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Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Edward Hall, the American anthropologist once said "The greatest barrier to business success is the one erected by _______"

a)

future

b)

subculture

c)

culture

d)

closure

2.

The statement "I disagree with your analysis" can be interpreted in different ways. A positive interpretation could be ...

a)

My boss is saying that my analysis was dissappointing

b)

My boss is telling me I should keep on working in the same way

c)

My boss' comment is disrespectful

d)

My boss is telling me this is an opportunity for growth

3.

Companies deliberately bring together team members from different backgrounds to encourage (a)  

4.

A culturally competent ​ ... is able to get the best of their team, and culturally competent ... work better together.

a)

manager/group members

b)

member/managers

c)

members/team members

d)

manager/team members

5.

According to the video, which of the following is a question companies will ask when doing business with other countries?

a)

What are the values of potential customers in our country?

b)

What is the most respectful way to market our products to them?

c)

What can we do if we get government disapproval to launch our business?

6.

People who work in supply chain management and global procurement sourcing need to understand cultural differences to negotiate better terms.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

People in sales need to understand different views regarding the manufacturing experience

a)

True

b)

False

8.

People in manufacturing and operations don't need to leverage culture to get peak performance from their employees.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

(a)   exists not only at individual and team levels but also at the organizational level.

10.

Cultural competence has become one of the top focuses for talent management and development.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Who are the primary users of SCM systems?

a)

A. Sales, marketing, customer service

b)

B. Accounting, finance, logistics, and production

c)

C. Customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors

d)

D. All of the above

12.

Which application’s primary business benefits include market demand, resource and capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling?

a)

A. CRM

b)

B. SCM

c)

C. ERP

d)

D. All of the above

13.

Which application’s primary business benefits include forecasting, planning, purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and distribution?

a)

A. CRM

b)

B. SCM

c)

C. ERP

d)

D. All of the above

14.

What is the primary difference in an organization before and after an ERP installation?

a)

A. Employees work across different departments

b)

B. Databases across departments are separate

c)

C. Central database for all departments

d)

D. All of the above

15.

When a user enters or updates information in one ERP module, it is immediately and automatically updated throughout the entire system.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

16.

One of the primary reasons for ERPs explosive growth is that an ERP system is a logical solution to the many incompatible applications found in business today.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

Material Requirement Planning (MRP) utilizes software applications for scheduling _________.

a)

sales management

b)

production processes

c)

marketing techniques

d)

human resource management

18.

1. The purpose of Supply Chain Management is to _________.

a)

provide customer satisfaction

b)

improve quality of a product

c)

integrate supply and demand management

d)

increase production

19.

Just-In-Time (JIT) or SCM purchasing requires the following condition:

a)

Many suppliers

b)

Short-term contracts

c)

Cooperation between purchasing and suppliers

d)

Continuous competitive bidding

20.

CRM is a company-wide business strategy designed to optimize which of the following?

a)

Customer satisfaction

b)

Product branding

c)

Revenue

d)

Expenses

21.

A CRM database focuses on collecting all of the following vital statistics on consumers EXCEPT _____.

a)

family size

b)

purchasing habits

c)

transaction methods

d)

product usage

22.

Enterprise systems use multiple databases aimed at different business units.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

23.

Customer support, sales management and contact management are key features of a Customer Relationship Management system.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

24.

_____ includes the planning, executing, and controlling of all activities involved in raw material sourcing and procurement, converting raw materials to finished products, and the warehousing and delivering finished product to customers.

a)

Maintenance, repair and operations (MRO)

b)

Materials requirement planning (MRP)

c)

Customer relationship management (CRM)

d)

Supply chain management (SCM)

25.

Customer relationship management can help a business to identify its _________.

a)

best-selling products

b)

most talented employees

c)

financial strengths and weaknesses

d)

most valuable customers

26.

A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the _______

a)

A) RBI Act 1934

b)

B) Companies Act, 1956

c)

C) NBFC Act 1956

d)

D) Government Securities Regulations, 1913

27.

Which of the following activity is not permissible for NBFC?

a)

A) loans and advances

b)

B) acquisition of shares

c)

C) insurance business

d)

D) construction of immovable property

28.

Which of the following is false about NBFC?

a)

A) NBFC cannot accept demand deposits

b)

B) NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself

c)

C) deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs

d)

D) NBFC cannot undertake insurance business

29.

What is the minimum Net Owned Funds required by NBFCs for registration with RBI?

a)

A) Rs 5 lakhs

b)

B) Rs 25 lakhs

c)

C) Rs 50 lakhs

d)

D) Rs 2 crore

30.

NBFCs with asset size more than ___ are considered to be systemically important NBFCs

a)

A) Rs 500 crore

b)

B) Rs 100 crore

c)

C) Rs 200 crore

d)

D) Rs 350 crore

31.

Which agency regulates and supervises NBFCs?

a)

a. Finance Ministry

b)

b. SEBI

c)

c. RBI

d)

d. Respective state government

32.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?


1. NBFCs does not hold a banking license.

2. NBFC can issue Demand Drafts like banks.

a)

a. Only 1

b)

b. Only 2

c)

c. Both

d)

d. None

33.

Which of the following registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances ?

a)

Commercial banks

b)

Foreign banks

c)

Regional rural banks

d)

Non-Banking Financial Company

34.

Which of the follwing is false ?

a)

NBFCs can't accept demand deposits and can't issue cheques drawn themselves.

b)

NBFCs donot form part of payment and settlement system such as NEFT and RTGS.

c)

Deposit insurance facility is avaliable for NBFC

d)

NBFC mainly deals with loans and advances

35.

Which is a distinctive attempt to address the issue of sourcing long term debt for infrastructure projects in India ?

a)

Infrastrucuture Debt Funds

b)

Infrastructure finance company

c)

Asset finance company

d)

Micro finance institutions

36.

Which of the following NBFC regulated by RBI ?

a)

Asset Finance company

b)

Insurance companies

c)

Mutual funds

d)

Housing finance company

37.

Which of the following NBFC give loans to poor households without collateral securities ?

a)

Chit funds

b)

Nidhi companies

c)

Micro Finance Institutions

d)

Venture capital funds

38.

Non-Banking Financial Company does not include_______

a)

Agriculture Activity

b)

Industrial Activity

c)

Construction of Immovable Property

d)

All of the Above

39.

NBFC engaged in the business of _______

a)

Loans and Advances

b)

Acquisition of shares

c)

Acquisitions of stocks

d)

All of the above

40.

Which of the following can not accept Demand Deposit

a)

Commercial Banks

b)

Foreign Banks

c)

Regional Rural Banks

d)

NBFC

41.

There are 9 steps to the purchasing & supply function.

What is the first step, and what is the final step?

a)

Development & description of a need.

b)

Choice of suppliers.

c)

Paying for the order.

d)

Closing the order.

42.

Purchasing & supply activities must be done effectively, & has 9 control points. Which 3 of the 5 terms below is a control point?

a)

Employee skill.

b)

Supplier performance.

c)

Threats.

d)

Cost-saving.

e)

Workload.

43.

There are 4 main factors of the purchasing & supply decision. What are they?

a)

1. Quality.

2. Supplier Service.

3. Delivery.

4. Price.

b)

1. Quantity.

2. Supplier Service.

3. Transmission.

4. Price.

c)

1. Quality.

2. Supplier products.

3. Delivery.

4. Presence of mind.

44.

What is the best description for the just-in-time (JIT) system?

a)

Presentation of materials of the right quantity to the business in the week it is needed.

b)

Delivery of materials of the right quality to the business on the day it is needed.

c)

Delivering materials after each business cycle has concluded.

45.

What is the best description for the efficient consumer response (ECR) system?

a)

Presentation of materials of the right quantity to the business in the week it is needed.

b)

Delivery of materials of the right quality to the business on the day it is needed.

c)

Timely, accurate & paperless flow of info, to eliminate costs.

46.

What are the 2 determinants that affect the place of the purchasing & supply function?

a)

Product & place.

b)

Centralisation/ decentralisation, & hierarchical level.

c)

Consumer behaviour, & market categorisation.

47.

Which of the activities listed below is a task of cross-functional sourcing teams?

a)

Negotiating corporate-wide purchasing agreements.

b)

Product selection.

c)

Developing profitability strategies.

48.

Which term below describes the following statement the best?

"Right product, right time, for the right market."

a)

The supply chain.

b)

Inventory-holding.

c)

Marketing of Products.

49.

Which 2 aspects are considered when deciding the "right quality"?

a)

The consumers & the organisational leaders.

b)

Employees, & leaders of a company.

c)

The organisational leaders, & end-users/ market.

d)

Engineers & designers, & end user &/or marketing function.

50.

What does SABS stand for? The S_ A_ Bureau of S_.

(a)  

51.

The problematic stage of Supply Chain Mgt.

a)

Plan

b)

Return

c)

Develop

d)

Deliver

52.

The end point of the supply chain.

a)

Supplier

b)

Retailer

c)

Distributor

d)

None of the Above (NOTA)

53.

A wholesaler who sells products of a company but can't use the manufacturer's business name.

a)

Dealer

b)

Retailer

c)

Distributor

d)

None of the Above (NOTA)

54.

A person who oversees and manages transportation and storage for inventory

a)

Supply chain manager

b)

Supplier

c)

Logistician

d)

All of the Above (AOTA)

55.

It fulfills the direct procurement requirements through the sourcing, issuance, and confirmation of purchase orders

a)

Strategic sourcing process

b)

Receipt confirmation process

c)

Purchase Order processing

d)

None of the Above (NOTA)

56.

Process of hiring a third party to perform services and create goods.

a)

Supplier collaboration process

b)

Demand planning process

c)

Strategic sourcing process

d)

Outsourcing process

57.

A process which allows the order entry, pricing, and scheduling order for fulfillment

a)

Sales order processing

b)

Purchase order processing

c)

Billing process

d)

Invoice verification process

58.

The process of preparing and shipping goods to their destination

a)

Outbound Processing

b)

Transportation Execution Process

c)

Inbound Processing

d)

Transportation Planning process

59.

It predicts future demand based on historical or present data.

a)

Strategic planning

b)

Consensus Demand planning

c)

Forecasting process

d)

Life cycle Planning process

60.

A supply chain management component which involves identifying dependable suppliers.

a)

Plan

b)

Make

c)

Develop

d)

Deliver

61.

A seller who buys products from a distributor and sell the products to consumers in small quantities

a)

Shopper

b)

Wholesaler

c)

Supplier

d)

Retailer

62.

The process of choosing promotional activities in order to meet future demand.

a)

Consensus demand planning

b)

Promotion Planning

c)

Forecasting process

d)

Supply planning

63.

The process which allows vendor to assume responsibility for planning the levels of inventory at the customer location.

a)

Distribution planning

b)

Supply network planning

c)

Customer collaboration process

d)

Procurement process

64.

The process of delivering goods or supplies directly to the customers without being stored in a warehouse or storage facility through an outbound logistics.

a)

Distribution planning

b)

Cross Docking

c)

Transportation Execution

d)

Outbound Processing

65.

The process of calculating quantities to be delivered to the locations to match customer demand and maintain desired service level.

a)

Detailed scheduling process

b)

Supply network planning

c)

Consensus demand planning

d)

Supplier collaboration process

66.

A facility where goods or inventory is stored

a)

Shopping Mall

b)

distribution center

c)

Warehouse

d)

All of the Above

67.

Which is a supplier among the choices?

a)

Farmer

b)

Market

c)

Rice Mill

d)

Cargo ship

68.

Which one should come first in the supply chain?

a)

Retailer

b)

Supplier

c)

Raw materials

d)

Pharmacy

69.

Which one should come first in the supply chain?

a)

Distributor transport the apple cider to customers

b)

Wholesaler buys apples from harvesters

c)

Apples are delivered to factory that makes cider

d)

Retailers receives apple cider from wholesaler

70.

Which one should come first among the choices?

a)

Delivery

b)

Invoice

c)

Purchase order

d)

Receipt

71.

10 points: What are the factors that affect Supply Chain Management in the Hotel Industry and how do these factors affect SCM. Don't dare plagiarize!

4 lines
72.

10 points: What are the problems of Hotel Industry related to supply chain? Explain how these problems affect supply chain. Don't dare plagiarize!

4 lines
73.

__________affect nearly every decision we make.

a)

sourcing inputs

b)

cognitive biases

c)

decisions

d)

strategies

74.

(a)   are forcing organizations to strategize and act quickly.

75.

Choose 2 ordinary sourcing activities.

a)

Opinions

b)

Sourcing inputs

c)

Persuasion

d)

Managing customer relationships

76.

Diligence based strategy relys on.....

a)

Empirical evidence

b)

opinions

77.

Which is not a strategy of diligence based?

a)

Less opinions and persuasion

b)

Act quickly

c)

Analizing trends

d)

Optimize operations

78.

Write the name of the first spreadsheet (write your answer in capital letter).

(a)  

79.

In this year, appears the first PC ¨Personal computer¨.

a)

1980

b)

1983

c)

1978

d)

1982

80.

What is a job description?

a)

The process of identifying what a particular job entails

b)

A document which outlines the applicant's educational achievements, professional qualifications and skills

c)

A document that provides details of a particular job 

d)

A document that gives the profile of the ideal candidate for a job 

81.

Tests used to assess a candidate's skills of numeracy, literacy and general knowledge are:

a)

Psychometric tests

b)

Aptitude testing

c)

Intelligence tests

d)

Trade tests

82.

Which of the following labour mobility refers to the extent to which workers are able and willing to relocate to another area for employment purposes?

a)

Occupational mobility

b)

Occupational immobility

c)

Geographical mobility

d)

Geographical immobility

83.

Which of the following refers to the number of staff away from work as a percentage of the firm's total workforce, per time period?

a)

High labour turnover

b)

Absenteeism

c)

Labour turnover

d)

Average number of staff

84.

The ageing population in economically developed countries has many implications on workforce planning:

a)

Higher labour productivity levels

b)

Changing consumption patterns

c)

Lower labour productivity levels

d)

Increased labour mobility

85.

What is the main method of selection for internal and external recruitment?

a)

Shorlisting

b)

Interview

c)

Aptitude testing

d)

Application form

86.

Which of the following training refers to exercising and developing the mental skills of employees?

a)

Behavioural training

b)

Cognitive training

c)

Induction

d)

Mentoring

87.

What are the advantages of off-the-job training?

a)

Fewer disruptions to daily operations

b)

A wider range of skills and qualifications

c)

Cheapest form of training

d)

Improve the productivity of workers

88.

Target setting is a part of appraisals, and should be SMART:

a)

Summative, measurable, adaptative, realistic and time bound

b)

Specific, measurable, adaptive, realisitc and time bound

c)

Specific, measurable, achievable, realistic and time bound

d)

Summative, measurable, achievable, realistic and time bound

89.

An appraisal which takes place on an on-going basis to enable employees to improve their job performance is a:

a)

Formative appraisal

b)

Summative appraisal

c)

360-degree feedback

d)

Self-appraisal

90.

Which of the following refers to the termination of a worker's employment due to their incompetence or breach of employment contract?

a)

Dismissal

b)

Redundancy

91.

How can you define teleworking?

a)

Employees are looking for job opportunities overseas

b)

Employees work away from the office by using electronic forms of communication

c)

Employees work from home by using electronic forms of communciation

d)

Employees have the right to choose when they work

92.

The practice of relocating business functions or activities abroad is:

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Offshoring

c)

Re-shoring

d)

Re-sourcing

93.

Which of the following social media is mainly used as part of the recruitment process?

a)

Instagram

b)

Twitter

c)

LinkedIn

d)

Facebook

94.

Today, more business are choosing to re-shore their operations, why?

a)

Increasing use of information communications technologies (ICT)

b)

Unethical treatment of people in the workplace

c)

Unethical business practices

d)

High rates of labour turnover

95.

Creativity is defined as the tendency to generate or recognize ideas, alternatives, or possibilities that may be useful in solving problems, communicating with others, and entertaining ourselves and others.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Creativity is the ability to come up with new ideas and to identify new and different ways of looking at a problem and opportunities.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

In order to be creative, you need to be able to view things in new ways or from a different perspective.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Creativity is the development of ideas about products, practices, services, or procedures that are novel and potentially useful to the organization.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Opportunity or Problem Recognition: A person discovers that a new opportunity exists or a problem needs resolution.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Immersion: The individual concentrates on the problem and becomes immersed in it. He or she will recall and collect information that seems relevant, dreaming up alternatives without refining or evaluating them.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

WHAT ARE THE PERSONALITY TRAITS OF CREATIVE PEOPLE?

a)

Take risks

b)

Drive to achieve

c)

Independence

d)

Tolerance of ambiguity

e)

All the above

102.

WHAT ARE THE BARRIERS TO CREATIVITY?

a)

Critical evaluation

b)

Creative

c)

Innovative

d)

Persistence

103.

Netpreneurship is a process of identifying and starting a business venture, sourcing and organizing the required resources, and taking both the risks and rewards associated with the venture on the Internet.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

Innovation is the implementation of new ideas at the individual, group, or organizational level.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Change: It results in some kind of change.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Innovation is the process of new ideas at the individual, group, or organizational level.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

HOW MANY ARE THE TYPES OF INNOVATIONS?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

4

d)

7

108.

HOW MANY ARE THE INNOVATION PROCESS?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

8

d)

4

109.

Creativity is the ability to develop new ideas and to discover new ways of looking at problems and opportunities.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Innovation is the ability to apply creative solutions to those problems and opportunities in order to enhance people’s lives or to enrich society.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Duplication - Copying (replicating) an existing product or service and then adding the entrepreneur's own creative touch, in order to improve it.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Who is the example for the Netpreneurship?

a)

Ananda Krishan

b)

Robert Kwok

c)

Sachin Bansal

d)

Syed Mokhtar

113.

Brian Action (Whatsapp) is one of the Netpreneurship?

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Based on the answer given, who is not the Netpreneurship?

a)

Bhavish Agarwal

b)

Elon Musk

c)

Kunal Bahl

d)

Mark Zuckerberg