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ACS - Informed Consent

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process in which a health care provider educates a patient about the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a given procedure or intervention.

a)

Capacity

b)

Clarity

c)

Informed consent

d)

Competence

2.

Clinicians have an "affirmative duty" to disclose relevant information.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

What is NOT one of the four C's of informed consent?

a)

Capacity

b)

Certainty

c)

Competence

d)

Clarity

e)

Consent

4.

Person's ability to understand about a condition/treatment, expressing a choice, appreciation, and reasoning about proposed treatment options.

a)

Capacity

b)

Competence

c)

Clarity

d)

Consent

5.

A legal judgement, informed by an assessment of capacity and relating to an individual's legal right to make his or her own decisions.

a)

Capacity

b)

Competence

c)

Clarity

d)

Consent

6.

Patient's must be provided candid and clear information, at a comprehensible language and level. Expected course, risk/benefits, probabilites/uncertainties, alternatives and clinical recommendations.

a)

Capacity

b)

Competence

c)

Clarity

d)

Consent

7.

Voluntary, without coercion, manipulation, persuasion or guilt.

a)

Capacity

b)

Competence

c)

Clarity

d)

Consent

8.

What is NOT correctly matched description to the PARQ acronym?

a)

P - procedure explained

b)

A - alternatives to procedure

c)

R - risk discussed

d)

Q - quote of procedure price

9.

If _____ is compromised, need for surrogacy may arise.

a)

Capacity

b)

Competence

c)

Clarity

d)

Consent

10.

Parental consent is needed for minors seeking STI treatment, pregnancy related testing or behavioral assistance.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

What type of consent is preferred because it provides concrete evidence of an exchange of information with its associated assent?

a)

Written

b)

Verbal

c)

Implied

d)

General

12.

What type of consent is used under emergent circumstances (unconscious or otherwise temporarily incapacitated)?

a)

Written

b)

Verbal

c)

Implied

d)

General

13.

What type of consent is obtained on hospital admission for routine testing, treatment and touching of healthcare professional?

a)

Written

b)

Verbal

c)

Implied

d)

General

14.

Requires clinician disclose information that another clinician with the same skill-set and practicing in similar community would disclose.

a)

Professional Standard

b)

Reasonable Person Standard

c)

Subjective Standard

15.

More patient-centric, provides information that a reasonable person would consider significant to make an informed consent.

a)

Professional Standard

b)

Reasonable Person Standard

c)

Subjective Standard

16.

Tailored to specific needs of the patient, must meet legal requirements while also including the moral/ethical features

a)

Professional Standard

b)

Reasonable Person Standard

c)

Subjective Standard

17.

What standard of disclosure is used the most?

a)

Professional Standard

b)

Reasonable Person Standard

c)

Subjective Standard

18.

An action for a "touching" to which the patient did not agree. Performing anything other than what is consented for.

a)

Battery

b)

Negligence

19.

Not sufficiently informing patient of risks with potential complications of procedure. Composed of 4 elements: duty, breach of duty, injury, casual relationship

a)

Battery

b)

Negligence

20.

Negligence Nondisclosure: The requirement that a physician act as a minimally competent, similarly trained, reasonable physician in similar circumstances would act when disclosing information.

a)

Duty

b)

Breach of Duty

c)

Injury

d)

Casual Relationship

21.

Negligence Nondisclosure: Failure to meet the minimal standard of care.

a)

Duty

b)

Breach of Duty

c)

Injury

d)

Casual Relationship

22.

Negligence Nondisclosure: The harm that befalls the patient.

a)

Duty

b)

Breach of Duty

c)

Injury

d)

Casual Relationship

23.

Negligence Nondisclosure: A casual relationship between the breach and the harm is shown when the patient reasonably declares that they would have refused to undergo procedure had they known the true nature of the risks.

a)

Duty

b)

Breach of Duty

c)

Injury

d)

Casual Relationship

24.

What is the single most important measure to reduce transmission of microorganisms.

a)

Hand hygiene

b)

PPE

c)

Respiratory hygiene/ cough etiquette

d)

Isolation procedures

e)

Safe injection

25.

Anything that can be directly transmitted by skin-to-skin contact or indirectly while providing care. (MRSA, VRE, C diff, Scabies). Private room preferred. Gloves, gown and face protection.

a)

Contact

b)

Droplet

c)

Airborne

26.

Respiratory secretions like couhging or sneezing. Remain suspended in air for limited periods; 3-6 ft from source. (Influenza, N. meningitidis, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, pertussis, rubella). Wear surgical masks for providers and patient.

a)

Contact

b)

Droplet

c)

Airborne

27.

Particles of respiratory secretions that can remain suspended in air for extended periods. (TB, measles, varicella, smallpox, COVID-19, SARS) Private room with negative air pressure. N95 respirator mask, gloves, gown, face protections.

a)

Contact

b)

Droplet

c)

Airborne

28.

Absence of mircoorganisms that cause disease. Most commonly applied in the context of techniques and procedures.

a)

Asepsis

b)

Sterile

29.

Being free of all living microorganisms. Most commonly used to describe environments and instruments that have been clean.

a)

Asepsis

b)

Sterile

30.

Complete sterialization of skin is the main goal of sterile technique.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What is NOT true about principles of sterile technique?

a)

Gowns are sterile in front from shoulder to waist level

b)

Anything below the waist is nonsterile

c)

When in doubt, consider things contaminated

d)

The entire back of the gown is sterile