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Higgins sickle cell disease pt 1

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Occurs when valine is substituted for glutamic acid on the 6th codon of the beta globin gene

a)

sickel cell disease

b)

anemia

2.

In sickle cell disease, the polymerization of the hemoglobin (Hgb) S molecule causes chronic hemolysis and vaso-occlusion. Can also cause:

a)

hypoxia

b)

pyrexia

c)

dehydration

d)

acidosis

e)

hypocalcemia

3.

How is the hemoglobin g/dL (Hgb) in Sickle cell disease SCD-SS?

a)

6-9

b)

9-14

c)

7-9

d)

9-12

4.

How is the hemoglobin g/dL (Hgb) in Sickle cell disease SCD-SC?

a)

6-9

b)

9-14

c)

7-9

d)

9-12

5.

How is the hemoglobin g/dL (Hgb) in Sickle cell disease SCD-B-zero thalassemia (SΒ0)?

a)

6-9

b)

9-14

c)

7-9

d)

9-12

6.

How is the hemoglobin g/dL (Hgb) in Sickle cell disease SCD-B-plus thalassemia (SΒ+)?

a)

6-9

b)

9-14

c)

7-9

d)

9-12

7.

What is the reticulocytes % in SCD-SS?

a)

10-20

b)

3-10

c)

15-20

d)

2-5

8.

What is the reticulocytes % in SCD-SC?

a)

10-20

b)

3-10

c)

15-20

d)

2-5

9.

What is the reticulocytes % in SCD-B-zero (SB0) thalassemia?

a)

10-15

b)

3-10

c)

10-20

d)

2-5

10.

What is the reticulocytes % in SCD-B-plus (SB+) thalassemia?

a)

10-20

b)

3-10

c)

10-15

d)

2-5

11.

How is the MCV during SCD-SS?

a)

normal

b)

low normal to slightly low

c)

low

d)

high

12.

How is the MCV during SCD-SC?

a)

normal

b)

low normal to slightly low

c)

low

d)

high

13.

How is the MCV during SCD-B-zero (SB0) thalassemia?

a)

normal

b)

low normal to slightly low

c)

low

d)

high

14.

How is the MCV during SCD-B-plus (SB+) thalassemia?

a)

normal

b)

low normal to slightly low

c)

high

d)

low

15.

The sickle cell trait (SCT) is an heterozygous inheritance of one normal β-globin gene producing hemoglobin A (HbA) and one sickle gene producing hemoglobin S (HbS)

a)

true

b)

false

16.

What is the genotype of a sickle cell trait (SCT)?

a)

HbAS

b)

HbPO

c)

HbOM

17.

In sickle cell disease, patients will have a lot of symptoms

a)

true

b)

false

18.

Distribution of sickle cell trait (SCT) reflects survival advantage in regions where malaria is endemic

a)

true

b)

false

19.

RBCs carrying abnormal sickle Hgb prevent normal growth and development of Plasmodium falciparum

a)

true

b)

false

20.

Individuals without sickle cell trait (SCT) are more likely to survive acute malarial illness

a)

true

b)

false

21.

Normal RBCs have a _________ shape.

a)

biconcave

b)

spherical

c)

elongated

d)

oval

22.

Like normal RBCs, Sickle cell disease RBCs are able to deform to squeeze through capillaries

a)

true

b)

false

23.

Normal adult RBCs contain predominantly HbA, what would be the percentage for it?

a)

96-98%

b)

90-95%

c)

92-96%

24.

Which of the following are considered as other forms of hemoglobin?

a)

HbA2

b)

Fetal hemoglobin

c)

HbA4

25.

HbA2 is another form of hemoglobin, what would be the percentage for it?

a)

96-98%

b)

2-3%

c)

<1%

26.

Fetal hemoglobin is another form of hemoglobin, what would be the percentage for it?

a)

96-98%

b)

2-3%

c)

<1%

27.

Fetal hemoglobin (HbF):

a)

Present predominantly in fetal RBCs

b)

Present predominantly in fetal WBCs

c)

Tetramer of two α-globin chains and two γ-globin chains (α2γ2)

d)

Tetramer of two α-globin chains and two B-globin chains (α2B2)

28.

What happens to fetal hemoglobin around the 32-weeks of gestation?

a)

Switch from production of γ chains to β chains

b)

Increase in HbA production

c)

decrease in HbA production

d)

Switch from production of α chains to β chains

29.

In fetal hemoglobin, an increase in HbF production occurs under severe erythroid stress (e.g. anemia, chemotherapy, etc.)

a)

true

b)

false

30.

The presence of fetal hemoglobin (HbF) do not prevent sickling

a)

true

b)

false

31.

Incidence invasive pneumococcal disease (IPD) was 6 episodes/100 patient years before prophylaxis

a)

true

b)

false

32.

Which of the following statements belongs to the prophylactic penicillin study (PROPS) in 1986?

a)

84% decrease in risk of IPD

b)

Penicillin VK 125 mg BID less than 3 years

c)

Penicillin VK 250 mg BID greater than/equal to 3 years

d)

Prophylactic penicillin could be discontinued at 5 years of age safely unless

splenectomy or invasive pneumococcal infection then continue for life

e)

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) has led to a further 70% decrease in the incidence of IPD (0.3-0.5 episodes/100 patient years)

33.

Which of the following statements belongs to the prophylactic penicillin study (PROPS) II?

a)

84% decrease in risk of IPD

b)

Penicillin VK 125 mg BID less than 3 years

c)

Penicillin VK 250 mg BID greater than/equal to 3 years

d)

Prophylactic penicillin could be discontinued at 5 years of age safely unless

splenectomy or invasive pneumococcal infection then continue for life

e)

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) has led to a further 70% decrease in the incidence of IPD (0.3-0.5 episodes/100 patient years)

34.

Which of the following statements belongs to the Pneumococcal vaccine?

a)

84% decrease in risk of IPD

b)

Penicillin VK 125 mg BID less than 3 years

c)

Penicillin VK 250 mg BID greater than/equal to 3 years

d)

Prophylactic penicillin could be discontinued at 5 years of age safely unless

splenectomy or invasive pneumococcal infection then continue for life

e)

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) has led to a further 70% decrease in the incidence of IPD (0.3-0.5 episodes/100 patient years)

35.

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) has led to a further ____ decrease in the incidence of IPD (0.3-0.5 episodes/100 patient years)

a)

50%

b)

70%

c)

80%

d)

90%

36.

Which of the following statements has to do with the pneumococcal vaccine?

a)

All infants should receive complete

series of PCV13

b)

All children should receive PPSV23 at age 2 and 5 years

c)

Adults vaccination status depends on if they have received PCV13 or PPSV23

d)

Usual childhood vaccine schedule

e)

Annually for 6 months and older

37.

Which of the following immunizations are recommended to prevent sickle cell disease?

a)

Pneumococcal vaccine

b)

Haemophilus influenza (HiB) vaccine

c)

Meningococcal vaccine

d)

Influenza vaccine

38.

Which of the following statements has to do with the Haemophilus influenza (HiB) vaccine?

a)

All infants should receive complete

series of PCV13

b)

All children should receive PPSV23 at age 2 and 5 years

c)

Adults vaccination status depends on if they have received PCV13 or PPSV23

d)

Usual childhood vaccine schedule

e)

Annually for 6 months and older

39.

Which of the following statements has to do with the Meningococcal vaccine?

a)

Four dose primary series with MenACWY-

CRM (Menveo®) (2, 4, 6, 12 months)

b)

Booster dose to be administered every 5 years with MenACWY-CRM or MenACWY-D (Menactra®)

c)

Adults previously vaccinated should receive MenACWY-CRM or MenACWY-D every 5 years

d)

Serogroup B meningococcal (MenB): age 10 or older (Use either Trumemba or Bexcero)

e)

Annually for 6 months and older

40.

Which of the following statements has to do with the Influenza vaccine?

a)

Four dose primary series with MenACWY-

CRM (Menveo®) (2, 4, 6, 12 months)

b)

Booster dose to be administered every 5 years with MenACWY-CRM or MenACWY-D (Menactra®)

c)

Adults previously vaccinated should receive MenACWY-CRM or MenACWY-D every 5 years

d)

Serogroup B meningococcal (MenB): age 10 or older (Use either Trumemba or Bexcero)

e)

Annually for 6 months and older

41.

Chemotherapeutic agent stimulates HbF production and increases the number of HbF- containing reticulocytes and intracellular HbF

a)

hydroxyurea

b)

vaso-occlusive crisis (VOC)

c)

antiemetic

42.

Baby HUG study found children 9 months and older treated with hydroxyurea to have fewer episodes of pain with no significant toxicities

a)

true

b)

false

43.

Recommended for all adults and to offer to children 9 months and older with HbSS or HbSβ0-thalassemia

a)

hydroxyurea

b)

vaso-occlusive crisis (VOC)

c)

antiemetic

44.

The baby HUG study with hydroxyurea showed a reduce in:

a)

vaso-occlusive crisis

b)

acute chest syndrome

c)

hospitalizations

d)

transfusions

e)

operations

45.

What is the initial dose of hydroxyurea in adults?

a)

15 mg/kg PO daily

b)

20 mg/kg PO daily

46.

What is the initial dose of hydroxyurea in children?

a)

15 mg/kg PO daily

b)

20 mg/kg PO daily

47.

What can be done or what should be monitored when taking Hydroxyurea?

a)

CBC

b)

pregnancy test (as needed)

c)

LFTs

d)

HbF

e)

glucose

48.

When taking Hydroxyurea, a CBC should be done:

a)

every 4 weeks until has tolerated dose then every 8 weeks

b)

every 3 months x 2 then every 6 months

c)

every 3-6 months

d)

as needed

49.

When taking Hydroxyurea, HbF should be monitored:

a)

every 4 weeks until has tolerated dose then every 8 weeks

b)

every 3 months x 2 then every 6 months

c)

every 3-6 months

d)

as needed

50.

When taking Hydroxyurea, LFTs should be monitored:

a)

every 4 weeks until has tolerated dose then every 8 weeks

b)

every 3 months x 2 then every 6 months

c)

every 3-6 months

d)

as needed

51.

When taking Hydroxyurea, a pregnancy test should be done or monitored:

a)

every 4 weeks until has tolerated dose then every 8 weeks

b)

every 3 months x 2 then every 6 months

c)

every 3-6 months

d)

as needed