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Economics Semester Exam

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 8hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Opportunity cost is the scarifies of

a)

the lowest cost alternative

b)

the next alternative

c)

the best alternative

d)

the next best alternative

2.

The following are four ways factors of production are used.

What is likely to require the greatest use of the factor enterprise?

a)

a carpenter making wooden articles in his leisure time for sale at a monthly market

b)

a food shop owner sometimes selling flowers in the shop

c)

a householder harvesting vegetables grown at home

d)

a corn farmer negotiating with other farmers to hire expensive machinery

3.

A person makes sandwiches at home for five hours each day. She makes 20 sandwiches per

hour, and she sells each sandwich for $2 each.

What is the opportunity cost if she takes a holiday on a working day?

a)

$40

b)

20 sandwiches

c)

$2

d)

100 sandwiches

4.

To help reduce the price of oil, new supplies are needed. However, in 2013, objectors opposed

attempts to explore new sites because of the environmental damage the exploration might cause.

How does this illustrate the basic economic problem?

a)

There are external costs involved in production.

b)

The exploration involves demand and supply.

c)

Oil is a limited resource.

d)

Oil is expensive.

5.

The diagram shows production possibility curves (PPC) for a country that can produce

agricultural products or manufactured products. Its current PPC passes through points Q and S but the country is currently experiencing

unemployment. If there is now full employment at the same time as new agricultural techniques enable an

increase in productivity, what would be the movement on the PPC diagram?

a)

Q to R

b)

P to R

c)

P to S

d)

S to R

6.

New oil reserves are discovered.

What has increased in supply?

(a)  

7.

What is the basic economic problem?

Provide the keywords.

(a)  

8.

Why are wants not fully satisfied in an economy?

a)

Governments cannot print enough money to pay for goods and services.

b)

An economy can only produce a limited amount of goods and services.

c)

Workers are too skilled for the requirements of the jobs available.

d)

There is an over-production of goods and services by business organisations.

9.

Which statement(s) is/are correct to described as public goods?

a)

It is free and abundant

b)

It is limited

c)

Zero opportunity cost

d)

It is essential for living things

10.

What are the factors of productions?

(a)  

11.

Definition of basic economics problem.

Write the keyword(s).

Enter answer format: ____, ____

(a)  

12.

Who are the economics agents?

Enter answer format: ____, ____ and ____

(a)  

13.

What is the goods that involved opportunity cost?

(a)  

14.

Goods that not involving opportunity cost.

(a)  

15.

What are the questions to consider in order to make the choice and allocation of the resources?

Answer format: ___, ___ and ___

(a)  

16.

Define opportunity cost

Write the keyword(s)

Answer format: ___, ___

(a)  

17.

What is the full name of PPC?

(a)  

18.

What is needs in Economics?

a)

Essential goods and services

b)

For human to survive

c)

Is not necessary to human's live

d)

Fulfill human's desire

19.

What is wants in Economics?

a)

Essential goods and services

b)

For human to survive

c)

Is not necessary to human's live

d)

Fulfill human's desire

20.

What is the aim's of private sector?

a)

to gain profit

b)

to serve the public

c)

to sell products

d)

to sell services

21.

What is the aim's of public sector?

a)

to gain profit

b)

to serve the public

c)

to sell products

d)

to sell services

22.

What is good in Economics?

a)

Is physical product/item produced by firms/government

b)

Is non-physical product/item produced by firms/government

23.

What is service in Economics?

a)

Is physical product/item produced by firms/government

b)

Is non-physical product/item produced by firms/government

24.

What are the factors of productions?

Answer format: ___, ___, ___ and ___

(a)  

25.

What is the cause of labour mobility?

Answer format: ___, ___

(a)  

26.
Why does scarcity exist?
a)
Each year workers tend to produce less than previously 
b)
Machines wear out in time
c)
There are not sufficient resources to meet everyone's wants
d)
There is a limit to people's wants 
27.
Why will scarcity continue to be a problem in the future?
a)
Prices will rise
b)
Resources will always be finite 
c)
Needs will decrease in the future 
d)
World population will fall 
28.
What factor of production's function is to make decisions and take risks?
a)
Capital
b)
Enterprise 
c)
Land 
d)
Labour 
29.
What type of factor of production is a road?
a)
Capital
b)
Enterprise
c)
Labour
d)
Land 
30.
What is meant by 'labour' in economics?
a)
Hard physical work used to produce manufactured goods 
b)
Human mental and physical effort used for producing goods and services
c)
Natural resources used in the productive process
d)
Risk taking and organising the factors of production
31.
Which factor of production is the least mobile?
a)
Capital 
b)
Enterprise
c)
Labour
d)
Land 
32.
What is meant by opportunity cost?
a)
The next best alternative foregone
b)
The cost of the item selected
c)
The cost of exploring business opportunities
d)
The labour used in producing the product 
33.
Which is the following is a free good?
a)
A vaccination provided by the state without charge 
b)
Prizes of food items given away by a supermarket 
c)
Recycled paper
d)
Wind coming from the sea
34.
What does a production possibility curve show?
a)
The prices of two types of products being produced
b)
The quantity of capital and consumer goods that people would like to be produced
c)
The maximum combination of two types of goods that can be produced with given resources.
d)
The relative profitability of capital and consumer goods 
35.
What does a point outside the PPC represent?
a)
A currently unattainable position 
b)
An inefficient position
c)
The maximum use of resources 
d)
Unused resources 
36.

The good is a normal good and incomes have increased

a)
b)
c)
d)
37.

The good is a normal good and incomes have decreased

a)
b)
c)
d)
38.

The good is an inferior good and incomes have increased

a)
b)
c)
d)
39.

The good is an inferior good and incomes have decreased

a)
b)
c)
d)
40.

Product A and B are substitutes. What will happen for product B if the price of product A increases?

a)
b)
c)
d)
41.

Product A and B are substitutes. What will happen for product B if the price of product A decreases?

a)
b)
c)
d)
42.

Product A and B are complements. What will happen for product B if the price of product A increases?

a)
b)
c)
d)
43.

Product A and B are complements. What will happen for product B if the price of product A decreases?

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

Which diagram shows the effect of a successful advertising campaign?

a)
b)
c)
d)
45.

Which diagram shows the effects of improvements in technology leading to greater productivity of capital?

a)
b)
c)
d)
46.

Which diagram shows the effects of an increase in sales tax?

a)
b)
c)
d)
47.

Which diagram shows the effects of a decrease in sales tax?

a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

Which diagram shows the effects of poor weather conditions for crops?

a)
b)
c)
d)
49.

Price decreases; quantity demanded decreases

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.

Price decreases; quantity supplied increases

a)
b)
c)
d)
51.

Price increases; quantity supplied decreases

a)
b)
c)
d)
52.

Price increases; quantity demanded increases

a)
b)
c)
d)
53.

Elastic demand; PED > 1

a)
b)
c)
d)
54.

Inelastic demand; 0<PED<1

a)
b)
c)
d)
55.

Perfectly inelastic demand; PED = 0

a)
b)
c)
d)
56.

Perfectly elastic demand; PED = infinity

a)
b)
c)
d)
57.

Which section of the demand curve is elastic?

a)

Section A

b)

Section B

c)

Section C

58.

Which section of the demand curve is unit elastic?

a)

Section A

b)

Section B

c)

Section C

59.

Which section of the demand curve is inelastic?

a)

Section A

b)

Section B

c)

Section C

60.

A good is being over produced

a)
b)
c)
d)
61.

A good is being under produced

a)
b)
c)
d)
62.

A good is being under consumed

a)
b)
c)
d)
63.

A good is being over consumed

a)
b)
c)
d)
64.

The effect of minimum wage on the labor market

a)
b)
c)
d)
65.

The effect of rent control on the housing market

a)
b)
c)
d)
66.

The effect of increasing a subsidy to farmers

a)
b)
c)
d)
67.

A situation in which a country is able to produce a particular good or service at a lower cost (using fewer resources) relative to other countries

a)

Absolute advantage

b)

Relative advantage

c)

Absolute gain

d)

Relative gain

68.

A situation in which an individual does not have enough income to satisfy their most basic needs of food, clean water, clothing, shelter, education and healthcare

a)

Relative poverty

b)

Absolute poverty

c)

Aggregate poverty

d)

Relational poverty

69.

The proportion of people within a population who fall into certain age groups, e.g. young (0-14 years), of working age (15-65 years) and old (65 years and beyond)

a)

Ageing population

b)

Age spread

c)

Age distribution

d)

Age appreciation

70.

The total demand for all goods and services in an economy from consumption (C), investment (I), government spending (G) and net exports (X-M)

(a)  

71.

The total supply of goods and services in an economy

(a)  

72.

The way resources are allocated to the production of the goods and services most wanted by consumers

a)

Allocation of resources

b)

Allocation of goods

c)

Allocation of services

d)

Allocation of production

73.

A rise in the value of a currency due to market forces

(a)  

74.

Items of value, such as property and land

(a)  

75.

A situation in which government spending is cut and taxes are increased in a country, usually to meet debt repayment obligations

(a)  

76.

The cost of producing a unit (unit cost of production). It is calculated by dividing total cost by output or quantity

a)

Average cost

b)

Average unit

c)

Average production

d)

Average quantity

77.

The fixed costs per unit

a)

Average costs

b)

Average fixed costs

c)

Average units

d)

Average revenue

78.

The revenue per unit sold

a)

Average unit

b)

Average price

c)

Average revenue

d)

Average sale

79.

The variable costs per unit

a)

Average variable costs

b)

Average fixed costs

c)

Average costs

d)

Average unit costs

80.

What are the three questions faced by all economies?

a)

What to produce, when to produce it and who receives it

b)

What to produce, how to produce it and who receives it

c)

Where to produce, how to produce and when to produce

d)

Where to produce, when to produce and why to produce

81.

What encourages firms to produce what consumers demand?

a)

The chance to earn a high profit

b)

The chance to experience high unit costs of production

c)

The desire to attract new firms into the industry

d)

The desire to keep revenue as low as possible

82.

How are resources allocated in a market economy?

a)

By directives

b)

By the price mechanism

c)

By directives or the price mechanism

d)

By directives and the price mechanism

83.

An economic system answers three questions about goods and services. Which of the following option is NOT one of these questions?

a)

What to produce?

b)

Who receives the products?

c)

How to produce?

d)

Where to produce?

84.

In what type of economy allocation do individuals and firms determine what will be produced?

a)

Government

b)

Command

c)

Market

d)

Traditional

85.

In economics there are 4 types of resources. Which of the following is NOT a type of resource?

a)

Land

b)

Money

c)

Labor

d)

Entrepreneurship

86.

What makes a resource or good scarce?

a)

Must be limited in quanity

b)

Must be desirable

c)

Must have more than one use

d)

All of these answers.

87.

What is the function of the price mechanism in a market economy?

a)

allocating resources and guiding choices

b)

allowing governments to provide price stability

c)

enabling markets to operate fairly

d)

preventing competitors from entering a market

88.

Resource allocation deals with the ______________ of _____________ and the methods by which this is done.

a)

giving, services

b)

distribution, resources

c)

allocation, expenses

d)

None of the above

89.

The factor of production that oversees resource allocation is _______________

a)

Land

b)

Enterprise

c)

Labour

d)

Capital

90.

Another term for allocation is ______________.

a)

Give away

b)

Donate

c)

Distribute

d)

Throw away

91.

Technologically advanced countries uses ______________.

a)

Labor intensive technique of production

b)

Capital intensive technique of production

92.

What advantage do coins have that make them more suitable than banknotes to act as money?

a)

They are more divisible

b)

They are more durable

c)

They are more portable

d)

They are more recognizable

93.

What does a commercial bank not provide?

a)

Cash

b)

Bonds

c)

Loans

d)

Mortgages

94.

What is not a function of a central bank?

a)

It is the lender of last resort to financial institutions

b)

It is the sole issuer of notes and coins

c)

It lends to individual firms and consumers

d)

It manages the national debt for the government

95.

A central bank acts as a lender of last resort especially in times of financial crisis.


What is the purpose of this function?

a)

To cover credit card debits of consumers

b)

To provide liquidity to the banking system

c)

To remove failing banks from the financial system

d)

To safeguard the profits of the banking system

96.

The table shows how three people (X, Y and Z) spend their income.


For these three people, what is the most likely order of income, from lowest income to highest income?

a)

Y --> X --> Z

b)

Y --> Z --> X

c)

Z --> X --> Y

d)

Z --> Y --> X

97.

What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?

a)

The income of the family

b)

The level of taxation

c)

The rate of inflation

d)

The reliability of banks

98.

The table shows some information for a computer engineer in 2015. Income tax is fixed at 20%. The engineer saved 10% of the disposable income. How much was saved?

a)

$3200

b)

$4000

c)

$4400

d)

$5500

99.

What is least likely to lead to an increase in consumer spending on a new car?

a)

A decrease in the cost of car repairs

b)

A decrease in the price of petrol

c)

A decrease in the rate of interest

d)

A decrease in train fairs

100.

What will cause the level of savings in an economy to rise?

a)

A fall in investment

b)

A fall in real wages

c)

A rise in income taxes

d)

A rise in interest rates

101.

What is most likely to encourage the immediate purchase of an expensive item such as a new car?

a)

Anticipating a fall in the rate of inflation

b)

Expecting interest rates to fall

c)

Making it easier to obtain a loan

d)

Needing to plan for unexpected emergencies

102.

Why does specialization increase the productivity of workers?

a)

Average cost of production increases

b)

Staff turnover is high

c)

Time is saved by not moving between tasks

d)

Workers lose interest in their job

103.

What could discourage women from seeking employment?

a)

More education and training are provided

b)

More flexible and part-time jobs are available

c)

There are fewer promotion opportunities for women

d)

There is a shift in employment to the services sector

104.

Which activity takes place in the tertiary sector?

a)

Assembling computers

b)

Giving legal advice

c)

Harvesting grain

d)

Making bread

105.

Carlos has been offered a new job with a large multinational company. He is undecided whether to accept the position.


What is a non-wage factor he might consider?

a)

Bonus payments

b)

Holiday entitlement

c)

Overtime rate

d)

Salary level

106.

The table shows the change in real incomes for a number of occupations between 1985 and 2015.


What can be concluded from the table?

a)

All workers were better off in 2015 than in 1985

b)

Fork-lift truck drivers earned the lowest wages in 2015

c)

Doctors have earned more than lawyers since 1985

d)

Professionals receive higher percentage increases in income than manual workers

107.

What is a characteristic of tertiary industries?

a)

They are located away from centers of population

b)

They do not sell to the final consumer

c)

They tend to be labor-intensive

d)

They transform raw materials into goods

108.

What is likely to lead to an increase in the wages of university lecturers?

a)

An increase in the fringe benefits provided to university lecturers

b)

An increase in the tuition fees paid by university students

c)

Government policies reducing the length of the training for university lecturers

d)

Increased demand from students to study at university

109.

What could affect the size of the labor force in an economy?

a)

The existence of a trade union

b)

The government’s immigration policy

c)

The quality of university graduates

d)

The ratio of male to female employees

110.

When is a trade union likely to have more power to increase its members’ wages?

a)

When imports are increasing

b)

When labor supply is increasing

c)

When output is increasing

d)

When unemployment is increasing

111.

What is most likely to help a trade union’s claim for wage increases in an industry?

a)

A decrease in the price of a close substitute for the product

b)

A decrease in the qualifications needed for the job

c)

An increase in the number of workers

d)

An increase in the profits of the industry

112.

What is the most likely reason a firm might welcome the introduction of a trade union for its workers?

a)

Unions advise on the level of company dividends

b)

Unions press for higher minimum wage rates

c)

Unions simplify the process of wage bargaining

d)

Unions wish to operate labor-intensive production methods

113.

What will make it harder for a trade union to increase the wage rate for its members, without reducing employment?

a)

A switch from short-term to long-term fixed contracts of employment

b)

An increase in the number of substitutes for the product

c)

Growth in an economy and increased demand for labor

d)

Lower price elasticity of demand for the product

114.

What is the definition of diseconomies of scale?

a)

The decrease in average revenue as output increases

b)

The decrease in fixed costs as output increases

c)

The increase in average total costs as output increases

d)

The increase in total costs as output increases

115.

What is an example of a technical economy of scale?

a)

Banks provide loans at a lower interest rate to bigger firms

b)

Bigger firms hire more workers

c)

Firms obtain discounts when buying in bulk

d)

Machines are used closer to their full capacity

116.

A large baker buys a flour mill.


Which form of integration is this?

a)

Conglomerate

b)

Horizontal

c)

Vertical backwards

d)

Vertical forwards

117.

What is a possible cause of diseconomies of scale?

a)

An increase in extra administration

b)

An increase in raw materials costs

c)

An increase in taxation on company profits

d)

An increase in the national minimum wage

118.

A company with a chain of restaurants bought another chain of restaurants.


How is this purchase most likely to be classified?

a)

Conglomerate merger

b)

Diversification

c)

Horizontal integration

d)

Vertical integration

119.

A company’s annual report suggested that it had benefited from some changes.


Which change is an internal economy of scale for this company?

a)

An improvement in road and rail facilities that has reduced its distribution costs

b)

An increase in the number of local specialist workers that it could recruit

c)

The introduction of new training at a local college for which staff have enrolled

d)

The reduction in the company’s costs by the purchase of a factory supplying components

120.

Which form of production would be least likely to have the advantages of economies of scale?

a)

Car manufacturing

b)

Commercial cereal farming

c)

Handmade jewelry

d)

Refining of oil products

121.

To achieve horizontal integration, a firm producing tires could merge with another firm producing

a)

Motor cars

b)

Rubber

c)

Tire-producing machinery

d)

Tires

122.

The high value of goods sold by large supermarkets enables them to reduce prices, but the most important advantage that these businesses have is that they can sell non-food items as well as food.


Which economic results does the statement suggest are available to large supermarkets?

a)

Economies of scale and diversification

b)

External benefits and specialization

c)

Horizontal integration and optimum output

d)

Increased sales and diminishing returns

123.

Why is the energy supply industry dominated by very large firms in many economies?

a)

Government controls prevent the exploitation of consumers

b)

High fixed capital costs exist

c)

Labor-intensive production techniques are used

d)

Non-price advertising increases competition

124.

What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labor-intensive production?

a)

The market structure of the production process

b)

The output that the production process creates

c)

The resources on which the production relies

d)

The size of the firm that uses the production process

125.

What change will make a manufacturing company replace labor with capital to maintain the most efficient combination of factors of production?

a)

The price of machinery has increased

b)

The productivity of labor has increased

c)

The productivity of machinery has increased

d)

The supply of labor has increased

126.

When will a firm maximize its profits?

a)

When it excludes a rival supplier from the market

b)

When it produces where average cost and average revenue are equal

c)

When it sells as many products in as many different markets as it can

d)

When the difference between total cost and total revenue is greatest

127.

The table shows the costs of a firm.


What is the value of the firm’s fixed costs?

a)

$20

b)

$30

c)

$60

d)

$80

128.

The diagram shows the fixed costs, variable costs and total costs of a firm.


Which distance represents the firm’s fixed costs?

a)

WX

b)

WY

c)

XY

d)

XZ

129.

An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200,000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70,000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80,000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10,000 each.


What are his total variable costs?

a)

$100,000

b)

$150,000

c)

$220,000

d)

$370,000

130.

The table shows some of the costs of running a retail shop in one week.


What are the total fixed costs during this week?

a)

$200

b)

$240

c)

$700

d)

$750

131.

Which cost would be considered variable by a bus company?

a)

A new bus

b)

Diesel fuel

c)

Loan repayment

d)

Rent

132.

A firm that sells its product for $6 a unit has the following total costs.


Which statement is correct?

a)

Average cost is lowest when 10 units are produced

b)

The firm does not make any profit when 20 units are sold

c)

The firm has no fixed costs

d)

Total variable costs fall continuously over these outputs

133.

Which statement about fixed costs is correct?

a)

They exist only in the long run

b)

They include raw material and direct labor costs

c)

They increase at the same rate as output

d)

They must by paid even if there is no output

134.

What is a characteristic of perfect competition?

a)

Firms sell an identical product

b)

New firms cannot enter the market

c)

The market is controlled by one firm

d)

There is a high degree of market concentration

135.

Which statement explains why firms in perfect competition are not able to exploit consumers?

a)

The firms can restrict output

b)

The products are differentiated

c)

There are barriers to entry

d)

There is perfect information

136.

Which characteristic can exist both in monopoly and in perfect competition?

a)

Freedom of entry

b)

Many buyers

c)

Many sellers

d)

Perfectly elastic demand curve

137.

What is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive firm?

a)

Absence of competitors

b)

Non-price competition

c)

One dominant firm

d)

Price taker

138.

Which international market is closest to the model of perfect competition?

a)

Diamonds

b)

Foreign currency

c)

Petrol (fuel)

d)

Washing machines

139.

A monopoly takes over an industry from competitive firms.


What is not likely to be true about a monopoly compared with a competitive firm?

a)

A monopoly will earn a higher rate of profit

b)

A monopoly will gain a greater share of the market

c)

A monopoly will offer a wider choice to the consumer

d)

A monopoly will operate on a larger scale of production

140.

Which is not a function of money?

a)

durability

b)

measure of value

c)

medium of exchange

d)

store of value

141.

Which is not a problem of bartering as a medium of exchange?

a)

the need for a double coincidence of wants

b)

the need for divisibility

c)

the need for portability

d)

the need for trade and exchange

142.

Which is not a function of a central bank?

a)

the facilitation of company growth

b)

the government's bank

c)

the lender of last resort

d)

the sole issuer of bank notes and coins in the country

143.

Which is a secondary function of commercial banks?

a)

accepting deposits

b)

credit creation

c)

making advances

d)

offering internet banking

144.

Which are not functions of a commercial bank?

a)

cheque clearance and foreign exchange dealings

b)

internet banking and money transfer facilities

c)

lender of the last resort and bankers' bank

d)

loans and credit creation

145.

What is the main source of income for most people?

a)

dividends

b)

interest

c)

profit

d)

wages and salaries

146.

Which term describes income earned by an individual after income tax and other changes have been deducted?

a)

disposable income

b)

gross income

c)

nominal income

d)

real income

147.

Money intended for spending on goods and services within the next twelve months is known as

a)

capital

b)

capital expenditure

c)

current expenditure

d)

savings

148.

Which type of consumption occurs when people buy goods and services that they feel increase their social status or image?

a)

capital consumption

b)

conspicuous consumption

c)

current consumption

d)

household consumption

149.

Which is the least likely determinant of the level of spending, saving and borrowing in an economy?

a)

consumer confidence levels

b)

inflation rates

c)

interest rates

d)

trade policies

150.

Some professional footballers earn over $1.5 million per week. What is the most likely reason for this?

a)

Being a footballer is a seasonal job

b)

Some professional footballers have unique of skills and talent

c)

The job is high-risk so needs to be highly compensated

d)

The working life of a professional footballer is relatively short

151.

In 2017, new graduates in the UK could earn an annual salary of approximately £29000 working in the public sector and £42500 working in the legal profession. Identify the most likely reason why a graduate may choose to work in the public sector rather than the private sector of an economy?

a)

better promotion prospects and career progression

b)

greater job security and pension

c)

higher earning potential

d)

more opportunities to earn bonuses

152.

Following an increase in the national minimum wage (NMW), which is most likely to reduce government expenditure on welfare payments?

a)

greater productivity of public sector workers

b)

increased consumer spending in the economy

c)

increased tax revenues from higher income tax

d)

unemployed workers having a greater incentive to work

153.

Women, in general earn less than men. Which is a possible reason for this?

a)

A larger number of women work part-time or work flexible working hours

b)

More women are enrolled on medicine and law courses

c)

More women are focused on their careers and delaying having children

d)

There is a greater female participation in the workforce

154.

A disadvantage of specialisation of labour for a firm is that

a)

the production process may become dependent upon particular worker

b)

the quality of the products increases

c)

workers become skilled in the job and more productive

d)

workers make fewer mistakes

155.

A request by a trade union for a pay rise for its members who work in a toy factory is likely to be successful if

a)

the productivity of workers in the toy factory has fallen

b)

there is a large pool of people willing to work in the toy factory

c)

there is high demand for toys produced in the factory

d)

there is low inflation in the economy

156.

Which is a reason why a trade union may ask for a wage increase for its members?

a)

A higher rate of inflation

b)

higher unemployment in the economy

c)

lower productivity in the industry

d)

lower profits in the industry

157.

Which is an example of action taken by a trade union?

a)

go-fast

b)

lie-in

c)

sit-down

d)

work-to-rule

158.

The main aim of a trade union is to

a)

call its members out on strike action

b)

cause disruptions to employers and the economy

c)

gain publicity for its members

d)

improve pay and working conditions for its members

159.

A group of workers in a Bangladesh garment factory is concerned about the low pay, poor working conditions and extended hours of work. They decide to work only for their contracted hours of work and put a ban on overtime. This type of industrial action is known as

a)

go-slow

b)

sit-in

c)

strike action

d)

work-to-rule

160.

What is meant by financial economies of scale?

a)

Lower average costs experienced by large banks and other financial institutions

b)

Lower average costs arising from a large firm operating its finance department more efficiently

c)

Lower average costs due to the ability of large firms to borrow more cheaply

d)

Lower average costs occurring because of the use of larger capital equipment