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APHG Vocab Units 1-7

Total questions: 230

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A type of map that shows information about locations and may include political or physical features

a)

Reference maps

b)

Choropleth map

c)

Graduated symbol map

d)

Absolute

2.

A thematic map that uses colors or shading to represent data

a)

Reference maps

b)

Choropleth map

c)

Graduated symbol map

d)

Absolute

3.

A thematic map that uses dots to represent a specified quantity of a spatial characteristic

a)

Dot distribution map

b)

Choropleth map

c)

Graduated symbol map

d)

Absolute

4.

A thematic map that uses symbols of different sizes to indicate different amounts of a variable

a)

Dot distribution map

b)

Choropleth map

c)

Graduated symbol map

d)

Isoline map

5.

A thematic map that connects areas of equal value with lines

a)

Dot distribution map

b)

Choropleth map

c)

Graduated symbol map

d)

Isoline map

6.

A map that shows elevation to show physical features on Earth’s surface

a)

Dot distribution map

b)

Choropleth map

c)

Graduated symbol map

d)

Topographic map

7.

A thematic map where Area is distorted to show a variable

a)

Dot distribution map

b)

Choropleth map

c)

Graduated symbol map

d)

Cartogram

8.

Describing distance, direction, and location in quantitative, exact, and precise terms

a)

Absolute

b)

Relative

c)

Distribution

d)

Density

9.

Describing distance, direction, and location in descriptive, qualitative, and conceptual terms

a)

Absolute

b)

Relative

c)

Distribution

d)

Density

10.

The way something is spread out over an area (where is it?)

a)

Absolute

b)

Relative

c)

Distribution

d)

Density

11.

The frequency with which a particular phenomenon occurs in an area (how much?)

a)

Absolute

b)

Relative

c)

Distribution

d)

Density

12.

the method of transferring and representing the Earth/3D object to a flat surface

a)

Map distortions

b)

Map projection

c)

Distribution

d)

Density

13.

Map projections will misrepresent shape, area, distance, and direction

a)

Map distortions

b)

Map projection

c)

Distribution

d)

Density

14.

when geographers visit a place first hand and record information gathered while there (drawing maps, taking notes, counting, interviewing)

a)

Field observations

b)

Spatial data

c)

Remote sensing

d)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

15.

data related to a specific point on Earth

a)

Field observations

b)

Spatial data

c)

Remote sensing

d)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

16.

The use of cameras or other sensors mounted on aircraft or satellites to collect digital images of the Earth’s surface

a)

Field observations

b)

Spatial data

c)

Remote sensing

d)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

17.

Uses a series of satellites, tracking stations, and receivers to determine absolute locations on Earth

a)

Field observations

b)

Geographic Information System (GIS)

c)

Remote sensing

d)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

18.

Computer system that captures, stores, analyzes, and displays data from multiple digital maps or geospatial data sets

a)

Field observations

b)

Geographic Information System (GIS)

c)

Remote sensing

d)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

19.

Describing a place in terms of its physical characteristics such as climate, topography, and natural resources

a)

situation

b)

site

c)

toponym

d)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

20.

Describing a particular place in terms of relative characteristics

a)

situation

b)

site

c)

toponym

d)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

21.

A place name that contributes to sense of place

a)

situation

b)

site

c)

toponym

d)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

22.

increasing sense of accessibility and connectivity as a result of globalization and increased technology and transportation

a)

situation

b)

site

c)

Distance decay

d)

Time-space compression

23.

The interaction between two places declines as the distance between the two places increases

a)

situation

b)

site

c)

Distance decay

d)

Time-space compression

24.

The idea of using resources in a way that will maintain their use in the future

a)

Sustainability

b)

Land use

c)

Environmental determinism

d)

Possibilism

25.

Changing the Earth’s surface for a specific purpose (examples: agricultural, industrial, residential)

a)

Sustainability

b)

Land use

c)

Environmental determinism

d)

Possibilism

26.

Theory that the environment (climate, landforms, etc.) are the most powerful forces shaping human behavior and societal/cultural development

a)

Sustainability

b)

Land use

c)

Environmental determinism

d)

Possibilism

27.

Theory that acknowledges the limitations imposed by the natural environment, but focuses on the role of human culture to modify and respond to the environment to better fit human needs

a)

Sustainability

b)

Land use

c)

Environmental determinism

d)

Possibilism

28.

The scope or level of a phenomenon (example: local, regional, global)

a)

Scale of Analysis

b)

Land use

c)

Absolute

d)

Possibilism

29.

A region that has some unifying physical or human characteristic

a)

Formal region (uniform)

b)

Functional region (nodal)

c)

Perceptual region (vernacular)

d)

Scale of Analysis

30.

A region that Have a center of activity that directs movement or flow

a)

Formal region (uniform)

b)

Functional region (nodal)

c)

Perceptual region (vernacular)

d)

Scale of Analysis

31.

An informal region that is based on a person’s perspective of a place

a)

Formal region (uniform)

b)

Functional region (nodal)

c)

Perceptual region (vernacular)

d)

Scale of Analysis

32.

The pattern and spread of human settlement (where?)

a)

Population distribution

b)

Arithmetic Density

c)

Physiological Density

d)

Agricultural Density

33.

The total number of people divided by the total land area

a)

Population distribution

b)

Arithmetic Density

c)

Physiological Density

d)

Agricultural Density

34.

Number of people per unit of area of arable land

a)

Population distribution

b)

Arithmetic Density

c)

Physiological Density

d)

Agricultural Density

35.

Ratio of the number of farmers to the amount of arable land

a)

Population distribution

b)

Arithmetic Density

c)

Physiological Density

d)

Agricultural Density

36.

The population that can be supported by an area without significant environmental deterioration

a)

Population distribution

b)

Carrying capacity

c)

Physiological Density

d)

Agricultural Density

37.

Spike in the birth rate after a war or during a time of economic abundance

a)

Baby boom

b)

Crude Birth Rate (CBR)

c)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

d)

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

38.

Proportion of males to females in a population

a)

Sex ratio

b)

Crude Birth Rate (CBR)

c)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

d)

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

39.

The total number of live births in a year for every 1,000 people alive

a)

Baby boom

b)

Crude Birth Rate (CBR)

c)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

d)

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

40.

The average number of children a woman will have in her childbearing years

a)

Baby boom

b)

Crude Birth Rate (CBR)

c)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

d)

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

41.

A measurement of deaths of infants under one year of age for every 1,000 live births in a year

a)

Baby boom

b)

Crude Birth Rate (CBR)

c)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

d)

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

42.

The total number of deaths in one year per 1,000 people

a)

Crude Death Rate (CDR)

b)

Rate of Natural Increase (RNI)

c)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

d)

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

43.

the percentage by which a population grows in a year

a)

Crude Death Rate (CDR)

b)

Rate of Natural Increase (RNI)

c)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

d)

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

44.

Model used by geographers to analyze and predict trends in population growth and decline including patterns of births, deaths and natural increase rates

a)

Demographic Transition Model (DTM)

b)

Malthusian Theory

c)

Pro-Natalist Policies

d)

Anti-Natalist Policies

45.

Theory stating that population will outpace food supply because population grows geometrically and food supply grows arithmetically

a)

Demographic Transition Model (DTM)

b)

Malthusian Theory

c)

Pro-Natalist Policies

d)

Anti-Natalist Policies

46.

Government programs designed to increase the fertility rate and accelerate population growth

a)

Demographic Transition Model (DTM)

b)

Malthusian Theory

c)

Pro-Natalist Policies

d)

Anti-Natalist Policies

47.

Government programs designed to decrease the fertility rate and slow down population growth

a)

Demographic Transition Model (DTM)

b)

Malthusian Theory

c)

Pro-Natalist Policies

d)

Anti-Natalist Policies

48.

The annual number of female deaths per 100,000 live births from any cause related to pregnancy

a)

Crude Death Rate (CDR)

b)

Maternal Mortality rate

c)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

d)

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

49.

Migrants may move to a near place first then move farther away as they learn about new locations

a)

Step migration

b)

Migration

c)

Pull factors

d)

Transnational Migration

50.

The average number of years an individual can be expected to live, given current social, economic, and medical conditions

a)

Crude Death Rate (CDR)

b)

Life Expectancy

c)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

d)

Dependency Ratio

51.

is the number of people too young (under 15) or too old (over 65) to work compared to those in productive years

a)

Crude Death Rate (CDR)

b)

Life Expectancy

c)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

d)

Dependency Ratio

52.

Permanent or semipermanent relocation of people from one place to another

a)

Step migration

b)

Migration

c)

Pull factors

d)

Transnational Migration

53.

Negative situations, events, or conditions in a place where a person currently lives that causes them to want to leave

a)

Step migration

b)

Push factors

c)

Pull factors

d)

Transnational Migration

54.

Positive situations, events, or conditions in a place that draw people to a new destination

a)

Step migration

b)

Push factors

c)

Pull factors

d)

Transnational Migration

55.

Negative circumstances or features that hinder migration

a)

Intervening Opportunity

b)

Push factors

c)

Pull factors

d)

Intervening obstacle

56.

Positive circumstances or features that hinder migration

a)

Intervening Opportunity

b)

Push factors

c)

Pull factors

d)

Intervening obstacle

57.

A type of migration that is across international borders in which individuals maintain or build multiple networks of connection to their country of origin while at the same time settling in a new country

a)

Step migration

b)

Push factors

c)

Pull factors

d)

Transnational Migration

58.

Money sent back to migrants’ country of origin

a)

Intervening Opportunity

b)

Remittances

c)

Pull factors

d)

Intervening obstacle

59.

Traditional migration of nomadic herders that move their livestock according to the seasonal availability of pastures

a)

Step migration

b)

Chain Migration

c)

Transhumance

d)

Transnational Migration

60.

Migration of people to a specific location because relatives or friends previously migrated there

a)

Step migration

b)

Chain Migration

c)

Transhumance

d)

Transnational Migration

61.

People who temporarily migrate internationally for work, legally

a)

Guest workers

b)

refugee

c)

Internally Displaced Persons

d)

Asylum Seeker

62.

An international migrant who has a well founded fear of being persecuted for reasons of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group, or political opinion

a)

Guest workers

b)

refugee

c)

Internally Displaced Persons

d)

Asylum Seeker

63.

Someone who has been forced to flee their home but never crosses an international border

a)

Guest workers

b)

refugee

c)

Internally Displaced Persons

d)

Asylum Seeker

64.

Someone who has fled their country and wishes to be granted refugee status

a)

Guest workers

b)

refugee

c)

Internally Displaced Persons

d)

Asylum Seeker

65.

Loss of trained or educated people to emigration

a)

Step migration

b)

Brain Drain

c)

Transhumance

d)

Transnational Migration

66.

The learned and shared beliefs, values, practices, behaviors, and technologies of a society

a)

Culture

b)

Cultural Traits

c)

Artifacts

d)

Ethnocentrism

67.

Visible and invisible attributes that combine to make up a group’s culture

a)

Cultural Traits

b)

Ethnic enclaves

c)

Cultural Realm

d)

Isogloss

68.

Visible, physical objects created by a culture

a)

Artifacts

b)

Sociofacts

c)

Mentifacts

d)

Sequent Occupancy

69.

The ways in which a society behaves and organizes institutions

a)

Artifacts

b)

Sociofacts

c)

Mentifacts

d)

Sequent Occupancy

70.

The ideas, beliefs, values, and knowledge of a culture

a)

Artifacts

b)

Sociofacts

c)

Mentifacts

d)

Sequent Occupancy

71.

The beliefs and practices of small, homogeneous groups of people, often living in rural areas that are relatively isolated and slow to change

a)

Folk Culture

b)

Pop Culture

c)

Culture hearth

d)

Universalizing Religion

72.

Judging other cultures in terms of one's own standards and often includes the belief that one’s own culture/ethnic group is better than others

a)

Ethnocentrism

b)

Cultural Relativism

c)

Cultural appropriation

d)

Acculturation

73.

An unbiased way of viewing another culture, the goal of this is to promote understanding of cultural practices that are not typically part of one’s own culture

a)

Ethnocentrism

b)

Cultural Relativism

c)

Cultural appropriation

d)

Acculturation

74.

the human imprint on the environment; visible reflection of a culture; the built environment

a)

Cultural landscape

b)

Artifacts

c)

Culture hearth

d)

Isogloss

75.

successive societies leave their cultural imprints on a place, each group contributing to a cumulative cultural landscape

a)

Cultural landscape

b)

Artifacts

c)

Culture hearth

d)

Sequent Occupancy

76.

sense of belonging or identity within a group of people bound by common ancestry and culture; different from race which is based on physical characteristics

a)

Ethnicity

b)

Culture

c)

Expansion Diffusion

d)

Cultural Realm

77.

an ethnic concentration in a rural area; a small ethnic settlement in the middle of a larger population

a)

Ethnic Island

b)

Ethnic enclaves

c)

Cultural Realm

d)

Cultural landscape

78.

small areas of cities that are inhabited by a minority cultural group

a)

Ethnic Island

b)

Ethnic enclaves

c)

Cultural Realm

d)

Cultural landscape

79.

Area of the world that shares cultural traits such as language families, religious traditions, food preferences, architecture, and/or a shared history

a)

Ethnic Island

b)

Ethnic enclaves

c)

Cultural Realm

d)

Cultural landscape

80.

a language designated by law to be the language of government

a)

Pidgin language

b)

Creole language

c)

Official language

d)

Lingua franca

81.

The area in which a unique culture or a specific trait develops 

a)

Culture Hearth

b)

Ethnic enclaves

c)

Cultural Realm

d)

Cultural landscape

82.

The spread of a cultural trait by people who migrate and carry their cultural traits with them

a)

Relocation Diffusion

b)

Expansion Diffusion

c)

Contagious Diffusion

d)

Hierarchical Diffusion

83.

the spread of cultural traits through direct or indirect exchange without migration

a)

Relocation Diffusion

b)

Expansion Diffusion

c)

Contagious Diffusion

d)

Hierarchical Diffusion

84.

when a cultural trait continuously spreads outward from its hearth through contact among people

a)

Relocation Diffusion

b)

Expansion Diffusion

c)

Contagious Diffusion

d)

Hierarchical Diffusion

85.

the spread of culture from the most interconnected places or from centers of wealth and importance  

a)

Relocation Diffusion

b)

Expansion Diffusion

c)

Contagious Diffusion

d)

Hierarchical Diffusion

86.

spread of cultural traits from the least interconnected, wealthy, or powerful people/organizations outwards

a)

Relocation Diffusion

b)

Expansion Diffusion

c)

Contagious Diffusion

d)

Reverse Hierarchical Diffusion

87.

When a people and culture adopt an underlying idea or process from another culture; the original trait is modified because they reject some aspect of it

a)

Relocation Diffusion

b)

Stimulus Diffusion

c)

Contagious Diffusion

d)

Reverse Hierarchical Diffusion

88.

a simplified mixture of two languages that has fewer grammar rules and a smaller vocabulary but is not the native language of either group

a)

Pidgin language

b)

Creole language

c)

Official language

d)

Lingua franca

89.

two or more separate languages have mixed and developed a more formal structure and vocabulary

a)

Pidgin language

b)

Creole language

c)

Official language

d)

Lingua franca

90.

an established language that comes to be spoken and understood over a large area, often used by speakers of two different languages for communication

a)

Pidgin language

b)

Creole language

c)

Official language

d)

Lingua franca

91.

The process of a culture restricting contact with other cultures in an attempt to retain its originality

a)

Cultural divergence

b)

Ethnocentrism

c)

Expansion Diffusion

d)

Syncretism

92.

Largest group of related languages which are connected through a common, ancient ancestry and trace back to a common hearth

a)

Language Family

b)

Language Branch

c)

Language Group

d)

Dialect

93.

Collection of languages that share a common origin from thousands of years ago

a)

Language Family

b)

Language Branch

c)

Language Group

d)

Dialect

94.

Collection of languages that share a more recent past with similar vocabularies and some overlap

a)

Language Family

b)

Language Branch

c)

Language Group

d)

Dialect

95.

boundary within which certain languages or dialects are spoken

a)

Language Family

b)

Language Branch

c)

Isogloss

d)

Dialect

96.

regional variants of a standard language, often reflecting differences in vocabulary, pronunciation, and pace

a)

Language Family

b)

Language Branch

c)

Isogloss

d)

Dialect

97.

A religion that has universal appeal despite ethnicity and actively seeks converts

a)

Universalizing Religion

b)

Ethnic Religion

c)

Cultural Relativism

d)

Language Branch

98.

A religion that is tied to specific location and/or ethnic group, adherents are often born into the religion and new believers are not recruited

a)

Universalizing Religion

b)

Ethnic Religion

c)

Cultural Relativism

d)

Language Branch

99.

The development of a new cultural form by the fusion of two or more distinct cultural traits

a)

Syncretism

b)

Acculturation

c)

Assimilation

d)

Multiculturalism

100.

when people within one culture adopt some traits from the other culture while still maintaining major elements of their culture

a)

Syncretism

b)

Acculturation

c)

Assimilation

d)

Multiculturalism

101.

When an ethnic group can no longer be distinguished from the dominant group

a)

Syncretism

b)

Acculturation

c)

Assimilation

d)

Multiculturalism

102.

Cultural diversity within a society

a)

Syncretism

b)

Acculturation

c)

Assimilation

d)

Multiculturalism

103.

Process where other cultures adopt cultural traits or icons for their own benefit

a)

Syncretism

b)

Acculturation

c)

Cultural appropriation

d)

Multiculturalism

104.

A political unit with a defined territory and borders, a permanent population, a sovereign government, and recognition from other states

a)

State

b)

Nation

c)

Nation-state

d)

Stateless Nation

105.

A group of people bound together by some sense of a common identity, usually with shared cultural traits and attachment to a homeland

a)

State

b)

Nation

c)

Nation-state

d)

Stateless Nation

106.

When the borders of the nation match the borders of the state - a state with only one nation within it

a)

State

b)

Nation

c)

Nation-state

d)

Stateless Nation

107.

A nation of people without a state that it considers home to occupy

a)

State

b)

Nation

c)

Nation-state

d)

Stateless Nation

108.

A nation that has their own state, but then spreads into other states, as well. Their homeland might also include parts of other states. They may have considerable influence in those other states

a)

Multistate Nation

b)

Nation

c)

Nation-state

d)

Stateless Nation

109.

A country with various ethnicities and cultures within its borders

a)

State

b)

Nation

c)

Nation-state

d)

Multinational state

110.

Area within a state that have a moderate degree of self-government and freedom to govern their own affairs

a)

State

b)

Nation

c)

Nation-state

d)

Semi-autonomous regions

111.

The dominance of one country over other nations/territories through diplomacy or force

a)

Imperialism

b)

Colonialism

c)

Sovereignty

d)

Self-determination

112.

Form of imperialism where settlements are established in the less powerful country

a)

Imperialism

b)

Colonialism

c)

Sovereignty

d)

Self-determination

113.

A state’s authority to control its territory and govern itself

a)

Imperialism

b)

Colonialism

c)

Sovereignty

d)

Self-determination

114.

The right of all people to govern themselves; often desired by a nation, ethnicity, or former colony; may result in independence movements or devolution

a)

Imperialism

b)

Colonialism

c)

Sovereignty

d)

Self-determination

115.

A meeting from 1884-1885 at which representatives of European nations agreed on rules for the colonization of Africa

a)

Imperialism

b)

Colonialism

c)

Sovereignty

d)

Berlin Conference

116.

The control and influence over a specific geographic space

a)

Territoriality

b)

Neocolonialism

c)

Shatterbelts

d)

Chokepoints

117.

Control by a powerful country of former colonies (or other LDCs) by economic, cultural, or political pressures

a)

Territoriality

b)

Neocolonialism

c)

Shatterbelts

d)

Chokepoints

118.

Areas where larger regional or global political or cultural divisions collide and cause conflict at a local scale

a)

Territoriality

b)

Neocolonialism

c)

Shatterbelts

d)

Chokepoints

119.

Strategic strait or canal; is narrow, hard to pass through, has competition for use

a)

Territoriality

b)

Neocolonialism

c)

Shatterbelts

d)

Chokepoints

120.

Border that is drawn over existing and accepted borders by an outside force

a)

Superimposed Boundary

b)

Subsequent Boundary

c)

Antecedent Boundary

d)

Geometric Boundary

121.

Borders that are drawn in areas that have been settled by people, after the cultural landscape has formed

a)

Superimposed Boundary

b)

Subsequent Boundary

c)

Antecedent Boundary

d)

Geometric Boundary

122.

Borders that are established before there has been major settlement by people in a territory; drawn before the cultural human landscape was there

a)

Superimposed Boundary

b)

Subsequent Boundary

c)

Antecedent Boundary

d)

Geometric Boundary

123.

Borders that are established on straight lines, usually of latitude and longitude, instead of physical or cultural boundaries

a)

Superimposed Boundary

b)

Subsequent Boundary

c)

Antecedent Boundary

d)

Geometric Boundary

124.

A part of a country that is separated from the rest of the country and surrounded by foreign territory

a)

Superimposed Boundary

b)

Subsequent Boundary

c)

Enclave

d)

Exclave

125.

An enclosed territory that is culturally distinct from the foreign territory that surrounds it

a)

Superimposed Boundary

b)

Subsequent Boundary

c)

Enclave

d)

Exclave

126.

International treaty which was adopted and signed in 1982 defining maritime boundaries, including territorial sea and Exclusive Economic Zone

a)

Superimposed Boundary

b)

Subsequent Boundary

c)

Law of the Sea

d)

Exclave

127.

Process in which U.S. House of Representative seats are re-allocated to different states, based off of population change as measured by the census

a)

Reapportionment

b)

Voting Districts

c)

Redistricting

d)

Gerrymandering

128.

Local geographic area in which one votes for representatives to Congress

a)

Reapportionment

b)

Voting Districts

c)

Redistricting

d)

Gerrymandering

129.

States redraw internal political boundaries / create voting districts to reflect new census data

a)

Reapportionment

b)

Voting Districts

c)

Redistricting

d)

Gerrymandering

130.

When the political party that controls the state legislature draws political district boundaries to maintain or extend their political power

a)

Reapportionment

b)

Voting Districts

c)

Redistricting

d)

Gerrymandering

131.

A style of government in which the power is located centrally and the purpose of regional or local units is to carry out policy

a)

Federal

b)

Unitary

c)

Redistricting

d)

Gerrymandering

132.

A style of government in which power is shared between central, regional, and local governments

a)

Federal

b)

Unitary

c)

Voting Districts

d)

Gerrymandering

133.

Process when regions within a state demand and possibly gain political strength and growing autonomy at the expense of the central government

a)

Devolution

b)

Ethnic Cleansing

c)

Terrorism

d)

Irredentism

134.

When devolution in the form of making new states turns violent

a)

Balkanization

b)

Ethnic Cleansing

c)

Terrorism

d)

Irredentism

135.

Removing an ethnic group from a geographic area through mass murder, expulsion, and/or imprisonment

a)

Balkanization

b)

Ethnic Cleansing

c)

Terrorism

d)

Irredentism

136.

Organized violence aimed at government and civilian targets intended to create fear in order to accomplish political aims

a)

Balkanization

b)

Ethnic Cleansing

c)

Terrorism

d)

Irredentism

137.

Movement to take territory of other states due to cultural links with the people there; an attempt to reunite multistate nations

a)

Balkanization

b)

Ethnic Cleansing

c)

Terrorism

d)

Irredentism

138.

An alliance of three or more states that work together in pursuit of common goals

a)

Supranationalism

b)

Failed State

c)

Unitary

d)

Neocolonialism

139.

A state that is unable to perform the basic functions of a state like protecting its territory, maintaining its boundaries, or providing services to people

a)

Supranationalism

b)

Failed State

c)

Federal

d)

Shatterbelts

140.

Specialized crops grown mostly in Spain, France, Greece, North Africa, California, South Africa, Chile, Australia

a)

Mediterranean Agriculture

b)

Specialty Agriculture

c)

Intensive Agriculture

d)

Extensive Agriculture

141.

Fruits, nuts, vegetables, heirloom varieties of crops or animal breeds, regional foods, culinary herbs and/or spices, and medicinal and/or decorative plants

a)

Mediterranean Agriculture

b)

Specialty Agriculture

c)

Intensive Agriculture

d)

Extensive Agriculture

142.

Requires large amounts of labor and capital in relation to the area of land; High yield per acre

a)

Mediterranean Agriculture

b)

Specialty Agriculture

c)

Intensive Agriculture

d)

Extensive Agriculture

143.

Requires small amounts of labor and capital in relation to the area of land; Low yield per acre

a)

Mediterranean Agriculture

b)

Specialty Agriculture

c)

Intensive Agriculture

d)

Extensive Agriculture

144.

Rural survey method that uses physical features to delineate property lines, found in Britain, Western Europe and Eastern USA

a)

Metes and Bounds

b)

Rectangular Survey System

c)

Long Lot

d)

Von Thunen Model

145.

Rural survey method that uses a grid system, implemented by township range system, common in the USA

a)

Metes and Bounds

b)

Rectangular Survey System

c)

Long Lot

d)

Von Thunen Model

146.

Rural survey method that uses strips of land that start at a river or lake with the intention of providing all landowners with equal access to the resources, common in prominent in French and Canadian Maritime areas

a)

Metes and Bounds

b)

Rectangular Survey System

c)

Long Lot

d)

Von Thunen Model

147.

The beginning of deliberate domestication and harvesting of plants and animals, about 10,000 years ago

a)

First Agricultural Revolution

b)

Second Agricultural Revolution

c)

The Green Revolution

d)

Enclosure Movement

148.

The exchange of goods and ideas between North America, Africa, and Europe initiated by Christopher Columbus’ voyage to the Americas in 1492: resulted in the diffusion of plants, animals, and diseases

a)

Columbian Exchange

b)

Second Agricultural Revolution

c)

The Green Revolution

d)

Enclosure Movement

149.

Starting in Britain in the 1750s, used technology provided by the Industrial Revolution to increase production and distribution of agricultural products

a)

First Agricultural Revolution

b)

Second Agricultural Revolution

c)

The Green Revolution

d)

Enclosure Movement

150.

Series of laws enacted by the British government that enabled landowners to purchase and enclose land for their own use which had previously been communal land; leads to commercial agriculture and larger farms

a)

First Agricultural Revolution

b)

Second Agricultural Revolution

c)

The Green Revolution

d)

Enclosure Movement

151.

Rapid diffusion of new agricultural technology characterized by hybridization, genetic modification, and the use of chemicals; started in the USA in the mid-20th century

a)

First Agricultural Revolution

b)

Second Agricultural Revolution

c)

The Green Revolution

d)

Enclosure Movement

152.

Plants are bred to have superior characteristics like resistance to insects and short growing seasons, led to increased yields during the Green Revolution

a)

Mediterranean Agriculture

b)

Specialty Agriculture

c)

Intensive Agriculture

d)

Hybridization

153.

Agriculture undertaken primarily to generate products for sale off the farm

a)

Commercial Agriculture

b)

Subsistence Agriculture

c)

Shifting Cultivation

d)

Plantation Agriculture

154.

Crops and livestock are grown to feed the farmer, family & community

a)

Commercial Agriculture

b)

Subsistence Agriculture

c)

Shifting Cultivation

d)

Plantation Agriculture

155.

Extensive subsistence agriculture in Latin America, Sub-Saharan Africa, Southeast Asia; Farmers move from one field to another; aka slash-and-burn agriculture

a)

Commercial Agriculture

b)

Livestock Ranching

c)

Shifting Cultivation

d)

Plantation Agriculture

156.

Extensive subsistence agriculture in Northern Africa, Southwest Asia, Central Asia, East Asia; livestock is moved to different pastures

a)

Nomadic Herding/Pastoral Nomadism

b)

Livestock Ranching

c)

Shifting Cultivation

d)

Plantation Agriculture

157.

Extensive commercial agriculture in Western North America, Southeastern South America, Central Asia, Australia, South Africa where livestock are raised and sent to feedlots for slaughter

a)

Nomadic Herding/Pastoral Nomadism

b)

Livestock Ranching

c)

Shifting Cultivation

d)

Plantation Agriculture

158.

Intensive commercial agriculture in Southeastern US, California, Southeastern Australia where fruits and vegetables are grown; relies heavily on migrant labor

a)

Nomadic Herding/Pastoral Nomadism

b)

Market Gardening/Truck Farming

c)

Shifting Cultivation

d)

Plantation Agriculture

159.

Intensive commercial agriculture that takes place in LDCs but products are transported for sale in a global market; Commodity & specialty crops such as cacao, coffee, and sugarcane

a)

Nomadic Herding/Pastoral Nomadism

b)

Market Gardening/Truck Farming

c)

Shifting Cultivation

d)

Plantation Agriculture

160.

The large-scale system that includes the production, processing, and distribution, financial funding and research of agricultural products and equipment

a)

Agribusiness

b)

Commodity Chain

c)

Farm Consolidation

d)

Economies of Scale

161.

Complex network that connects places of production with distribution to consumers; seen with large corporate farms that produce, process, and distribute the products

a)

Agribusiness

b)

Commodity Chain

c)

Farm Consolidation

d)

Economies of Scale

162.

Small-scale farmers often lose their land or sell it to large corporations or plantation owners; the number of farms has decreased while the size of farms has increased

a)

Agribusiness

b)

Commodity Chain

c)

Farm Consolidation

d)

Economies of Scale

163.

A proportionate savings in cost caused by an increased level of production; Large scale farming is cost effective due to lower bulk prices for farming supplies and technologies

a)

Agribusiness

b)

Commodity Chain

c)

Farm Consolidation

d)

Economies of Scale

164.

Model explaining the spatial arrangement of commercial agriculture based on transportation costs as the most important factor

a)

Metes and Bounds

b)

Rectangular Survey System

c)

Long Lot

d)

Von Thunen Model

165.

Products like coffee, tea, and sugar that are produced in LDCs and sold in MDCs; creates a dependence on export commodities and leads to economic and environmental issues in LDCs

a)

Mediterranean Agriculture

b)

Specialty Agriculture

c)

Intensive Agriculture

d)

Luxury Crops

166.

Environmental consequence of some agriculture, previously fertile lands become arid and unusable for farming

a)

Desertification

b)

Salinization

c)

Terrace Farming

d)

Deforestation

167.

Buildup of salts in the soil caused by overwatering

a)

Desertification

b)

Salinization

c)

Terrace Farming

d)

Deforestation

168.

Typically practiced by subsistence farmers in  mountainous areas; Steps are built into the sides of hills and mountain sides in order to cultivate water-intensive crops like rice

a)

Desertification

b)

Salinization

c)

Terrace Farming

d)

Deforestation

169.

The destruction of forest or forested areas by human or natural means; consequence of clearing land for agricultural practices

a)

Desertification

b)

Salinization

c)

Terrace Farming

d)

Deforestation

170.

Cultivation of one crop; Allows for specialization and maximizes efficiency, leads to higher yields; Can strip nutrients from the soil, decrease biodiversity or put small farmers out of business

a)

Monocropping (Monoculture)

b)

Aquaculture

c)

Community-Supported Agriculture (CSA)

d)

Food deserts

171.

Farm-raising fish; led to the production of just a few species of fish

a)

Monocropping (Monoculture)

b)

Aquaculture

c)

Community-Supported Agriculture (CSA)

d)

Food deserts

172.

Farmers sell “shares” of their crops and products to local consumers; Forms local bonds between farmers and consumers; promotes economic and environmental sustainability

a)

Monocropping (Monoculture)

b)

Aquaculture

c)

Community-Supported Agriculture (CSA)

d)

Food deserts

173.

Geographic areas with limited access to affordable, healthy food options due to lack of supermarkets

a)

Monocropping (Monoculture)

b)

Aquaculture

c)

Community-Supported Agriculture (CSA)

d)

Food deserts

174.

unrestricted growth in urban areas of housing, commercial development, and roads over large expanses of land

a)

urban sprawl

b)

suburbanization

c)

boomburbs

d)

exurbs

175.

movement of upper/middle class people from urban core areas to the surrounding outskirts

a)

urban sprawl

b)

suburbanization

c)

boomburbs

d)

exurbs

176.

rapidly growing suburban cities that represent a new metropolitan form

a)

urban sprawl

b)

suburbanization

c)

boomburbs

d)

exurbs

177.

rings of prosperous communities beyond the suburbs

a)

urban sprawl

b)

suburbanization

c)

boomburbs

d)

exurbs

178.

economic center on the fringe of a city with an extensive amount of office and retail space, typically near a major road

a)

urban sprawl

b)

suburbanization

c)

boomburbs

d)

edge cities

179.

cities on the top of the urban hierarchy that drive globalization and have global influence in economics, politics, and culture

a)

world cities

b)

central place

c)

megalopolis

d)

megacity

180.

small settlement in a rural area with few services, if any; often don’t have a local government or official boundaries

a)

hamlet

b)

village

c)

town

d)

metropolis

181.

urban settlement that has dozens of services, more specialized (still not urban), usually rural, but more variety of jobs and amenities than a hamlet

a)

hamlet

b)

village

c)

town

d)

metropolis

182.

urban settlement that has a larger population, has a downtown and a hinterland/surrounding area/market area; more services and specialization than a village

a)

hamlet

b)

village

c)

town

d)

metropolis

183.

large city AND its surrounding urban area

a)

hamlet

b)

village

c)

town

d)

metropolis

184.

metropolitan area with population of 10 million or more

a)

megacity

b)

metacity

c)

town

d)

metropolis

185.

city that has population of 20 million or more

a)

megacity

b)

metacity

c)

town

d)

metropolis

186.

a chain of roughly adjacent metropolitan areas; common in MDCs where wealth is more widely distributed; not one giant city but sometimes there isn’t a break in the urban landscape between them

a)

world cities

b)

central place

c)

megalopolis

d)

megacity

187.

leading city in its country or region, disproportionately larger (at least 2x larger) than other cities in the urban hierarchy in that area

a)

primate city

b)

central place

c)

megalopolis

d)

rank-size rule

188.

statistical relationship between the largest city and the next largest city based on population

a)

primate city

b)

central place

c)

megalopolis

d)

rank-size rule

189.

a place that sells services, are surrounded by market areas (maximum distance people are willing to travel for a good or service), measured by the range

a)

primate city

b)

central place

c)

megalopolis

d)

rank-size rule

190.

economic and commercial (and sometimes geographic) heart of a city aka downtown

a)

Central Business District

b)

Bid-Rent Theory

c)

infill

d)

greenbelt

191.

a theory explaining how land value goes down the farther away it is from the CBD

a)

Central Business District

b)

Bid-Rent Theory

c)

infill

d)

greenbelt

192.

use of existing space within a city or suburban area; or further construction within city/reuse of vacant buildings

a)

Central Business District

b)

Bid-Rent Theory

c)

infill

d)

greenbelt

193.

land surrounding urban areas that are designated to remain undeveloped or retain as agricultural land; used to prevent urban sprawl

a)

Central Business District

b)

Bid-Rent Theory

c)

infill

d)

greenbelt

194.

one ethnic group is convinced to sell their homes at a low price in the fear that another ethnic group is moving into the neighborhood

a)

blockbusting

b)

redlining

c)

gentrification

d)

squatter settlement

195.

banks refused loans to those who want to purchase homes in certain urban areas

a)

blockbusting

b)

redlining

c)

gentrification

d)

squatter settlement

196.

individuals and companies buy up and rehabilitate houses, raising the housing value of the neighborhood and attract higher income residents; lower income residents are evicted because they can’t afford the higher rent

a)

blockbusting

b)

redlining

c)

gentrification

d)

squatter settlement

197.

a residential area (usually in the semiperiphery) that has developed without legal claims to the land

a)

blockbusting

b)

redlining

c)

gentrification

d)

squatter settlement

198.

boundaries that attempt to limit urban sprawl in order to protect wildlife habitats

a)

blockbusting

b)

redlining

c)

gentrification

d)

Urban Development Boundary

199.

a set of changes in technology that dramatically increased manufacturing productivity; reshaped how people worked, behaved, where they lived, and how they related to each other spatially

a)

Industrial Revolution

b)

New International Division of Labor

c)

Least Cost Theory

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

200.

a disaggregated production process with economic sectors and commodity chains distributed across the globe

a)

Industrial Revolution

b)

New International Division of Labor

c)

Least Cost Theory

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

201.

a theory that attempts to predict the location of a manufacturing site based on the relative location of the resources and the market

a)

Industrial Revolution

b)

New International Division of Labor

c)

Least Cost Theory

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

202.

a location where transfer is possible from one mode of transportation to another

a)

Break of bulk point

b)

Footloose Industries

c)

bulk-reducing industry

d)

bulk-gaining industry

203.

an industry where the cost of making the product is not impacted by transportation

a)

Break of bulk point

b)

Footloose Industries

c)

bulk-reducing industry

d)

bulk-gaining industry

204.

products are less heavy than their inputs; companies try to locate processing plants near the source of raw materials; Examples – copper and steel

a)

Break of bulk point

b)

Footloose Industries

c)

bulk-reducing industry

d)

bulk-gaining industry

205.

products are heaviest when finished; companies try to locate factories near the market; Examples – soda and beer

a)

Break of bulk point

b)

Footloose Industries

c)

bulk-reducing industry

d)

bulk-gaining industry

206.

total value of officially recorded goods and services by the citizens and corporations within a country’s borders in a given year

a)

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

b)

Gross National Product (GNP)

c)

Gross National Income (GNI)

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

207.

total value of goods and services by the citizens and corporations of a country as well as foreign investments in a given year

a)

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

b)

Gross National Product (GNP)

c)

Gross National Income (GNI)

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

208.

most accurate measure of wealth, because it accounts for the impacts of trade

a)

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

b)

Gross National Product (GNP)

c)

Gross National Income (GNI)

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

209.

a measurement of development used to compare countries that combines one economic indicator, two social indicators, and one demographic indicator

a)

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

b)

Gross National Product (GNP)

c)

Gross National Income (GNI)

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

210.

measures gender inequality by looking at reproductive health, empowerment, and labor market participation

a)

Gender Gap

b)

Gender Inequality Index (GII)

c)

Gross National Income (GNI)

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

211.

the differences in the privileges afforded to males and females in a culture

a)

Gender Gap

b)

Gender Inequality Index (GII)

c)

Gross National Income (GNI)

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

212.

these programs provide small loans to start or expand a business to entrepreneurs who would not normally qualify for credit from traditional sources

a)

Gender Gap

b)

Gender Inequality Index (GII)

c)

Microfinance

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

213.

economically and politically dominant countries; Examples – US, UK, Japan

a)

Core

b)

Semi-periphery

c)

Periphery

d)

Dependency Theory

214.

“middle Income” countries in the process of industrialization; Examples – Brazil, India, Mexico

a)

Core

b)

Semi-periphery

c)

Periphery

d)

Dependency Theory

215.

countries with less wealth, lower levels of education; export natural resources; often former colonies; Examples – Peru, Kenya, Afghanistan

a)

Core

b)

Semi-periphery

c)

Periphery

d)

Dependency Theory

216.

the idea that resources flow from poor and underdeveloped states (the periphery) to the wealthy states (the core)

a)

Core

b)

Semi-periphery

c)

Periphery

d)

Dependency Theory

217.

have facilities and processes spread among several countries (global assembly line)

a)

Transnational corporations (TNCs)

b)

Comparative advantage

c)

Complimentary advantage

d)

Neoliberalism

218.

a country produces something they have an advantage in

a)

Transnational corporations (TNCs)

b)

Comparative advantage

c)

Complimentary advantage

d)

Neoliberalism

219.

parties tend to trade goods or services in which each group has a comparative advantage in producing

a)

Transnational corporations (TNCs)

b)

Comparative advantage

c)

Complimentary advantage

d)

Neoliberalism

220.

trade policies that seek to lower trade barriers within regions and across the globe

a)

Transnational corporations (TNCs)

b)

Comparative advantage

c)

Complimentary advantage

d)

Neoliberalism

221.

moving jobs to an area outside of where the company is located

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Economic Restructuring

c)

Substitution Principle

d)

Export-Processing Zones/Special Economic Zones

222.

shifts in the spatial distribution of manufacturing; produces deindustrialization and industrial intensification

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Economic Restructuring

c)

Substitution Principle

d)

Export-Processing Zones/Special Economic Zones

223.

spaces within a country where special regulations (investment and trading conditions) benefit foreign-controlled businesses

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Economic Restructuring

c)

Substitution Principle

d)

Export-Processing Zones/Special Economic Zones

224.

foreign-owned assembly companies located in Mexico at the US border region

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Economic Restructuring

c)

Substitution Principle

d)

Maquiladoras

225.

businesses seek to maximize profit by substituting one factor of production for another

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Economic Restructuring

c)

Substitution Principle

d)

Maquiladoras

226.

describes flexible production systems that allow production processes to be shifted quickly from production of one product to another with very little "downtime" in the assembly line; components are often delivered to factories "just in time" to be used so that parts inventories are minimal

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Economic Restructuring

c)

Post-Fordism

d)

Multiplier Effect

227.

a term for the potential of a job to produce additional jobs

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Economic Restructuring

c)

Post-Fordism

d)

Multiplier Effect

228.

sites of deindustrialization, creates a landscape of abandoned factories

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Economic Restructuring

c)

Brownfields

d)

Export-Processing Zones/Special Economic Zones

229.

any economic development that serves the current needs of people without making it harder for people in the future to live well

a)

Sustainable Development

b)

Ecotourism

c)

Brownfields

d)

Economic Restructuring

230.

tourism based in natural environments; attempts to protect local ecosystems and to educate visitors about them; Examples – Costa Rica, Botswana, Australia

a)

Sustainable Development

b)

Ecotourism

c)

Brownfields

d)

Economic Restructuring