of RWY 25L
b)
112m from the right of RWY 25L centerline and 300m from threshold of RWY 25L
c)
112m from the right of RWY 25L centerline and 400m from threshold of RWY 25L
84.
The distance from NDB GN to threshold of RWY 25L:
a)
977m
b)
970m
c)
799m
85.
The elevation of the RWY 07R displacement threshold ofspecified in the “ Flight regulation in the Tan Son Nhat aerodrome area “ are:
a)
7.2 m
b)
7.3m
c)
7.4m
d)
7.5m
86.
The upper limit of VVP4 is:
a)
2000m
b)
4000m
c)
3000m
d)
5000m
87.
The separated distance between center lines of RWY 25R/07L and RWY 25L/07R specified in the “ Flight regulation in the Tan Son Nhat aerodrome area “ are:
a)
356m
b)
365m
c)
536m
d)
563m
88.
The position of ILS/GP- DME RWY 25R is:
a)
120m from the right of RWY 25R centerline and 314m from threshold of RWY 25R
b)
314m from the right of RWY 25R centerline and 120m from threshold of RWY 25R
c)
120m from the right of RWY 25R centerline and 340m from threshold of RWY 25R
89.
The operational altitude(s) of VVR 86 specified in the “ Flight regulation in the TSN aerodrome area “ are :
a)
From 600m to 6000m
b)
From 50m to 1000m
c)
From 300m to 1000m
d)
From 2100m to 6000m
90.
The position of the glide path transmitter (GP) of RWY 25R specified is:
a)
314m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 120m from RWY 25L centerline
b)
314m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 120m from RWY 25R centerline
c)
300m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 112m from RWY 25R centerline
d)
300m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 112m from RWY 25L centerline
91.
The name of Prohibited area VVP4 is located over:
a)
Cam Ranh Airport
b)
Bien Hoa Airbase
c)
Ho Chi Minh city
d)
May Tao firing area
92.
The name of Danger area VVD32 is the name of:
a)
MIG 21 MOA (Military Operation Area)
b)
SU22 MOA (Military Operation Area)
c)
SU27 MOA (Military Operation Area)
d)
Mây Tào firing area
93.
The position of the glide path transmitter (GP) of RWY 25R specified is:
a)
314m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 120m from RWY 25L centerline
b)
314m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 120m from RWY 25R centerline
c)
300m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 112m from RWY 25R centerline
d)
300m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 112m from RWY 25L centerline
94.
The distance from NDB TD to threshold of RWY 25R:
a)
10131m
b)
10301m
c)
9670m
95.
The distance from NDB SG to threshold of RWY 25L:
a)
9067m
b)
9070m
c)
9670m
96.
The distance from NDB GN to threshold of RWY 25L:
a)
977m
b)
970m
c)
799m
97.
The distance from ILS/LZZ RWY 25R to threshold of RWY 07L:
a)
430m
b)
340m
c)
530m
98.
The upper limit of VVR19 is:
a)
9000m
b)
7000m
c)
8000m
d)
6000m
99.
The distance from ILS/LZZ RWY 25L to threshold of RWY 07R:
a)
368m
b)
268m
c)
468m
100.
The distance of TORA and TODA of RWY 07R declared in AIP SUP (NOTAM A1697/20) are:
a)
3828m & 4128m
b)
3282m & 4128m
c)
3800m & 4128m
d)
3828m & 4100m
101.
The distance of ASDA of RWY 07R declared in AIP SUP (NOTAM A1697/20) are:
a)
3978m
b)
4120m
c)
3828m
d)
3059m
102.
The distance of TORA and TODA of RWY 25L declared in AIP SUP (NOTAM A1697/20) are:
a)
3828m & 4128m
b)
3800m & 4100m
c)
3800m & 4128m
d)
3828m & 4100m
103.
The distance of ASDA of RWY 25L declared in AIP SUP (NOTAM A1697/20) are
a)
3948m
b)
4100m
c)
3059m
d)
3800m
104.
SWY dimension of RWY 25L
a)
120m x 45m
b)
300m x 45m
c)
300m x 150m
d)
310m x 45m
105.
Refer to AIP Viet Nam: Dimensions of stopway (SWY) RWY 25R:
a)
203 x 45
b)
320 x 45,72
c)
330 x 45,72
d)
310 x 47,72
106.
The distance of TORA and TODA of RWY 07L declared in AIP Viet Nam are :
a)
3408m and 4100m
b)
2540m and 2800m
c)
3059m and 3538m
d)
3050m and 3360m
107.
The distance of TORA and TODA of RWY 25R declared in AIP Viet Nam are :
a)
3408m and 4100m
b)
2540m and 2800m
c)
3059m and 3538m
d)
3050m and 3360m
108.
The distance of ASDA and LDA of RWY 25R declared in AIP Viet Nam are :
a)
3408m and 4100m
b)
2540m and 2800m
c)
3059m and 3538m
d)
3253m and 3050m
109.
The distance of ASDA and LDA of RWY 07L declared in AIP Viet Nam are :
a)
3408m and 4100m
b)
2540m and 2800m
c)
3059m and 3538m
d)
3360m and 3050m
110.
Blind transmission:
a)
A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.
b)
A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
c)
A transmission from ground to the air in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.
d)
A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established.
111.
Broadcast:
a)
A transfer of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
b)
A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
c)
A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is addressed to a specific station or stations.
d)
A transmission of information relating to air transportation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
112.
Clearance limit:
a)
The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
b)
The fix to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
c)
The level to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
d)
All above.
113.
The following transmitting techniques will assist in ensuring that transmitted speech is clear and satisfactorily received
a)
Maintain an even rate of speech not exceeding 100 words per minute. When it is known that elements of the message will be written down by the recipient, speak at a slightly slower rate;
b)
Maintain a rate of speech not exceeding 100 words per minute. When it is known that elements of the message will be written down by the recipient, speak at a slightly slower rate;
c)
Maintain an even rate of speech from 80 to 100 words per minute. When it is known that elements of the message will be written down by the recipient, speak at a slightly slower rate;
d)
Maintain an even rate of speech not exceeding 100 words per minute. When it is known that elements of the message will be written down by the recipient, spell the words at a slightly slower rate;
114.
An irritating and potentially dangerous situation in radiotelephony is a “stuck” microphone button.
a)
Operators should always ensure that the button is released after a transmission and the microphone placed in an appropriate place ensuring that it will not inadvertently be switched on.
b)
Operators should ensure that the button is released after a transmission and the microphone placed in an appropriate place ensuring that it will not inadvertently be switched on.
c)
Operators should always ensure that the button is released after a transmission and the microphone placed in an appropriate place ensuring that it will inadvertently be switched off.
d)
Always ensure that the button is released after a transmission and the headset placed in an appropriate place ensuring that it will not inadvertently be switched on.
115.
When the language used for communication is English, number 4 shall be transmitted using the following pronunciation:
a)
FOW-er
b)
four
c)
fao-er
d)
faw-er
116.
All numbers used in the transmission of altitude, cloud height, visibility and runway visual range (RVR) information, which contain whole hundreds and whole thousands
a)
Shall be transmitted by pronouncing each digit in the number of hundreds or thousands followed by the word HUNDRED or THOUSAND as appropriate. Combinations of thousands and whole hundreds shall be transmitted by pronouncing each digit in the number of thousands followed by the word THOUSAND followed by the number of hundreds followed by the word HUNDRED.
b)
Shall be transmitted by pronouncing each digit in the number of hundreds or thousands followed by the word HUNDRED or THOUSAND as appropriate.
c)
Shall be transmitted by pronouncing each digit in the number of hundreds or thousands followed by the word HUNDRED or THOUSAND as appropriate. Combinations of thousands and whole hundreds shall be transmitted by pronouncing each digit in the number of thousands followed by the word HUNDRED followed by the number of hundreds followed by the word THOUSAND.
d)
Shall be transmitted by pronouncing each digit in the number of hundreds or thousands.
117.
Pilots may check the time with the appropriate ATS unit. Time checks shall be given to.....
a)
the nearest half minute
b)
the closer half minute
c)
the nearest 30 seconds
d)
the half minute
118.
The word ACKNOWLEDGE shall be used in radiotelephony communications as appropriate and shall have the meaning given below
a)
“Let me know that you have received and understood this message.”
b)
“Let me know that you have received this message.”
c)
“Let me know that you have received and understand this message.”
d)
“Let me know that you have received and understood this information.”
119.
The word CONFIRM shall be used in radiotelephony communications as appropriate and shall have the meaning given below :
a)
“I request verification of: (clearance, instruction, action, information).”
b)
Verify
c)
Request
d)
None above
120.
The word RECLEARED shall be used in radiotelephony communications as appropriate and shall have the meaning given below :
a)
“This new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof.”
b)
“A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof.”
c)
“A change has been made to your last clearance and this revised clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof.”
d)
“Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.”
121.
The word READ BACK shall be used in radiotelephony communications as appropriate and shall have the meaning given below :
a)
“Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received.”
b)
“Repeat the specified part of this message back to me exactly as received.”
c)
“Repeat this message back to me exactly as received.”
d)
“Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to your partner exactly as received.”
122.
The word STANDBY shall be used in radiotelephony communications as appropriate and shall have the meaning given below :
a)
“Wait and I will call you.”
b)
“Wait for a while.”
c)
"I will call you later."
d)
“Wait and call me later.”
123.
An aircraft call sign shall be one of the following types:
a)
The characters corresponding to the registration marking of the aircraft; ex G-ABCD or Cessna G-ABCD.
b)
The telephony designator of the aircraft operating agency, followed by the last four characters of the registration marking of the aircraft; ex:Vietjet DCAB
c)
The telephony designator of the aircraft operating agency, followed by the flight identification. Ex Vietnam 226
d)
All above are correct.
124.
When establishing communications, an aircraft should:
a)
Use the full call sign of both the aircraft and the aeronautical station.
b)
Use the call sign of both the aircraft and the aeronautical station.
c)
Use the full call sign of both the aircraft and owner company.
d)
Use the full call sign of the aircraft and spell it to aeronautical station.
125.
The word “CORRECTION” shall be spoken, the last correct group or phrase repeated and then the correct version transmitted.
a)
When an error is made in a transmission.
b)
When a mistake is made in a transmission.
c)
When an error is made in a coodination.
d)
When a wrong is made in cockpit.
126.
When it is considered that reception is likely to be difficult, important elements of the message should be spoken ......
a)
twice
b)
again
c)
slowly
d)
in local language
127.
The following shall always be read back:
a)
ATC route clearances;
b)
Clearances and instructions to enter, land on, take off from, hold short of, cross and backtrack on any runway;
c)
Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions and, whether issued by the controller or contained in ATIS broadcasts, transition levels.
d)
All above
128.
The following shall always be read back:
a)
ATC route clearances;
b)
Clearances and instructions to enter, land on, take off from, hold short of, cross and backtrack on any runway;
c)
Traffic information
d)
1 and 2 are correct
129.
The controller shall listen to the read-back:
a)
To ascertain that the clearance or instruction has been correctly acknowledged by the flight crew and shall take immediate action to correct any discrepancies revealed by the read-back.
b)
To ascertain that the clearance or instruction has been correctly acknowledged by the flight.
c)
To ascertain that the clearance or instruction has been correctly received by the flight crew and shall take immediate action to correct any discrepancies revealed by the read-back.
d)
To ascertain that the information has been correctly acknowledged by the flight crew and shall take immediate action to correct any discrepancies revealed by the read-back.
130.
Test transmissions should take the following form:
a)
The identification of the aeronautical station being called;
b)
The aircraft identification;
c)
The words “RADIO CHECK”; and the frequency being used.
d)
All above
131.
Approach control will normally advise the type of approach to be expected.
a)
On initial contact.
b)
As soon as possible.
c)
When passing transistion level.
d)
Not nescesary.
132.
What shall the pilots read back be for CLIMB TO 2.500 FEET?
a)
Climbing to two point five.
b)
Up to two thousand five hundred.
c)
Climbing to two thousand five hundred feet.
d)
Climbing to two thousand five hundred.
133.
Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?
a)
Aircraft identification, position, time, level.
b)
Aircraft identification, position, time.
c)
Aircraft identification, position, level.
d)
Aircraft identification, position, next position.
134.
ATC clears Fastair 345 to descent from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot?
a)
Descending to 80, Fastair 345.
b)
Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345.
c)
Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345.
d)
Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 345.
135.
Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?
a)
QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability.
b)
QNH, weather information, runway-in-use.
c)
ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information.
d)
SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions.
136.
Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance,instruction, etc?
a)
Confirm.
b)
Correct.
c)
Acknowledge.
d)
Verify.
137.
Distress conditions are defined as:
a)
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
b)
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
c)
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight and of requiring immediate assistance.
d)
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger.
138.
Urgency conditions are defined as:
a)
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
b)
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
c)
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight and of requiring immediate assistance.
d)
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger.
139.
The word “MAYDAY” spoken at the start identifies....... message:
a)
Abnomal.
b)
A distress.
c)
An urgency.
d)
None above.
140.
The words “PAN PAN” at the start identifies an ..... message.
a)
Abnomal.
b)
A distress.
c)
An urgency.
d)
None above.
141.
The words “MAYDAY” or “PAN PAN”, as appropriate, should preferably be ........... at the start of the initial distress or urgency call.
a)
spoken 4 times.
b)
spoken 2 times.
c)
spoken 3 times.
d)
spoken only ones.
142.
When an aircraft announces that it is making an emergency descent, the controller will:
a)
Take all possible action to safeguard other aircraft.
b)
The general broadcast to warn aircraft of an emergency descent should be followed, as necessary, by specific instructions.
c)
1 or 2.
d)
1 and 2.
143.
After suffering a radio receiver failure the pilots should make blind transmissions preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure" and subsequently:
a)
Hold for 5 minutes.
b)
Proceed to the pre-planned alternate.
c)
Enter the next en-route holding pattern encountered.
d)
Advise the time of the next intended transmission.
144.
When an aircraft has informed an ATS unit that it intends to dump fuel, the ATS unit will:
a)
Coordinate with the flight crew the route to be flown, the level to be used and the duration of the fuel dumping. Other known traffic will be separated from the aircraft dumping fuel with specified minima. For non-controlled traffic a warning will be broadcast.
b)
Coordinate with the flight crew the route to be flown, the level to be used and the duration of the fuel dumping.
c)
Coordinate with the flight crew the route to be flown and the duration of the fuel dumping. Other known traffic will be separated from the aircraft dumping fuel with specified minima. For non-controlled traffic a warning will be broadcast.
d)
Coordinate with the flight crew the route to be flown, the level to be used. Other known traffic will be separated from the aircraft dumping fuel with specified minima. For non-controlled traffic a warning will be broadcast.
145.
When an aeronautical station has been unable to establish contact with an aircraft after calls on the frequencies on which the aircraft is believed to be listening, it shall:
a)
Request other aeronautical stations to render assistance by calling the aircraft and relaying traffic, if necessary;
b)
Request aircraft on the route to attempt to establish communication with the aircraft and relay messages, if necessary.
c)
a and/or b.
d)
Continuing blind transmission.
146.
When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include?
a)
MAYDAY, resuming normal operations.
b)
Cancel distress.
c)
MAYDAY cancelled.
d)
Distress condition terminated .
147.
What is the minimum visibility for Cat A,B,C aircraft using ILS y, z approach procedures runway 25R (without GP) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome?
a)
2400m
b)
2800m
c)
2000m
d)
1000m
148.
What is the minimum visibility for cat D aircraft using ILS y, z approach procedures runway 25L (without GP) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome?
a)
2400m
b)
1000m
c)
2100m
d)
2000m
149.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for ILS/DME y, z approach RWY 25R at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
80m/600m
b)
80m/1000m
c)
65m/850m
d)
120m/2000m
150.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for ILS/DME y,z approach RWY 25L (CAT D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
85m/1000m
b)
120m/2000m
c)
100m/1200m
d)
120m/2400m
151.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT. C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
128m/2800m
b)
128m/1600m
c)
128m/2000m
d)
128m/2400m
152.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
128m/2000m
b)
128m/1600m
c)
128m/2400m
d)
128m/2800m
153.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for NDB approach RWY 25R (CAT. A) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
145m/2400m
b)
145m/2000m
c)
165m/2600m
d)
145m/2800m
154.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for NDB approach RWY 25R (CAT. D) is:
a)
145m/2400m
b)
145m/1600m
c)
165m/2800m
d)
145m/2800m
155.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT. C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
128m/1600m
b)
128m/2800m
c)
128m/2000m
d)
128m/2400m
156.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 25R (CAT. A, B, C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
80m/800m
b)
80m/850m
c)
60m/800m
d)
75m/800m
157.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 25R (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
85m/900m
b)
80m/800m
c)
80m/900m
d)
85m/800m
158.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 25L (CAT. A, B) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
95m/700m
b)
85m/900m
c)
70m/700m
d)
85m/800m
159.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 25L (CAT D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
100m/800m
b)
70m/550m
c)
100m/550m
d)
70m/700m
160.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS y, z approach RWY 07R (CAT. A, B) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
75m/800m
b)
80m/800m
c)
70m/800m
d)
70m/500m
161.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS y, z approach RWY 07R (CAT. C, D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
80m/900m
b)
85m/900m
c)
80m/800m
d)
75m/900m
162.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 07R (CAT. A, B, C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
80m/800m
b)
80m/950m
c)
70m/900m
d)
70m/950m
163.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 07R (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
85m/900m
b)
80m/800m
c)
80m/900m
d)
85m/800m
164.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS y, z approach RWY 25R (CAT. A, B, C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
80m/800m
b)
65m/600m
c)
60m/800m
d)
75m/800m
165.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS y,z approach RWY 25R (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
85m/900m
b)
65m/600m
c)
80m/900m
d)
85m/800m
166.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS y, z approach RWY 25L (CAT. A, B) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
95m/900m
b)
95m/700m
c)
70m/700m
d)
85m/800m
167.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS y, z approach RWY 25L (CAT D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
100m/900m
b)
100m/800m
c)
100m/550m
d)
70m/700m
168.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 25L (CAT D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
100m/800m
b)
70m/550m
c)
100m/550m
d)
70m/700m
169.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS y,z approach RWY 07R (CAT. A, B, C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
80m/950m
b)
80m/800m
c)
70m/900m
d)
70m/950m
170.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS y,z approach RWY 07R (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
80m/950m
b)
85m/900m
c)
70m/900m
d)
70m/950m
171.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 25L (without GP) CAT A, B at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
145m/1500m
b)
70m/550m
c)
100m/550m
d)
70m/700m
172.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 25R (without GP) CAT A, B at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
145m/1500m
b)
70m/550m
c)
100m/550m
d)
70m/700m
173.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 25R (without GP) CAT C, D at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
145m/1800m
b)
70m/550m
c)
100m/550m
d)
70m/700m
174.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS x approach RWY 07R (without GP) CAT C, D at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
130m/1500m
b)
70m/550m
c)
100m/550m
d)
70m/700m
175.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ RVR) for ILS y, z approach RWY 07R (without GP) CAT C, D at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
70m/1500m
b)
130m/1500m
c)
100m/550m
d)
70m/700m
176.
After departure , an IFR aircraft loses two- way communications. What should the pilot ‘s course of action be:
a)
Continue to fly to the destination airport , whatever the weather conditions are.
b)
Return to the departure airport immediately , whatever the weather conditions are .
c)
Return to the departure airport immediately if the weather is VMC or continue the flight to the destination airport if the weather is IMC.
d)
Land at the most suitable nearest aerodrome while enroute.
177.
The pilot of an aircraft experiencing two-way radio communication failure set his transponder to code:
a)
A/3 7400
b)
A/3 7500
c)
A/3 7600
d)
A/3 7700
178.
According to the current regulations , what is the parking number used for unlawful interference aircraft ?
a)
North South TWY
b)
Parking 70
c)
Parking 50
d)
All of the above
179.
An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established . The aircraft should be considered in:
a)
Uncertainty phase
b)
Alert phase
c)
Distress phase
d)
Emergency phase
180.
What are the international aviation urgency signals?
a)
SOS
b)
MAYDAY
c)
PANPAN
d)
All the above
181.
Which SSR Code should be selected to indicate radio communication failure?
a)
7600 + Mode C.
b)
7700 + Mode C.
c)
7500 + Mode C.
d)
7000
182.
The three phases of the alerting service are:
a)
Uncertainty phase, Uncerfa and Alert phase
b)
Uncertainty phase, Alerfa and Alert phase
c)
Uncerfa, Alerfa and Detresfa
d)
Uncertainty phase, Alert phase and Distress phase
183.
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
a)
search and rescue co-ordination centres
b)
flight information or control organisations
c)
air traffic co-ordination services
d)
operational air traffic control centres
184.
Alert phase is defined as follows:
a)
A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted
b)
An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger
c)
A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency
d)
A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants
185.
Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference?
a)
ALERFA
b)
INCERFA
c)
DETRESFA
d)
None of the above
186.
Alerting service shall be provided:
a)
To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference only
b)
For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only
c)
For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS
d)
In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the ATS
187.
A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case:
a)
The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome
b)
The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly
c)
There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance
d)
The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted
188.
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
a)
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase
b)
uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase
c)
uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase
d)
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase
189.
The alerting service is provided for:
a)
All aircraft provided with ATC
b)
All aircraft which have filed a flight plan or are otherwise known to ATC
c)
To any aircraft believed to have been the subject of unlawful interference
d)
All of the above
190.
To whom is the alerting service provided?
a)
All IFR traffic
b)
All flight-planned aircraft
c)
All hi-jacked aircraft
d)
All traffic known to ATC
191.
An aircraft is in emergency when:
a)
It is threatened by grave danger and requires immediate assistance
b)
It is threatened by grave danger
c)
It is forced to land
d)
All answers are correct
192.
A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergency phase does this situation correspond?
a)
INCERFA
b)
DETRESSFA
c)
RESERFA
d)
ALERFA
193.
Which of the following frequencies are used for emergency operations?
a)
243 MHz
b)
2182 KHz
c)
121.5 MHz, 243 MHz
d)
121.5 MHz
194.
Which of the following statements describes the Uncertainty Phase (INCERFA)?
a)
An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established
b)
An aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
c)
An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC
d)
An aircraft declares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety
195.
Which of the following statements describes the Distress Phase (DETRESFA)?
a)
An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established
b)
An aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
c)
An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC
d)
An aircraft declares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety
196.
DETRESFA is where:
a)
No communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received
b)
An aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land
c)
The fuel on board is considered to be exhausted
d)
Both 1 and 2
197.
The accident investigation preliminary report shall be submitted to appropriate States and to the ICAO, in:
a)
English
b)
The languageof the investigating State
c)
Any of the world's major languages
d)
One of the working languages of ICAO
198.
Definition of INCERFA:
a)
The code word used to designate an alert phase.
b)
The code word used to designate a certainty phase.
c)
The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase.
d)
None of above.
199.
Definition of DETRESFA:
a)
The code word used to designate a distress phase.
b)
The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase.
c)
The code word used to designate an alert phase.
d)
None of above.
200.
Definition of ALERFA:
a)
The code word used to designate a distress phase.
b)
The code word used to designate an alert phase
c)
The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase
d)
1 and 3
201.
The threshold elevation of RWY 25R is:
a)
9.9m
b)
10m
c)
6.1m
d)
5.7m
202.
The threshold elevation of RWY 25L is:
a)
9.8m
b)
5.3m
c)
6.1m
d)
5.7m
203.
The threshold elevation of RWY 07R is:
a)
9.9m
b)
5.3m
c)
6.1m
d)
5.4m
204.
The threshold elevation of RWY 07R( Displaced threshold) is:
a)
9.9m
b)
7.2m
c)
6.1m
d)
5.7m
205.
The threshold elevation of RWY 07L is:
a)
9.9m
b)
5.3m
c)
6.2m
d)
5.7m
206.
TODA of RWY25L( from the intersection with TWY S3) is:
a)
3108m
b)
3218m
c)
3528m
d)
3059m
207.
ASDA of RWY 25L(from the intersection with TWY S3 ) is:
a)
3108m
b)
3218m
c)
3348m
d)
3059m
208.
TORA of RWY07R(from the intersection with TWY S8 ) is:
a)
3048m
b)
3218m
c)
3313m
d)
3059m
209.
TODA of RWY 07R(from the intersection with TWYS8 )is:
a)
3048m
b)
3218m
c)
3359m
d)
3059m
210.
ASDA of RWY07R(from the intersection with TWY S8 )is:
a)
3048m
b)
3218m
c)
3209m
d)
3059m
211.
The bearing strength of RWY25R/07L is:
a)
PCN 63/R/B/X/T
b)
PCN 90/R/B/W/T
c)
PCN 65/R/B/X/T
d)
PCN 86/R/B/W/T
212.
The bearing strength of RWY25L/07R is:
a)
PCN 63/R/B/X/T
b)
PCN 85/R/B/W/T
c)
PCN 65/R/B/X/T
d)
PCN 86/R/B/W/T
213.
The inbound track in holding pattern at TSN DVOR/DME is:
a)
048º
b)
228º
c)
249º
d)
069º
214.
The outbound track in holding pattern at TSN DVOR/DME is:
a)
228º
b)
048º
c)
249º
d)
069º
215.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 25R (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
145m/2000m
b)
145m/2200m
c)
145m/2800m
d)
145m/3200m
216.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L (CAT. A,B) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
131m/2800m
b)
131m/2000m
c)
135m/1600m
d)
131m/2400m
217.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L (CAT. C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
131/1600m
b)
131m/2400m
c)
135m/2000m
d)
131m/2800m
218.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
131/1600m
b)
131m/2800m
c)
135m/2400m
d)
131m/2000m
219.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT. A) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
128m/2000m
b)
128m/2800m
c)
128m/1600m
d)
128m/2400m
220.
In holding pattern at TSN DVOR/DME, all turns are to be made to the……..
a)
Left
b)
Right
221.
What is the position of LLZ ITS?
a)
325m from threshold RWY25L
b)
268m from threshold RWY 25L
c)
340m from threshold RWY 25L
d)
314m from threshold RWY 25L
222.
What is the position of LLZ HCM?
a)
268m from threshold RWY07L
b)
325m from threshold RWY 07L
c)
340m from threshold RWY 07L
d)
314m from threshold RWY 07L
223.
What is the position of LLZ SGN?
a)
325m from threshold RWY07R
b)
268m from threshold RWY 07R
c)
340m from threshold RWY 07R
d)
314m from threshold RWY 07R
224.
What is the frequency of GP/DME RWY 25R?
a)
334.1Mhz/ CH20X
b)
329.6Mhz/ CH 42X
c)
108.3Mhz/ CH20X
d)
333.5Mhz/ CH 54X
100 %
