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MBB 504 Assessment

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which document may contain useful information about the hazards of a chemical?

a)

Chemical Hygiene Plan

b)

Chemical Risk Document

c)

Course Syllabus

d)

Material Safety Data Sheet

2.

Which statement is true?

a)

All chemicals are hazardous

b)

Only chemicals that are toxic are considered hazardous

c)

Only chemicals in open beakers are hazardous.

d)

Only liquids and gaseous chemicals are hazardous.

3.

Why are safety symbols important?

a)

Tells about how to do the experiment.

b)

Because the icon looks cool

c)

Tells about the content of the substances

d)

Tells about specific dangers of the contents

4.

Solid chemicals spilt on the skin can usually be brushed off with no adverse consequences

a)

Yes

b)

No

5.

Examples of personal protective equipment do NOT include:

a)

Long-sleeve shirts

b)

Goggles and long pants

c)

Lab coats

d)

Contact lenses

6.

Long hair in the laboratory must be

a)

Should be cut short.

b)

Tied back or kept entirely out of the way

c)

Always neatly groomed.

d)

Held away from the experiment with one hand.

7.

When you finish working with chemicals, biological specimens, and other lab substances, always

a)

Treat your hands with skin lotion.

b)

Wipe your hands on a towel.

c)

Wipe your hands on your clothes.

d)

Wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water

8.

What is the goal of aseptic techniques?

a)

To prevent contamination from the worker only

b)

To prevent contamination from the environment only

c)

To prevent any source of contamination

d)

To prevent cross contamination

9.

What is the bunsen burner used for in a LAF chamber?

a)

Keeping warm

b)

Sterilizing equipment

c)

Collecting/spreading bacteria

d)

Stopping contamination

10.

The equipment used to avoid contamination of culture materials

a)

Safety shower

b)

Fume chamber

c)

Laminar flow cabinet

d)

Fire extinguisher

11.

Which among these is used for sterilizing media and apparatus?

a)

b)

c)

d)

12.

What type of shoes should you wear to lab?

a)

Flip flops

b)

Socks and sandals

c)

Closed toed shoes

d)

No shoes required

13.
The proper technique for smelling chemicals is ______________
a)

keeping your nose close to the glassware

b)

wafting

c)

to sniff only a small amount

d)

Trick question; you never are allowed to smell chemicals in class

14.
Keeping your work area neat and clean is important because:
a)

It looks decent

b)

I won't lose my supplies in the clutter.

c)

It keeps the room from looking messy.

d)

It helps prevent accidents.

15.

A technique for making millions of copies of a specific region of DNA.

a)

Southern blotting

b)

restriction digestion

c)

gel electrophoresis

d)

polymerase chain reaction

16.

At what temperature does the Extension step of PCR occur?

a)

95°C

b)

50-65°C

c)

72°C

d)

Any temperature

17.

If two copies of a double-stranded DNA molecule are present in a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process, how many double-stranded DNA molecules can be obtained after three cycles?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

12

d)

16

18.

Pattern of DNA fragments obtained by examining a person's unique sequence of DNA pairs.

a)

DNA Fingerprint

b)

Allele

c)

RAPD

d)

Karyotype

19.

A method for separating molecules, such as DNA or protein, according to their size and electrical charge

a)

Electrophoresis

b)

DNA Fingerprint

c)

DNA Probe

d)

PCR

20.

Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the Anode?

a)

DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit

b)

DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit

c)

the agarose gel in negatively charged

d)

the agarose gel is positively charged

21.

Which statement is true about plasmids?

a)
Plasmids can be cut at specific sequences called restriction sites.
b)
Plasmids contain a promoter sequence that defines where transcription begins.
c)
Plasmids can contain an antibiotic resistance gene.
d)
All of the statements are true about plasmids.
22.

Which of the following terms describes the uptake of recombinant plasmids into bacteria cells?

a)

Cloning

b)

Insertion

c)

Transformation

d)

Screening

23.

Which restriction enzyme listed below was isolated from E. coli?

a)

EcoRI

b)

HindIII

c)

HaeII

d)

SmaI

24.

What happens in the denaturation step of PCR?

a)

The phosphodiester bonds are denatured.

b)

The nitrogenous bases are released.

c)

The DNA is fragmented.

d)

The hydrogen bonds are broken.

25.

The recognition sites for restriction enzymes are :

a)

a).Tautomer

b)

b). Pallindrome

c)

c).Metamere

d)

d).Acronym

26.

Restriction Enzymes were primarily used for

a)

Defence by Protozoa against antibiotics

b)

Cleaving Bacterial genome by viruses

c)

Defence by Bacteria against bacteriophages

d)

All of the above

27.

Northern blotting:

a)

Uses antibodies to detect proteins

b)

Uses DNA probes to detect DNA

fragments

c)

Uses DNA probes to detect RNA

fragments

d)

Sorts DNA fragments by size

28.

Southern blotting:

a)

Uses antibodies to detect proteins

b)

Uses DNA probes to detect DNA

fragments

c)

Uses DNA probes to detect RNA

fragments

d)

Sorts DNA fragments by size

29.

Western blotting:

a)

Uses antibodies to detect proteins

b)

Uses DNA probes to detect DNA

fragments

c)

Uses DNA probes to detect RNA

fragments

d)

Sorts DNA fragments by size

30.

This diagram represents

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

Polymerase chain reaction

c)

Western blotting

d)

Southern blotting

31.

What is a cDNA?

a)

Collection of total genomic DNA

b)

tDNA found in plants

c)

DNA complementary to mRNA

d)

A class of double-stranded RNA

32.

Choose the enzyme that can be used to seal the ends of a plasmid

a)

Taq polymerase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

EcoRI

d)

SmaI

33.

A mixture of DNA fragments with varying sizes is loaded on an agarose gel and a voltage is applied, the DNA will migrate. Which molecules will migrate the slower?

a)

The shortest

b)

The longest

c)

Molecules with more of A/T nucleotides

d)

Molecules with more of G/C nucleotides

34.

What does the term Molecular cloning refer to?

a)

Cutting DNA with restriction nucleases

b)

Putting a foreign gene into a cell

c)

Making identical copies of DNA

d)

Making identical copies of a cell

35.

ELISA can detect

a)

Enzymes

b)

Antibodies

c)

Viruses

d)

All of the above

36.

SDS-PAGE can be used to determine purity of a protein sample

a)

True

b)

False

37.

When protein sample is treated with sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS)

a)

Proteins become negatively charged.

b)

Proteins become positively charged.

c)

Stabilises the native protein structure.

d)

Adjust the pH of protein.

38.

What is the purpose of using bromophenol blue in the sample buffer?

a)

To ionize the sample.

b)

To monitor the electrophoretic run.

c)

To act as standard control

d)

To adjust the pH of sample.

39.

To make 30% Polyacrylamide solution: Dissolve 29g acrylamide and 1g bisacrylamide in __________mL of water

a)

50

b)

80

c)

100

d)

200

40.
The pH scale measures...
a)
...the strength of an acid.
b)
...the strength of hydrogen ions.
c)
...the concentration of hydrogen ions.
d)
...the concentration of an acid
41.
Buffer is defined as
a)
ability to resist pH change
b)
ability to prevent pH from decreasing
c)
ability to resist a pH increase
d)
ability to resist pH change when small amount of acid added
42.

How will you prepare a 10% v/v HCl?

a)

10 ml HCl in 10 ml water

b)

1ml HCl in 9 ml water

c)

10 ml water in 1ml HCl

d)

10 ml HCl in 20 ml water

43.

Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 1.5 moles of NaCl in 0.5 L of solution.

a)

1.5 M

b)

3 M

c)

0.33 M

d)

0.75 M

44.

Molarity is measured in

a)

mols per L

b)

mols per kg

c)

mols per kJ

d)

mols per mL

45.

This is the formula used to determine

a)

Percentage by mass

b)

Percentage by volume

c)

Molality

d)

Mole fraction

46.
When a solvent contains as much of the solute as it can hold, the solution is said to be
a)
supersaturated
b)
diluted
c)
saturated
d)
unsaturated
47.
Moles per kilograms is the unit used for measuring
a)

Molecular mass

b)

Normality

c)

Molarity

d)

Molality

48.

How many mL of water should be added to 1 mL of a 10x solution to get the working solution

a)

10

b)

9

c)

99

d)

100

49.

The 2nd Carbon atom of ribose sugar is reduced in

a)

Peptide bond

b)

RNA

c)

DNA

d)

NADH

50.

The polymerase which does not require a primer

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Taq polymerase

d)

Reverse transcriptase