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WorksheetsLange Ch 28 Orthopedics
Total questions: 105
Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
*Which nutrient is responsible for providing bone strength and is monitored as you get older to preserve strong bones?
a)
Iron
b)
Vitamin C
c)
Calcium
d)
Zinc
2.
What is the proper wrapping procedure uti-lizing an Esmarch bandage?
a)
Start at the distal end of the extremity
b)
Start at the proximal end of the extrem- ity
c)
Start after the cuff is inflated
d)
Start at the incision site
3.
Baker's cysts are found in the:
a)
popliteal fossa
b)
interdigital fossa
c)
intercarpal joints
d)
olecranon fossa
4.
Benign outpouchings of synovium from inter-carpal joints are called:
a)
ganglia
b)
exostosis
c)
polyps
d)
synovitis
5.
Compression of the median nerve at the volar surface of the wrist is known as:
a)
Dupuytren' s contracture
b)
carpal tunnel syndrome
c)
ganglia
d)
Volkmann' s contracture
6.
A fixation device that provides maximum holding and rigid fixation of a fracture by tightening bone fragments together is called a/an:
a)
compression plate and screws
b)
intramedullary nailing
c)
Ilizarov technique
d)
interlocking nail fixation
7.
In a total hip replacement, which structure is reamed?
a)
Acetabulum
b)
Greater trochanter
c)
Lesser trochanter
d)
Femoral head
8.
The ideal candidate for a noncemented total hip arthroplasty is:
a)
young and healthy person
b)
young with arthritis
c)
old and healthy
d)
old with osteoporotic bone disease
9.
A total hip replacement would be indicated when the patient has:
a)
degenerative hip joint disease
b)
hip fracture
c)
congenital hip dislocation
d)
hip cancer
10.
Joint reconstruction is known as:
a)
arthrodesis
b)
arthroplasty
c)
arthrotomy
d)
arthropexy
11.
Osteogenesis or bone growth can be induced by:
a)
bone grafting, autogenous
b)
bone grafting, homogeneous
c)
hormone installation
d)
electrical stimulation
12.
An infection in bone is termed:
a)
osteomalacia
b)
osteomyelitis
c)
osteitis
d)
osteoporosis
13.
A surgical procedure designed to stiffen or fuse a joint is called:
a)
arthropexy
b)
arthroplasty
c)
joint fixation
d)
arthrodesis
14.
A lateral curvature of the spine is:
a)
kyphosis
b)
scoliosis
c)
lordosis
d)
orthosis
15.
Harrington rods are used to treat:
a)
femoral fracture
b)
scoliosis
c)
talipes deformity
d)
congenital hip dislocation
16.
The congenital deformity known as clubfoot is surgically referred to as:
a)
talipes valgus
b)
talipes varus
c)
hallux valgus
d)
exostosis
17.
The most frequent site of cartilage tears in the knee joint are at the:
a)
collateral ligament
b)
cruciate ligament
c)
lateral meniscus
d)
medial meniscus
18.
An abduction pillow would be used to:
a)
immobilize hip joints after hip surgery
b)
stabilize a femoral fracture
c)
immobilize the tibia post-surgery
d)
rotate the hips outward after hip recon- struction
19.
A Free-Lock compression screw system is indicated for correction of a/an fracture.
a)
hip
b)
wrist
c)
elbow
d)
cervical
20.
Decreased bone mass results in a condition called:
a)
osteoporosis
b)
osteomyelitis
c)
ossification
d)
ecchymosis
21.
*Place the stages of bone healing in the correct order: (1) inflammatory stage, (2) remodeling stage, (3) ossification stage, (4) cellular proliferation stage, (5) callus formation stage.
a)
1, 4, 5, 3, 2
b)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c)
5, 3, 4, 1, 2
d)
2, 5 ,4, 3, 1
22.
An olecranon fracture occurs in the:
a)
wrist
b)
knee
c)
elbow
d)
finger
23.
All of the following are considered good methods of maintaining strict asepsis within an orthopedic surgical suite EXCEPT:
a)
ultraviolet light
b)
laminar flow rooms
c)
charcoal masks
d)
space suits
24.
*A common method to immobilize a fracture is to apply a cast. When applying a cast:
a)
a bucket of lukewarm water is required
b)
the cast material is held vertically in the water until the bubbles stop rising to the surface
c)
flat sheets of cast material are used for a splint
d)
all of the above
25.
Orthopedic surgery prepping:
a)
is done under sterile conditions
b)
is done the day before surgery
c)
is eliminated
d)
is increased in time only
26.
*What type of cast is applied to the trunk of the body to immobilize the spine?
a)
Cylindrical
b)
Minerva jacket
c)
Montgomery
d)
Spica
27.
In orthopedic surgery, the viewing of the progression of a procedure on a television screen is known as:
a)
image intensification
b)
radiography
c)
portable filming
d)
x-ray
28.
Surgery on the medial malleolus would be of the:
a)
fibula
b)
jaw
c)
tibia
d)
radius
29.
Plaster is ready for application:
a)
when air bubbles cease to rise
b)
when air bubbles begin to rise
c)
after 2 minutes of submersion
d)
after 10 minutes of submersion
30.
*A greenstick fracture:
a)
is a common fracture found in children under 10 years of age
b)
is when the bone bends and cracks on one side but is not totally broken in two
c)
more commonly occurs in the arm than leg
d)
all of the above
31.
Which orthopedic hip procedure is indicated for patients with degenerative joint disease or rheumatoid arthritis?
a)
AO external fixation
b)
Total hip arthroplasty
c)
Femoral endoprosthesis
d)
Modular endoprosthesis
32.
What skeletal traction requires the use of sterile supplies for application of a traction appliance?
a)
Thomas splint
b)
Russell
c)
Crutchfield
d)
Buck's extension
33.
An infectious musculoskeletal condition affecting the bone and marrow is:
a)
osteomalacia
b)
osteoporosis
c)
osteomyelitis
d)
Paget's disease
34.
*Polymethylmethacrylate, commonly called bone cement, can have toxic effects and cause complications. They include:
a)
pulmonary embolus
b)
implantation syndrome
c)
hypo tension
d)
all of the above
35.
*The fundamentals of screw placement involved in ORIF surgical procedures include the following sterns. Place them in the correct order of procedural steps: (1) tap, (2) place screw,
(3) drill, and (4) measure.
a)
1, 2, 3, 4
b)
3, 4, 1, 2
c)
2, 3, 4, 1
d)
3, 2, 4, 1
36.
All of the following are indications for external fixation EXCEPT:
a)
infected joints
b)
clean long-bone fractures
c)
highly comminuted closed fractures
d)
major alignment and length deficits
37.
A procedure done to correct recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder that involves reattachment of the rim of the glenoid fossa is called a:
a)
Bankart
b)
Putti-Platt
c)
Bristow
d)
Monteggia
38.
The most commonly fractured carpal bone is the:
a)
scaphoid
b)
lunate
c)
trapezium
d)
capitate
39.
Compression force of the distal femur upon the tibia produces varying types of fractures of the:
a)
patella
b)
tibial plateau
c)
femoral condyle
d)
head of the femur
40.
Surgery that requires incision of the long extensor tendon of the interphalangeal joint of the four lateral toes and subsequent fusion is called:
a)
exostectomy
b)
Keller procedure
c)
hammer toe correction
d)
McBride procedure
41.
The rare use of laser during orthopedic surgery may be seen in the use of the CO2 laser during a revision arthroplasty to:
a)
remove a cemented implant
b)
vaporize protein
c)
weld tissue for collagen bonding
d)
create hemostasis
42.
After surgery on a shoulder, the arm may be bound against the side of the arm for:
a)
comfort
b)
abduction
c)
immobilization
d)
mobilization
43.
The most commonly used implants in hand surgery are made of flexible:
a)
polypropylene
b)
Silastic
c)
tantellum
d)
polyethylene
44.
Before the insertion of cement into the femoral medullary canal during a total hip arthroplasty, which of the following is placed with an inserter to occlude the femoral medullary canal?
a)
Polyethylene insert
b)
Cement restrictor
c)
Broach
d)
Distal centralizer
45.
Femoral prostheses such as Austin Moore and Thompson are used to correct all of the fol-lowing diagnoses EXCEPT:
a)
avascular necrosis
b)
nonunion fractures
c)
displaced femoral neck fractures
d)
rheumatoid arthritis
46.
Orthopedic implants are covered by all of the following rules EXCEPT:
a)
different metals should not be mixed because they may react chemically
b)
If the implant is driven by force, a driver with a metal head must be used
c)
a template must be used for sizing purposes
d)
handle as little as possible before insertion
47.
Galvanic corrosion is a process that occurs postoperatively because of:
a)
poor handling of device during implant
b)
mixed use of metals for implant
c)
misplacement of implant
d)
damage of an implanted device
48.
Bunionectomy is also known as:
a)
metacarpal arthroplasty
b)
hallux valgus
c)
triple arthrodesis
d)
hammer toe
49.
A Colles' fracture is a fracture of:
a)
distal radius
b)
femur
c)
patella
d)
fibula
50.
The Keller and McBride procedures are types of:
a)
bunionectomy procedures
b)
shoulder repairs
c)
ankle repairs
d)
patellectomy procedure
51.
The three phases of bone healing in order are: (1) remodeling (2) inflammatory phase (3) reparative phase
a)
1, 2, 3
b)
2, 1, 3
c)
2, 3, 1
d)
3, 1, 2
52.
The patella is what type of bone?
a)
Flat
b)
Short
c)
Sesamoid
d)
Round
53.
Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) is a type of bone cement most commonly used in what procedure?
a)
Arthroplasty procedures
b)
Kellar procedures
c)
ACLrepair
d)
Triple arthrodesis
54.
The proper position for the patient undergoing arthroscopic knee surgery is:
a)
skeletal traction on fracture table
b)
lateral position, foot of table flexed at 45 degrees
c)
the Alvarado knee holder
d)
supine position, foot of table flexed at 90 degrees
55.
Orthopedic saws are identified by the movement of the blade. Which saw blade is mounted along the same axis as the handle and moves back and forth?
a)
Sagittal
b)
Reciprocating
c)
Oscillating
d)
Rotating
56.
An orthopedic screw is the most commonly used type of orthopedic implant. All are orthopedic screws EXCEPT:
a)
cancellous
b)
lag
c)
self-tapping
d)
depth screw
57.
The three main components of a knee arthroplasty are: (1) femoral (2) acetabular (3) tibial base plate (4) patella component
a)
1, 3, 4
b)
1, 2, 3
c)
2, 3, 4
d)
4, 2, 1
58.
Which graft/ grafts are used to replace the anterior cruciate ligament during an ACL repair?
a)
Patella tendon
b)
Cadaver
c)
Hamstring or quadriceps
d)
All of the above
59.
A Putti-Platt is used to correct:
a)
ankle
b)
wrist
c)
patella
d)
shoulder
60.
What connects bone to bone?
a)
Ligament
b)
Tendon
c)
Muscle
d)
Bursa
61.
The shaft of the long bone is ___ and the end of the long bone is ____.
a)
diaphysis/ epiphysis
b)
epiphysis/ diaphysis
c)
symphysis/diaphysis
d)
symphysis/ epiphysis
62.
A fracture that consists of multiple bone fragments is:
a)
comminuted
b)
greenstick
c)
spiral
d)
impacted
63.
Bone healing is termed:
a)
osteoporosis
b)
osteoplasty
c)
osteogenesis
d)
osteomalacia
64.
A hemostatic agent used on bone is:
a)
heparin
b)
bone wax
c)
lidocaine
d)
Cottonoid
65.
A pneumatic tourniquet is placed:
a)
as soon as the patient enters the OR
b)
directly after the patient is prepped and ( draped
c)
before the patient is prepped and draped
d)
as soon as anesthesia says it is okay
66.
Equipment needed to repair a femoral neck fracture using a compression screw and sliding plate includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
fracture table
b)
C-arm (fluro)
c)
K wires
d)
pneumatic tourniquet
67.
A pressurized solution of antibiotics or saline, commonly used for wound debridement and irrigation is called:
a)
pulse lavage system
b)
ancillary system
c)
inactive irrigation system
d)
topical irrigation system
68.
A traction that requires surgical insertion of metal rods or pins through bone, and are attached to a traction device that applies force or is attached to a weighted pulley is known as:
a)
skin traction
b)
applied traction
c)
manual traction
d)
skeletal traction
69.
During a procedure involving a power saw in use, the surgical technician in the scrub role should:
a)
clean the blade
b)
lightly apply irrigation to the blade in use
c)
suction bone debris
d)
do nothing
70.
The condition where fibrous bands cause contractures in the fingers, commonly the ring finger and the little finger is:
a)
compartment syndrome
b)
Dupuytrens
c)
exostosis
d)
ganglion
71.
*Bone tumors include all EXCEPT:
a)
Ewing's sarcoma
b)
osteogenic sarcoma
c)
chondroma
d)
Wilms' tumor
72.
The surgical repair of a torn tendon is:
a)
triple arthrodesis
b)
percutaneous tendonectomy
c)
tendonitis
d)
tenorrhaphy
73.
The tendon involved causing the inability to plantar flex the foot is:
a)
Achilles
b)
lateral metatarsal
c)
capsular tendon
d)
digitorum tendon
74.
*Mrs. Smedley was scheduled to have a right total hip replacement with an ante- rior approach. What position would she be placed in?
a)
supine
b)
right lateral
c)
left lateral
d)
Fowler's
75.
The responsibility of the STSR when applying the case is to keep the foot in a plantar flexed position (toes downward) in order to:
a)
keep good blood supply to the foot
b)
keep the muscle hyperextended
c)
keep stress off the new suture line
d)
this allows the local to penetrate the surgical site
76.
A stellate fracture is:
a)
bone breaks in a central pint and radiates outward, like a cracked mirror
b)
the fracture curves around the bone due to twisting motion
c)
a bone fracture where the bone remains attached by a ligament
d)
the bone is driven inward
77.
Dorsal flexion is where the foot is and plantar flexion is where the foot is turned ____ and plantar flexion is where the foot is turned _____.
a)
upward/ downward
b)
downward/ upward
c)
inward/ outward
d)
outward, inward
78.
When the joint is freely movable and is lined with a synovial membrane, it is termed:
a)
amphiarthrosis
b)
diarthrosis
c)
synarthrosis
d)
none of the above
79.
All apply to compartment syndrome except:
a)
the wound is closed following an I&D with a pulse lavage system
b)
an incision is made and the wound is left open until swelling is reduced
c)
commonly occurs in the arm or leg
d)
the tough walls of fascia cannot easily expand and compartment pressure, preventing adequate blood flow to tissues inside the compartment
80.
When the calcaneocuboid, talonavicular, and talocalcaneal bones are fused together, the procedure to correct this is:
a)
McBride
b)
arthroscopy
c)
triple arthrosis
d)
arthroplasty
81.
Subluxation is:
a)
complete fracture
b)
incomplete dislocation
c)
malunion fracture
d)
nonunion fracture
82.
The procedure performed for rotator cuff tear is:
a)
Keller
b)
acromioplasty
c)
arthroscopy
d)
ORIF
83.
All pertain to intertrochanteric fracture EXCEPT:
a)
occurs on the femur
b)
occurs at the lesser trochanter
c)
repaired with a dynamic hip screw
d)
occurs at the acetabular head
84.
The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as:
a)
phalanges
b)
carpals
c)
metacarpals
d)
calcaneus
85.
The gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the:
a)
calf of the leg
b)
stomach
c)
stomach's greater curvature
d)
thigh
86.
*In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type of bone?
a)
Flat and irregular
b)
Femur/long
c)
Sesamoid
d)
Irregular
87.
The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small finger side of the hand, is called the:
a)
ulna
b)
radius
c)
humerus
d)
fibula
88.
The bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, which supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of its muscles, is the:
a)
palatine bone
b)
vomer
c)
pterygoid hamulus
d)
hyoid bone
89.
The adult vertebral column has:
a)
33 bones
b)
28 bones
c)
26 bones
d)
32 bones
90.
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
a)
7
b)
12
c)
5
d)
4
91.
The bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone is the:
a)
sternum
b)
trochlea
c)
talus
d)
hyoid
92.
A slender, rod-like bone that is located at the base of the neck and runs horizontally is the:
a)
scapula
b)
shoulder blade
c)
clavicle
d)
sternum
93.
The upper, flaring portion of hipbone is the:
a)
ischium
b)
pubis
c)
ilium
d)
femoral head
94.
The larger, weight-bearing bone of the lower leg is the:
a)
humerus
b)
talus
c)
fibula
d)
tibia
95.
The bone that fits into the acetabulum, forming a joint, is the:
a)
tibia
b)
femur
c)
fibula
d)
patella
96.
*The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles make up the:
a)
rotator cuff
b)
pelvic girdle
c)
sternal notch
d)
vertebra
97.
The longest bone in the body is the:
a)
femur
b)
fibula
c)
tibia
d)
humerus
98.
A rounded protuberance found at a point of articulation with another bone is called a:
a)
trochanter
b)
trochlea
c)
tubercle
d)
condyle
99.
*In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found?
a)
Shoulder
b)
Knee
c)
Hip
d)
Wrist
100.
*Which of the following is NOT a muscle classification?
a)
Smooth
b)
Elastic
c)
Cardiac
d)
Skeletal
101.
What is the most commonly used donor tendon for a free flexor tendon graft?
a)
Palmaris longus
b)
Plantaris tendon
c)
Abductor pollicis longus
d)
Both A and B
102.
*Joints are classified by their structure and their ability to move. Which is a ball-andsocket joint?
a)
Elbow
b)
Carpel bones of the wrist
c)
Skull bones
d)
Hip
103.
*An example of a saddle joint is the:
a)
shoulder
b)
elbow joint
c)
thumb joint
d)
radius
104.
*A recording of the electrical activity of muscle tissue by using electrodes attached to the skin or inserted into the muscle is termed:
a)
electrocardiogram
b)
positron emission tomography
c)
electromyography
d)
computed tomography
105.
*What type of operating room tables are commonly used for orthopedic procedures?
a)
Fracture table
b)
Andrews table
c)
Jackson table
d)
All of the above
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