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aws 2023 udemy test 1

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following AWS features or services can be used to provide root storage volumes for Amazon EC2 instances?

a)

Amazon Elastic File System (EFS)

b)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

c)

Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3)

d)

Amazon Machine Image

2.

A company plans to use reserved instances to get discounted pricing for Amazon EC2 instances. The company may need to change the EC2 instance type during the one year period.

Which instance purchasing option is the MOST cost-effective for this use case?

a)

Regional Reserved Instances

b)

Convertible Reserved Instances

c)

Standard Reserved Instances

d)

Zonal Reserved Instances

3.

Which of the following statements best describes the concept of agility in relation to cloud computing on AWS? (Select TWO.)

a)

The elimination of wasted capacity.

b)

The ability to experiment quickly.

c)

The speed at which AWS rolls out new features.

d)

The ability to automatically scale capacity

e)

The speed at which AWS resources can be created.

4.

A company is deploying an application in the AWS Cloud. How can they secure the application? (Select TWO.)

a)

Enable monitoring by turning off encryption for data in transit.

b)

Provide full admin access to developer and operations staff.

c)

Enable encryption for the application data at rest.

d)

Configure public access for the AWS services used by the application.

e)

Limit access privileges according to the principal of least privilege.

5.

A Cloud Practitioner is developing a new application and wishes to integrate features of AWS services directly into the application.

Which of the following is the BEST tool for this purpose?

a)

AWS Software Development Kit

b)

AWS CodePipeline

c)

AWS CodeDeploy

d)

AWS CodeDeploy

6.

For what purpose would a Cloud Practitioner access AWS Artifact?

a)

Gain access to AWS security and compliance documents.

b)

Gain access to AWS security and compliance documents.

c)

Access training materials for AWS services.

d)

Create a security assessment report for AWS services.

7.

Which AWS service can a company use to discover and protect sensitive data that is stored in Amazon S3 buckets.

a)

Amazon Detective

b)

Amazon Macie

c)

AWS Policy Generator      

d)

Amazon GuardDuty          

8.

Which AWS service can a team use to deploy infrastructure on AWS using familiar programming languages?

a)

AWS Config

b)

AWS Cloud Development Kit (AWS CDK)

c)

Amazon CodeGuru

d)

AWS CodeCommit

9.

Which of the following are valid benefits of using the AWS Cloud? (Select TWO.)

a)

Outsource all application development to AWS.

b)

Fast provisioning of IT resources.               

c)

Total control over data center infrastructure.

d)

Total control over data center infrastructure.

e)

Outsource all operational risk.

10.

A company is deploying a new web application in a single AWS Region that will be used by users globally.

a)

AWS Transit Gateway

b)

AWS Global Accelerator

c)

AWS Snowcone

d)

Amazon CloudFront

e)

AWS Direct Connect

11.

A company must provide access to AWS resources for their employees. Which security practices should they follow? (Select TWO.)

a)

 

Create IAM users in different AWS Regions.

b)

Enable multi-factor authentication for users.

c)

Create IAM policies based on least privilege principles.

d)

Create IAM Roles and apply them to IAM groups.

e)

Disable password policies and management console access.

12.

A company is planning to deploy an application with a relational database on AWS. The application layer requires access to the database instance’s operating system in order to run scripts.

The company prefer to keep management overhead to a minimum. Which deployment should be used for the database?

a)

Amazon RDS

b)

Amazon EC2

c)

Amazon S3

d)

Amazon DynamoDB

13.

Which AWS service or feature can assist with protecting a website that is hosted outside of AWS?

a)

AWS Web Application Firewall (WAF)

b)

Amazon VPC route tables

c)

Amazon VPC network ACLs

d)

Amazon EC2 security groups

14.

Which of the following will help a user determine if they need to request an Amazon EC2 service limit increase?

a)

AWS Trusted Advisor

b)

AWS Health Dashboard

c)

AWS Cost Explorer

d)

Amazon RDS

15.

Customers using AWS services must patch operating systems on which of the following services?

a)

Amazon DynamoDB

b)

Amazon EC2

c)

AWS Lambda

d)

AWS Fargate

16.

A company is deploying an application on Amazon EC2 that requires low-latency access to application components in an on-premises data center. Which AWS service or resource can the company use to extend their existing VPC to the on-premises data center?

a)

Amazon Connect

b)

AWS Outposts

c)

AWS Direct Connect

d)

Amazon Workspaces

17.

A company uses Amazon EC2 instances to run applications that are dedicated to different departments. The company needs to break out the costs of these applications and allocate them to the relevant department. The EC2 instances run in a single VPC.

How can the company achieve these requirements?

a)

Create tags by department on the instances and then run a cost allocation report.

b)

Enable billing access for IAM users and view the costs in Cost Explorer.

c)

Enable billing alerts through Amazon CloudWatch and Amazon SNS.

d)

Add additional Amazon VPCs and launch each application in a separate VPC.

18.

A website has a global customer base and users have reported poor performance when connecting to the site.

Which AWS service will improve the customer experience by reducing latency?

a)

AWS Direct Connect

b)

Amazon CloudFront

c)

Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

d)

Amazon ElastiCache

19.

Which of the following AWS services are compute services? (Select TWO.)

a)

AWS Batch

b)

AWS CloudTrail

c)

Amazon Inspector

d)

Amazon EFS

e)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

20.

AWS are able to continually reduce their pricing due to:

a)

Pay-as-you go pricing.

b)

Economies of scale.

c)

Compute savings plans.

d)

Elastic compute services.

21.

Which AWS Cloud service provides recommendations on how to optimize performance for AWS services?

a)

Amazon Inspector

b)

AWS CloudTrail

c)

AWS Trusted Advisor

d)

Amazon CloudWatch

22.

What can a Cloud Practitioner use to categorize and track AWS costs by project?

a)

AWS Trusted Advisor

b)

Cost Allocation Tags      

c)

Consolidated billing

d)

Multiple accounts

23.

When running applications in the AWS Cloud, which common tasks can AWS manage on behalf of their customers? (Select TWO.)

a)

Taking a backup of a database

b)

Application security testing

c)

Application source code auditing

d)

Patching database software

e)

Creating a database schema

24.

According to the AWS shared responsibility model, which of the following is a responsibility of AWS?

a)

Patching software running on Amazon EC2 instances.

b)

Updating security group rules to enable connectivity.

c)

Updating the firmware on the underlying EC2 hosts.

d)

Configuring network ACLs to block malicious attacks.

25.

Which tasks require the use of the AWS account root user? (Select TWO.)

a)

Changing payment currency.

b)

Changing AWS Support plans.

c)

Enabling encryption for S3.

d)

Viewing AWS CloudTrail logs.

e)

Changing the account name.

26.

A company is migrating a monolithic application that does not scale well into the cloud and refactoring it into a microservices architecture.

Which best practice of the AWS Well-Architected Framework does this plan relate to?

a)

Stop spending money on undifferentiated heavy lifting.

b)

Use multiple solutions to improve performance.

c)

Manage change in automation.

d)

Implement loosely coupled services.

27.

A user needs to identify underutilized Amazon EC2 instances to reduce costs.

Which AWS service or feature will meet this requirement?

a)

AWS CodeBuild

b)

AWS Cost Explorer

c)

AWS Health Dashboard

d)

AWS Trusted Advisor

28.

An application uses a PostgreSQL database running on a single Amazon EC2 instance. A Cloud Practitioner has been asked to increase the availability of the database so there is automatic recovery in the case of a failure.

Which tasks can the Cloud Practitioner take to meet this requirement?

a)

Configure an Elastic Load Balancer in front of the EC2 instance.

b)

Configure EC2 Auto Recovery to move the instance to another Region.

c)

Migrate the database to Amazon RDS and enable the Multi-AZ feature.

d)

Set the DeleteOnTermination value to false for the EBS root volume.

29.

What is one method of protecting against distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks in the AWS Cloud?

a)

Enable AWS CloudTrail logging.

b)

Use Amazon CloudWatch monitoring.

c)

Configure a firewall in front of resources.

d)

Monitor the AWS Health Dashboard.

30.

A company has multiple AWS accounts and is using AWS Organizations with consolidated billing. Which advantages will they benefit from? (Select TWO.)

a)

They will receive a fixed discount for all usage across accounts.

b)

The default service limits in all accounts will be increased.

c)

They may benefit from lower unit pricing for aggregated usage.

d)

They will be automatically enrolled in a business support plan.

e)

They will receive one bill for the accounts in the Organization.

31.

How much data can a company store in the Amazon S3 service?

a)

1 PB

b)

100 PB

c)

100 TB

d)

Virtually unlimited

32.

An individual IAM user must be granted access to an Amazon S3 bucket using a bucket policy. Which element in the S3 bucket policy should be updated to define the user account for which access will be granted?

a)

Resource

b)

Condition

c)

Action

d)

Principal

33.

A large company is interested in avoiding long-term contracts and moving from fixed costs to variable costs.

What is the value proposition of AWS for this company?

a)

Economies of scale

b)

Pay-as-you-go pricing

c)

Automated cost optimization

d)

Volume pricing discounts

34.

A company is deploying a new workload and software licensing requirements dictate that the workload must be run on a specific, physical server.

Which Amazon EC2 instance deployment option should be used?

a)

Spot Instances

b)

Dedicated Hosts

c)

Dedicated Instances             

d)

Reserved Instances

35.

What are AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) access keys used for?

a)

Enabling encryption in transit for web servers.

b)

Logging in to the AWS Management Console.

c)

Ensuring the integrity of log files.

d)

Making programmatic calls to AWS from AWS APIs.

36.

Which resource should a new user on AWS use to get help with deploying popular technologies based on AWS best practices, including architecture and deployment instructions?

a)

AWS Config

b)

AWS CloudFormation

c)

AWS Artifact

d)

AWS Quick Starts

37.

Which AWS services can a company use to gather information about activity in their AWS account? (Select TWO.)

a)

AWS CloudTrail

b)

Amazon CloudWatch

c)

Amazon CloudFront

d)

AWS Trusted Advisor

e)

Amazon Connect

38.

What advantages does a database administrator obtain by using the Amazon Relational Database Service (RDS)?

a)

RDS databases automatically scale based on load.

b)

RDS simplifies relational database administration tasks.

c)

RDS provides 99.99999999999% reliability and durability.

d)

RDS enables users to dynamically adjust CPU and RAM resources.

39.

A company is deploying a MySQL database on AWS. The database must easily scale and have automatic backup enabled.

Which AWS service should the company use?

a)

Amazon DocumentDB

b)

Amazon DynamoDB

c)

Amazon Aurora

d)

Amazon Athena

40.

A user is planning to launch three EC2 instances behind a single Elastic Load Balancer. The deployment should be highly available. How should the user achieve this?

a)

Launch the instances in multiple AWS Regions, and use Elastic IP addresses.

b)

Launch the instances across multiple Availability Zones in a single AWS Region.

c)

Launch the instances as EC2 Reserved Instances in the same AWS Region, but in different Availability Zones.

d)

Launch the instances as EC2 Spot Instances in the same AWS Region and the same Availability Zone.

41.

A company has many underutilized compute resources on-premises. Which AWS Cloud feature will help resolve this issue?

a)

Global deployment

b)

Fault tolerance

c)

High availability

d)

Elasticity

42.

Which of the following can an AWS customer use to launch a new ElastiCache cluster? (Select TWO.)

a)

AWS Data Pipeline

b)

AWS CloudFormation

c)

AWS Systems Manager

d)

AWS Management Console

e)

AWS Concierge

43.

A company is planning to move a number of legacy applications to the AWS Cloud. The solution must be cost-effective. Which approach should the company take?

a)

Use an Amazon S3 static website to host the legacy application code.

b)

Migrate the applications to dedicated hosts on Amazon EC2.

c)

Use AWS Lambda to host the legacy applications in the cloud.

d)

Rehost the applications on Amazon EC2 instances that are right-sized.

44.

What is the best practice for managing AWS IAM access keys?

a)

Customers should rotate access keys regularly.

b)

There is no need to manage access keys.

c)

AWS rotate access keys on a schedule.

d)

Never use access keys, always use IAM roles.

45.

A company plans to deploy a relational database on AWS. The IT department will perform database administration. Which service should the company use?

a)

Amazon RedShift

b)

Amazon EC2

c)

Amazon ElastiCache

d)

Amazon DynamoDB

46.

A company is launching a new website which is expected to have highly variable levels of traffic. The website will run on Amazon EC2 and must be highly available.

What is the MOST cost-effective approach?

a)

Launch the website using an Amazon EC2 instance running on a dedicated host.

b)

Determine the highest expected traffic and use an appropriate instance type.

c)

Use the AWS CLI to launch and terminate Amazon EC2 instances to match demand.

d)

Create an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group and configure an Elastic Load Balancer.

47.

Which AWS feature can be used to launch a pre-configured Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instance?

a)

Amazon EC2 Systems Manager

b)

Amazon AppStream 2.0

c)

Amazon Machine Image (AMI)            

d)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

48.

A company is designing a new a service that must align with the operational excellence pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework.

Which design principles should the company follow? (Select TWO.)

a)

Perform manual operations.

b)

Anticipate failure.

c)

Perform operations as code.

d)

Make large-scale changes.

e)

Create static operational procedures.

49.

Which of the following deployments involves the reliability pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework?

a)

Use CloudFormation to deploy infrastructure

b)

Attach a WebACL to a CloudFront distribution

c)

Amazon RDS Multi-AZ deployment

d)

Amazon EBS provisioned IOPS volume

50.

Which tasks can a user complete using the AWS Cost Management tools? (Select TWO.)

a)

Create budgets and receive notifications if current or forecasted usage exceeds the budgets.

b)

Launch either EC2 Spot instances or On-Demand instances based on the current pricing.

c)

Delete all of your AWS resources with a single click.

d)

Automatically terminate AWS resources if budget thresholds are exceeded.

e)

Move data stored in Amazon S3 Standard to an archiving storage class to reduce cost.

51.

Which of the following represents a value proposition for using the AWS Cloud?

a)

AWS is responsible for securing your applications.

b)

AWS provides full access to their data centers.

c)

It is not necessary to enter into long term contracts.

d)

Customers can request specialized hardware.

52.

Which of the following is a sole responsibility of AWS?

a)

Availability Zone management

b)

Patch management

c)

Application deployment

d)

Customer data access controls

53.

Which AWS service provides a managed software version control system?

a)

AWS CodeCommit

b)

AWS DataSync

c)

AWS CodePipeline

d)

Amazon CodeDeploy

54.

Which type of credential should a Cloud Practitioner use for programmatic access to AWS resources from the AWS CLI/API?

a)

SSL/TLS certificate

b)

Access keys

c)

User name and password

d)

SSH public keys

55.

How does the AWS cloud increase the speed and agility of execution for customers? (Select TWO.)

a)

Fast provisioning of resources

b)

Lower cost of deployment

c)

Secured data centers

d)

Scalable compute capacity

e)

Private connections to data centers

56.

A Cloud Practitioner needs to monitor a new Amazon EC2 instances CPU and network utilization. Which AWS service should be used?

a)

AWS CloudTrail

b)

Amazon Inspector

c)

Amazon CloudWatch

d)

AWS Systems Manager

57.

Which design principles are enabled by the AWS Cloud to improve the operation of workloads? (Select TWO.)

a)

Customized hardware

b)

Remove single points of failure

c)

Minimize platform design

d)

Minimum viable product

e)

Loose coupling

58.

A company runs a batch job on an Amazon EC2 instance and it takes 6 hours to complete. The workload is expected to double in volume each month with a proportional increase in processing time.

What is the most efficient cloud architecture to address the growing workload?

a)

Run the application on a bare metal Amazon EC2 instance.

b)

Run the batch workload in parallel across multiple Amazon EC2 instances.

c)

Change the Amazon EC2 volume type to a Provisioned IOPS SSD volume.

d)

Run the batch job on a larger Amazon EC2 instance type with more CPU.

59.

A customer needs to determine Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) for a workload that requires physical isolation. Which hosting model should be accounted for?

a)

Spot Instances

b)

Reserved Instances

c)

Dedicated Hosts

d)

On-Demand Instances

60.

Which benefits can a company gain by deploying a relational database on Amazon RDS instead of Amazon EC2? (Select TWO.)

a)

Indexing of tables

b)

Automated backups

c)

Root access to OS

d)

Schema management

e)

Software patching

61.

A Cloud Practitioner anticipates an increase in application traffic at a future date and time when a sales event will take place. How can the Cloud Practitioner configure Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling to ensure the right number of Amazon EC2 instances are available ahead of the event?

a)

Configure a scheduled scaling policy.

b)

Configure predictive scaling.

c)

Configure a target tracking scaling policy.

d)

Configure a step scaling policy.

62.

A Cloud Practitioner requires point-in-time recovery (PITR) for an Amazon DynamoDB table. Who is responsible for configuring and performing backups?

a)

AWS is responsible for both tasks.

b)

The customer is responsible for both tasks.

c)

AWS is responsible for configuring and the user is responsible for performing backups.

d)

The customer is responsible for configuring and AWS is responsible for performing backups.

63.

A company needs to publish messages to a thousands of subscribers simultaneously using a push mechanism.

Which AWS service should the company use?

a)

Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

b)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

c)

Amazon Simple Workflow Service (SWF)

d)

AWS Step Functions

64.

An Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) can include multiple:

a)

Internet gateways.

b)

Availability Zones.

c)

Edge locations.

d)

AWS Regions.

65.

A Cloud Practitioner needs a tool that can assist with viewing and managing AWS costs and usage over time. Which tool should the Cloud Practitioner use?

a)

AWS Budgets

b)

AWS Organizations

c)

AWS Cost Explorer

d)

Amazon Inspector