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ISTQB Question Bank 541 to 580

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 10hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements,or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
a)
System Testing
b)
Big-Bang Testing
c)
Integration Testing
d)
Unit Testing
2.
You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources( work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time.
a)
Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
b)
Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
c)
Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
d)
Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
3.
There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application?
a)
Integrity, Response time
b)
Concurrency test, Scalability
c)
Update & Rollback, Response time
d)
Concurrency test, Integrity
4.
Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
a)
Error Guessing
b)
Boundary Value Analysis
c)
Decision Table testing
d)
Equivalence partitioning
5.
Which of the following assertions about code coverage are correct?
a)
Statement coverage usually requires more test case suites
b)
100 % statement coverage guarantees 100 % decision coverage
c)
100 % decision coverage implies 100 % statement coverage
d)
Decision tables cannot be used to list statement coverage values
6.
Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing?
a)
It includes functional testing
b)
It includes loop testing
c)
It is usually done after black-box testing
d)
It is usually done during the integration testing phase
7.
“The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation” done by
a)
Horizontal tracebility
b)
Depth tracebility
c)
Vertical tracebility
d)
Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities
8.
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % condition coverage?
a)

5

b)

4

c)

2

d)

3

9.
Big bang approach is related to
a)
Regression testing
b)
Inter system testing
c)
Re-testing
d)
Integration testing
10.

Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?

<br>

I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.

II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.

III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.

IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.

a)

I, II&III

b)

II, III&IV

c)

I, II&IV

d)

I, III&IV

11.
An expert based test estimation is also known as
a)
Narrow band Delphi
b)
Wide band Delphi
c)
Bespoke Delphi
d)
Robust Delphi
12.
A test harness is a
a)
A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
b)
A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
c)
A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
d)
A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
13.
'Be bugging' is known as
a)
Preventing the defects by inspection
b)
Fixing the defects by debugging
c)
Adding known defects by seeding
d)
A process of fixing the defects by tester
14.
A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
a)
Establish a relationship with the customer
b)
Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
c)
Modify the project' s organizational structure to meet the manager's management style
d)
Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace
15.
“This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This statement is best suited for
a)
Water fall model
b)
Spiral model
c)
Incremental model
d)
V-Model
16.
Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?
a)
The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
b)
The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
c)
The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
d)
The capability of one system to be coupled with another system
17.

Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?

<br>

I. Record keeping

II. System design

III. Evaluation scheduling

IV. Error reporting

a)

I, II&III

b)

II, III &IV

c)

I, III &IV

d)

I, II & IV

18.

System test can begin when?

<br>

I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting

II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing

III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control

a)

I and II only

b)

II and III only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II and III

19.
Defect Density' calculated in terms of
a)
The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system
b)
The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards
c)
The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
d)
The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system
20.
Test charters are used in ________ testing
a)
Exploratory testing
b)
Usability testing
c)
Component testing
d)
Maintainability testing
21.
Item transmittal report is also known as
a)
Incident report
b)
Release note
c)
Review report
d)
Audit report
22.
COTS is known as
a)
Commercial off the shelf software
b)
Compliance of the software
c)
Change control of the software
d)
Capable off the shelf software
23.

Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request must be written and should include the following criteria.

<br>

I. Definition of the change

II. Documentation to be updated

III. Name of the tester or developer

IV. Dependencies of the change request.

a)

I, III and IV

b)

I, II and III

c)

II, III and IV

d)

I, II and IV

24.
Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs? Change X Change Y
a)
Code in development Code in production
b)
Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
c)
Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
d)
A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user
25.
Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
a)
BS7799
b)
BS 7925/2
c)
ISO/IEC 926/1
d)
ISO/IEC 2382/1
26.
The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to
a)
Find bugs in the program
b)
Check the technical accuracy of the document
c)
Ensure the ease of use of the document
d)
Ensure that the program is the latest version
27.
During the testing of a module tester X finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it's not a bug. What X should do?
a)
Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
b)
Retest the module and confirm the bug
c)
Assign the same bug to another developer
d)
Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility
28.
One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days. Who is responsible for this incident?
a)
Test managers faults only
b)
Test lead faults only
c)
Test manager and project manager faults
d)
Testers faults only
29.
You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
a)
Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
b)
Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
c)
Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
d)
Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole
30.
Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems
a)
Data driven testing
b)
Migration testing
c)
Configuration testing
d)
Back to back testing
31.
A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is
a)
Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
b)
Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
c)
Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
d)
Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater
32.
What type of risk includes potential failure areas in the software?
a)
Probed risks
b)
Product risks
c)
Economic risks
d)
Requirements risks
33.

Consider the following statements

<br>

i. A incident may be closed without being fixed

ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation

iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing

iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments

v. Incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a)

ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false

b)

i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false

c)

i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false

d)

i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false

e)

i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

34.
Which test suite will check for an invalid transition using the diagram below?
a)

S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S4

b)

S0-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3

c)

S0-S1-S3-S1-S2-S1

d)

S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S2

35.
Who OFTEN performs system testing and acceptance testing, respectively?
a)
Senior programmers and professional testers
b)
Technical system testers and potential customers
c)
Independent test team and users of the system
d)
Development team and customers of the system
36.
Which test levels are USUALLY included in the common type of V-model?
a)
Integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, and regression testing
b)
Component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing
c)
Incremental testing, exhaustive testing, exploratory testing, and data driven testing
d)
Alpha testing, beta testing, black-box testing, and white-box testing
37.

Which general testing principles are characterized by the descriptions below?

<br>

W) Early testing

X) Defect clustering

Y) Pesticide paradox

Z) Absence-of-errors fallacy

<br>

1) Testing should start at the beginning of the project

2) Conformance to requirements and fitness for use

3) Small Number of modules contain the most defects

4) Test cases must be regularly renewed and revised

a)

W1, X2, Y3, and Z4

b)

W1, X3, Y4, and Z2

c)

W2, X3, Y1, and Z4

d)

W1, X4, Y2, and Z3

38.
How are (a) static analysis tools and (b) performance testing tools different?
a)
(a) helps in enforcing coding standards; (b) tests system performance
b)
(a) analyzes security vulnerabilities; (b) measures the effectiveness of test cases
c)
(a) prepares codes prior to testing; (b) prepares codes prior to stress testing
d)
(a) highlights unreachable conditions; (b) improves system performance
39.
In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.
a)
22,23,26
b)
21,39,40
c)
29,30,31
d)
0,15,22
40.

Which of the following describe test control actions that may occur during testing?

<br>

I. Setting an entry criterion that developers must retest fixes before fixes are accepted into a build.

II. Changing the test schedule due to availability of a test environment.

III. Re-prioritizing tests when development delivers software late

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I, II and III

d)

I and III

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