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Worksheets

Exam 4

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Methotrexate can be used for...? (SATA)

a)

Decreasing immune system activity

b)

Reducing inflammation

c)

Lupus

d)

Slowing growth of cancer cells

2.

Adalimumab (Humira) is a...

a)

DMARD

b)

Corticosteroid

c)

Biologic therapy

d)

Antihistamine

3.

What are the common side effects of corticosteroids? (SATA)

a)

Edema

b)

Hypertension

c)

Weight gain

d)

Delayed wound healing

4.

Lupus is an autoimmune disease that causes exacerbations of systemic inflammation leading to tissue damage

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Lupus is more common in men.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

What are some environmental factors that contribute to Lupus? (SATA)

a)

Excessive sun exposure

b)

Pollution

c)

Infection

d)

Pesticides

e)

Estrogen sensitivity

7.

What are the most common clinical manifestations for lupus? (SATA)

a)

Butterfly rash

b)

Alopecia

c)

Joint pain

d)

Mouth ulcers

8.

To be diagnosed with Lupus, you must have 4 or more positive results of the diagnostic criteria.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Preventative measures for Lupus exacerbations. (SATA)

a)

Avoid people with infections

b)

Bedrest

c)

Avoid direct sun exposure

d)

Increase protein and carb intake

10.

Tumor lysis syndrome is caused by chemotherapy.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

What is the goal for tumor lysis syndrome?

a)

Prevent nadir

b)

Prevent hypercalcemia

c)

Prevent renal failure and electrolyte imbalance

d)

Prevent dehydration

12.

A manifestation of Tumor Lysis Syndrome is Hypercalcemia.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Treatment for Hyperkalemia include... (SATA)

a)

Kayexalate

b)

Lasix

c)

IV insulin

d)

Eliminating potassium in diet

14.

What might a person with TLS need?

a)

Chemo

b)

Nephrectomy

c)

Dialysis

d)

Radiation

15.

In Crohn's, bleeding is common during bowel movements.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

In which condition is inflammation anywhere in the GI tract (from gum to bum)?

a)

Ulcerative Colitis

b)

Crohn's

17.

Ulcers only penetrate the inner lining of the abdomen.

a)

Ulcerative colitis

b)

Crohn's

18.

In Crohn's... (SATA)

a)

Inflammation is in patches found in large sections of the bowel

b)

Bleeding is common during bowel movements.

c)

Inflammation is typically in the lower right abdomen

d)

Inflammation is limited to the large intestine/colon.

19.

In Ulcerative colitis... (SATA)

a)

Inflammation is typically im the lower left abdomen

b)

Inflamed areas are continuous with no patchiness

c)

Bleeding is common during bowel movements

d)

Ulcers penetrate the entire thickness of the abdominal lining.

20.

In a diagnostic CBC for IBD, it would show a decreased WBC.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Which of the following are used as diagnostics for IBD? (SATA)

a)

Barium enema

b)

Colonoscopy

c)

CT/MRI

d)

CBC

22.

Which medications can be used to treat IBD? (SATA)

a)

Antimicrobials

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

5-aminosalicylates

d)

Antibacterials

23.

What are some goals and nursing management for IBD? (SATA)

a)

Pain control

b)

Bowel rest

c)

Fluid and electrolyte balance

d)

Cardiac monitoring

24.

What could a patient with IBD do to help them identify their triggers?

a)

Cut out carbs

b)

Begin a vegan diet

c)

Keep a food diary

d)

Cut out all dairy products

25.

What diet should someone with IBD follow? (SATA)

a)

High calorie

b)

High in fiber

c)

Low in fiber

d)

High protein

26.

The best way to prevent IBD exacerbations is by identifying triggers.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Which condition can you see fistulas and strictures with?

a)

Ulcerative Colitis

b)

Crohn's

28.

Some environmental factors that can lead to IBD are... (SATA)

a)

Diet

b)

NSAIDS

c)

Stress

d)

Antibiotics

29.

What condition is this?

a)

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

b)

Superior Vena Cava Syndrome

c)

Spinal Cord Compression

d)

Hypercalcemia

30.

A cancer patient comes in to the ER complaining of new and worsening back pain, during your assessment they say they have numbness and tingling in their legs, which oncologic emergency could this be?

a)

Superior Vena Cava Syndrome

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Spinal Cord Compression

d)

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

31.

While working on the oncology unit you get some lab results back on two of your patients, which one would you go see first?

a)

Sally

Potassium: 7.2

Uric acid: 11

Phospate: 12.1

Calcium: 4.2

b)

John

Potassium: 3.6

Uric acid: 6.5

Phosphate: 3.3

Calcium: 9.2

32.

Which interventions would you do if you are caring for a patient at risk of TLS? (SATA)

a)

Cardiac monitoring

b)

Monitor labs

c)

Give corticosterioids

d)

Assess renal function

33.

The CNA comes to find you after taking vitals on Mrs. Sally, she tells you that when she was taking her blood pressure on her left arm, her hand and wrist kept contracting. What does this indicate? (SATA)

a)

Positive Chvostek sign

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Positive Trousseau sign

d)

Hypercalcemia

34.

What medication would you give to decrease uric acid levels in the body?

a)

Lasix

b)

Calcium Calcitriol

c)

Kayexalate

d)

Allopurinol

35.

Which of the following oncologic emergencies is due to a tumor block? (SATA)

a)

Tumor lysis syndrome

b)

Spinal cord compression

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Superior vena cava syndrome

36.

TLS and Hypercalcemia are due to...

a)

Structural changes in the body

b)

Metabolic/ Hematologic changes

c)

Obstructive changes

37.

After receiving report from night shift you go in to see your first patient Mr. Jones, when you walk in, he's tachypneic, has some periorbital edema, and has distended veins on his neck and chest. What oncologic emergency do you suspect?

a)

Tumor lysis syndrome

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Superior vena cava syndrome

d)

Spinal cord compression

38.

Which treatment options would you use for a patient with Superior Vena Cava Syndrome? (SATA)

a)

Anticoaglulants/Thrombolytics

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Radiation

d)

Endovascular shunts

39.

What is a normal calcium level?

a)

3.5-5

b)

15-36

c)

8.5-10.5

d)

4-6

40.

What would be considered HYPERcalcemia?

a)

>10

b)

>12

c)

>8.5

d)

<8

41.

What could cause hypercalcemia? (SATA)

a)

Kidney's are unable to excrete it

b)

Drinking too much milk

c)

Tumors cause the bones to release calcium

42.

After receiving report on your patients, which patient would you go see first?

a)

Liam who's vitals are:

Temp: 37.4

HR: 88

RR: 18

BP: 132/86

SPO2: 97%

b)

Sally who's labs just came back:

Potassium: 3.7

Uric acid: 3.5

Phospate: 2.8

Calcium: 10

c)

John who hasn't been able to have a bowel movement in 2 days and is complaining of abdominal pain.

d)

Jackie who the CNA states is lethargic, has been vomiting for 30 minutes, and is experiencing sudden weakness and fatigue.

43.

What are manifestations of hypercalcemia? (SATA)

a)

Mental status changes

b)

EKG changes

c)

Polyuria

d)

Depression

e)

Nausea and Vomiting

44.

When treating for hypercalcemia you should give thiazide diuretics.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

What are some treatment options of hypercalcemia? (SATA)

a)

Aggressive hydration

b)

Loop diuretics

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Thiazide diuretics

46.

Who is more affected by Rheumatoid arthritis? (SATA)

a)

Women

b)

Men

c)

Age <60

d)

Age 30-50

47.

Rheumatoid arthritis only affects the joints.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

You have a patient with Rheumatoid arthritis come in and say that every time they are exposed to cold weather or stress, their fingers turn pale or blue, and then turn bright red after being warmed, what is this called?

a)

Pleuritis

b)

Environmental response

c)

Diarthrodial

d)

Raynaud's phenomenon

49.

What develops in rheumatoid arthritis that causes a lot of the extraarticular manifestations?

a)

Pericarditis

b)

Rheumatoid factor

c)

Rheumatoid nodules

d)

Synovial fluid

50.

CCP can be found in a patient's blood 5 to 10 years before they even show symptoms of RA.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

What diagnostic labs would they do for RA? (SATA)

a)

CRP/ESR

b)

CCP

c)

RF

d)

CMP

e)

ANA

52.

Which diagnostic tests can they do for RA? (SATA)

a)

CT

b)

Doppler ultrasound

c)

X-Ray

d)

Joint fluid analysis

e)

MRI

53.

For the diagnostic criteria for RA, you must have 4 of the 7 present for a minimum of 2 weeks.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which of these patients is showing 4 of the 7 diagnostic criteria for RA?

a)

Patient A:

Joint pain

Mouth sores

Arthritis

Swelling in hand joints

b)

Patient B:

Rheumatoid nodules

Symmetrical joint swelling

Photosensitivity

Serositis

c)

Patient C:

Antinuclear antibody

Renal disorder

Erosions on x-ray

Positive RF

d)

Patient D:

Decalcification on x-ray

Morning stiffness >1 hour

Rheumatoid nodules

Symmetrical joint swelling

55.

What is the goal for RA treatment?

a)

Remove nodules

b)

Decrease the RF factor

c)

Preserve joint function

56.

You are providing education to a patient with RA on ways to relieve pain, which of the following are good pain control measures? (SATA)

a)

NSAIDS

b)

Go on a run

c)

Paraffin wax dips

d)

Warm baths/showers

57.

When educating your patient with RA on preserving joint function, which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I will perform ROM exercises three times a day.

b)

When getting ready for bed I will place a pillow under my knees to help my joints.

c)

I will alternate scheduled rest periods with activity.

d)

I can apply heat to my joints for 20 minutes at a time.

58.

Diagnostic criteria for SLE include...? (SATA)

a)

Malar rash

b)

Neurological disorders

c)

Arthritis

d)

Erosions

e)

Photosensitivity

59.

What cancer is characterized by the abnormal, uncontrolled proliferation of one type of hematopoietic cell?

a)

Lymphoma

b)

Leukemia

c)

Multiple Myeloma

d)

Pancreatic cancer

60.

What are the 4 types of leukemia? (SATA)

a)

CLL

b)

CLM

c)

AML

d)

CML

e)

ALL

61.

A patient comes in with the following manifestations, which leukemia do you think they have?

Decreased platelets, mild splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, no sternal tenderness.

a)

CML

b)

CLL

62.

You have a patient who you suspect may have leukemia, which diagnostic studies do you anticipate the doctor will order? (SATA)

a)

PET scan

b)

CT scan

c)

MRI

d)

Lumbar puncture

63.

A patient who is in remission comes in for a visit, they show no symptoms and have a normal peripheral blood smear, there is still evidence of disease in the bone marrow. What kind of remission is this?

a)

Complete

b)

Partial

c)

Relapse

64.

The amount of times a person relapses does not affect their prognosis.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

What are the chemotherapy phases for leukemia treatment? (SATA)

a)

Pre-induction

b)

Intensification

c)

Post-induction

d)

Maintenance

e)

Induction

66.

While providing education to a patient recently diagnosed with Leukemia, which statement by the patient indicates understanding?

a)

I cannot receive any other treatment while getting chemo.

b)

I will not be receiving chemotherapy because it does not work for Leukemia.

c)

I will receive chemo but can also receive other drugs and treatments to help.

d)

The only way to achieve remission is if I receive a stem cell transplant.

67.

Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is typically seen in the age range of 50-60.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

What are some similarities between the two types of lymphomas? (SATA)

a)

Painless lymph node enlargement.

b)

Prognosis is good.

c)

Chemo can be used for treatment.

d)

Reed Sternburg cells are present.

e)

Can be diagnosed with a lymph node biopsy.

69.

You are educating a patient who just got a new diagnosis of Hodgkin's lymphoma. They ask what could have caused them to get it, what would be the most appropriate response?

a)

"It commonly occurs in people who are immunocompromised."

b)

"There really isn't a known cause for it. But it can be due to certain viruses or genetic components."

70.

In Hodgkin's lymphoma, radiation therapy cures about 95% of patients.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

In non-Hodgkin's the patients typically have widespread disease by the time of diagnosis.

a)

True

b)

False